UW4

Question 1

Disulfuram like reactions

Answer 1

Metronidazole, griseofulvin, procarbazine, tobutamide, chlorpropamide

Question 2

What is dectected in chronic Hep B infections?

Answer 2

Persistent HBsAg and HBV DNA

Question 3

what can cause a widened QRS?

Answer 3

Left or Right bundle branch block, fasicular blocks, pacemakers

Question 4

What can prolong the PR interval?

Answer 4

things that slow AV conduction like beta blockers

Question 5

High peaking left ventricular pressure and decreased aortic pressure ( increased pulse pressure)

Answer 5

Aortic regurgitation

Question 6

Iatrogenic injury during hip surgery

Answer 6

Superior gluteal nerve (hip drop, Trendelenburg sign)

Question 7

knee buckling and loss of patellar reflex. Loss of sensation to skin of anterior thigh and medial leg

Answer 7

Femoral nerve (flexion of the thigh)

Question 8

Difficulty rising from seated position and climbing stairs

Answer 8

Inferior gluteal nerve (gluteus maximus)

Question 9

Hyperosmotic volume contraction

Answer 9

Seen in diabetes insipidus. Loss of free water causes increase in free water and volume contraction

Question 10

How would acute GI hemorrhage affect osmolarity and ICF

Answer 10

Isotonic loss of ECF and no change in ICF. Isoosmotic volume contraction

Question 11

How would adrenal insufficiency affect ECF and ICF?

Answer 11

Hypertonic loss of NaCl. Lose salt. Low osmolarity of ECF would cause water to shift into ICF

Question 12

How would hypertonic saline infusion change osmolarity and volume?

Answer 12

Hypertonic volume expansion. High osmolarity of ECF would shift water into ICF

Question 13

how would primary polydipsia affect osmolarity and volume?

Answer 13

Volume expansion in both ICF and ECF and decreased osmolarity

Question 14

What is synaptophysin a marker for?

Answer 14

Neurons (transmembrane glycoprotein foundin presynaptic vesicles of neurons)

Question 15

GFAP stain

Answer 15

Astrocytomas (Gliblastoma multiforme, oligodendroglioma, ependymoma, peripheral neral sheath tumor). Neoplasms of glial origin

Question 16

When do you hear an S3?

Answer 16

CHF. Immediately after S2 during passive ventricular filling (blood rushing into a partially filled ventricle or stiff ventricle)

Question 17

How do ACE inhibitors affect GFR?

Answer 17

ACEi decrease ANG II to cause vasodilation of the efferent arteriole leading to increase in RBF and thus decrease filtration

Question 18

AICA aneurysm can compress which nerves

Answer 18

Compresses the facial and vestibulocochlear neves

Question 19

unilateral headache, eye pain, diplopia, dilated nonreactive pupil, pstosis, down and out eye

Answer 19

Aneurysm compressing the occulomotor nerve (PCA and superior cerebellar arteries)

Question 20

Puffy face, dyspnea, facial swelling, dilated vessels

Answer 20

SVC syndrome (lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma)

Question 21

Cushings, SIADH

Answer 21

Small cell lung cancer

Question 22

Hypercalcemia with lung cancer

Answer 22

Squamous Cell (PTHrP)

Question 23

Dullness to percussion and diminished breath sounds over affected area

Answer 23

Pleural effusion

Question 24

Distended neck veins, distant heart sounds, pulsus pardoxus

Answer 24

Pericardial effusion

Question 25

Shoulder pain, Horner's syndrome

Answer 25

Pancoast tumor (superior sulcus tumors)

Question 26

What substances utilize the JAK/Stat pathway?

Answer 26

cytokines, growth hormone, prolactin, IL-2

Question 27

What substances utilize the MAP kinase pathway?

Answer 27

Growth factors, EGF, PDGE, FGF

Question 28

What is the mechanism of leptin?

Answer 28

Produced in proprotion to the amount stored. Inhibits production of neuropeptide Y to decreas appetite and stimulates alpha MSH (increase satiety) Mutaiton leads to obesity

Question 29

granulomatous destruction of bile ducts

Answer 29

Florid duct lesions of Primary biliary sclerosis

Question 30

Homeless man with fever, abdomina pain, jaundice

Answer 30

acute cholangitis

Question 31

History of ulcerative cholitis with high alkaline phosphatase

Answer 31

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Question 32

older female with weight loss, abdominal discomfort, epigastric mass

Answer 32

Pancreatic cancer

Question 33

history of pruritis, fatigue with new onset pale stool and xanthelasma

Answer 33

Primiary biliary sclerosis

Question 34

Most common cancer in women

Answer 34

Breast, lung, colon

Question 35

Cancer mortality rates

Answer 35

Lung, breast, colon

Question 36

Mechanism of flucytosine

Answer 36

Nucleotide analog that inhibits RNA synthesis. Used with Amphotericin B for Cryptococcal meningitis

Question 37

Mechanism of Caspfungin

Answer 37

blocks synthesis of glucan component of fungal cell wall. Used for Candida and Aspergillus

Question 38

Mechanism of amphotericin B and nystatin

Answer 38

Bind ergosterol molecules in fungal cel membranes to cause lysis

Question 39

Mechanism of azoles

Answer 39

Inhibits ergosterol synthesis

Question 40

Tachyphylaxis

Answer 40

Vasoconstriction by a-adrenergic agonist decline in efficacy after a few days of use due to negative feedback. Results in vasodilation and exacerbation of nasal congestion symptoms

Question 41

Rebound rhinorrhea

Answer 41

Nasal congestion WITHOUT cough, sneezing or post nasal drop. Associaed with use of topical decongestants for more than 3 days

Question 42

Prevent NSAID induced ulcers

Answer 42

Misoprostol, prostaglandin E1 analog

Question 43

HDL levels

Answer 43

\> 40 Men and \>50 women

Question 44

V-fib younger than 30

Answer 44

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Question 45

Congenital icuspid aortic valve is associated with what defect later in life?

Answer 45

Accelerated onset of calcific aortic stenosis

Question 46

Pancreatic pancer risk factors

Answer 46

Tobacco, obesity

Question 47

gastric cancer risk factors

Answer 47

Dietary nitrates, alcohol, tobacco, H. pylori

Question 48

Liver cancer risk

Answer 48

Hep B and C, cirrhosis, Hemochromotosis, aflatoxin

Question 49

Colorectal cancer risk

Answer 49

HNPCC, IBD, obesity, charred or fried foods

Question 50

Renal cancer risk

Answer 50

Tobacco, obesity, hypertension

Question 51

Bladder cancer

Answer 51

Tobacco, occupational exposures ( rubber, dyes, textiles, leather)

Question 52

Breast Cancer risk

Answer 52

early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity, BRCA mutations

Question 53

Prostate cancer risk

Answer 53

Increasing age, African American

Question 54

Cryptorchid tests, no axillary or public hair, no penis or scrotum, no uterus or ovaries. Breast development

Answer 54

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

Question 55

Recurrent infections with diffuse granuloma formation.

Answer 55

Chronic granulomatous disease. Deficiency in NADPH oxidase

Question 56

Elevated PT and PTT. Decreased fibrinogen, elevated fibrin degradation products and D-dimer

Answer 56

DIC

Question 57

Fever, acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

Answer 57

HUS TTP. Usually do not bleed. Only platelets are activated. Normal PT and PTT. Normal Fibrinogen

Question 58

When does GVHD develop?

Answer 58

1 week after transplantation