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Uworld Flashcards

1
Q

what are the signs of iron deficiency anemia

A

reactive thrombocytosis decreased erythrocyte count microcytic anemia

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2
Q

what does a smear for aphla/beta thalassemia look like

A

target cells

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3
Q

what is the number of RBCs in alpha/beta thal

A

normal

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4
Q

what is MCV for alpha/beta thal

A

decreased.

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5
Q

what will the iron, TIBC and ferritin be for iron deficiency

A

iron low and ferritin low

TIBC elevated

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6
Q

what is the hemoglobin electrophoresis for alpha and beta thal

A

normal for alpha and increase hemoglobin A2 for beta

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7
Q

what will happen to the number of RBC in iron deficiency anemia

A

they will go down because there will be a decrease in the production

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8
Q

what is the role of the eustachian tube

A

drain middle ear, equalize pressure in the middle ear and prevent reflux of the nasopharyngeal secretions

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9
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of Eustachian tube dysfunction

A

ear fullness, tinnitus, conductive hearing loss, popping sensation, retracted tympanic membrane

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10
Q

why does the tympanic membrane come retracted in Eustachian tube dysfunction

A

because of the negative pressure in the middle ear

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11
Q

what is the most likely cause of intussudcetion in a child younger than 2

A

75% occur following a viral illness and are thought to be caused by hypertrophied Peyers patches in the lymphoid rich terminal illeum

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12
Q

what is the most likely cause of intussusception in an older child

A

meckels

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13
Q

what is the next step for an adolescent that presents with a breast lump and what is the most likely diagnosis

A

fibroadenoma

follow up after menses

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14
Q

what is the main presentation of pertusis and the likely cause

A

coughing for prolonged periods (whooping with cough) vomiting with cough
likely due to waning immunity

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15
Q

when does CNS herpes usually develop in the neonate and what is the presentation

A

second to third week of life with signs of encephalitis including seizure, lethargy and poor feeding with increased intracranial pressure. usually presents with temporal lobe abnormalities such as hemorrhage.

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16
Q

what’s the treatment for neonatal herpes encephalitis

A

Acyclovir

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17
Q

what is the classic triad of congenital rubella

A

murmur (PDA), cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss.

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18
Q

how does rubella present to the mother

A

as a self-limiting feverish illness followed by joint pain

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19
Q

what is the cause of methemagobinemia

A

exposure to oxidiziung substances such as topical analgesics, dapsone, nitrates.

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20
Q

what is the presentation of methemaglobinemia

A

dark chocolate colored blood with pulse ox at 85 and cyanosis

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21
Q

constitutional growth delay presents how

A

as decreased bone age, delayed puberty and delayed growth spurt. parents are usually normal, but sometimes delayed themselves

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22
Q

when should males be at tanner stage 2

A

11 pubic hair

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23
Q

when should males be at tanner 3

A

13 voice changes and muscles

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24
Q

when should males be at tanner 4

A

14 acne and armpit

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25
Q

tanner 5 males what age

A

15 facial hair

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26
Q

what is a commonly found on nasal examination of a child with CF

A

grey or yellow masses in the turbinates –these are nasal polyps. highly associated with CF
remember that this can have a prolonged presentation

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27
Q

what can precipitate a headache from concussion

A

cognitive exertion, visual tasks such as moving eyes between two points. light and noice are common things that worsen the headache

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28
Q

why does knee-to-chest maneuver work for tet spells

A

increases the systemic vascular resistance.

the large VSD allows blood back and forth.

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29
Q

what percentage of SCFE is bilateral and what is the presentation

A

<40%

bilateral SCFE will usually produce a waddling gait

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30
Q

what is the prestentation of iliopsoas bursitis

A

pain due to overuse. usually with bilateral pain in the hip, limited range of motion and a palpable click

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31
Q

what is the appropriate timing of physiologic valgum

A

2-5

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32
Q

what is calcaneal apophysitis (severs)

A

the most common cause of heel pain in young athletes. due to overuse and is due to micro trauma to the heel growth plate. running or jumping sports

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33
Q

what are the diagnostic findings of severs

A

calcaneal compression test palpation of the base of the heel over the apophysis results in pain. dorsiflexion of the ankle results in pain

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34
Q

what is the treatment for severs

A

supportive with stretching, ice, NSAIDs and a heel cup for cushioning

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35
Q

what is the underlying cause of cysteinuria

A

amino acid transport abnormality

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36
Q

post exposure prophylaxis for pertusis is what

A

macrolide antibiotics regardless of vaccination status

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37
Q

what is the most likely cause of sepsis in sickle patients

A

could be any of the encapsulated bacteria but most likely strep pneumo

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38
Q

what are the risk factors for respiratory distress syndrome

A

prematurity (most important), male sex, perinatal asphyxia, maternal diabetes, C section without labor.

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39
Q

why does maternal diabetes cause RDS

A

because of high levels of insulin which antagonizes cortisol and blocks the maturity of sphingomyelin a vital component of surfactant

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40
Q

what is streptococcal perianal dermatitis

A

superficial group A strep infection. usually school aged children. presents with sharply demarcated rash around the anus. fissures are likely. itching is also likely. blood streaked stools. a close contact with strep pharyngitis is possible –patients themselves do not usually have it

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41
Q

what does hypoplastic thumbs, short stature, and hypo or hyperpigmented spots indicate. –usually in the context of pancytopenia

A

DNA repair defect –fanconis anemia
autosomal recessive
can also present with polydactyly

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42
Q

what is another name for Mongolian spiot

A

congenital dermal melanocytosis

these can be extensive.

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43
Q

what is the treatment for abnormal uterine bleeding

A

high dose OCPs are first line therapy

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44
Q

hyposthenuria

A

inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine. there will be urinary frequency, despite refraining from water intake. There will also be a low urine specific gravity.

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45
Q

what is hyposthenuria associatefd with

A

sickle cell trait

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46
Q

what is the presentation of primary polydipsia

A

hyponatremia with increased urine output excessive drinkning

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47
Q

what is routine screening for preterm infants

A

head ultrasound for intraventricular hemorrhages. many are asymptomatic. ruptured germinal matrix is the cause

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48
Q

what are the guidelines for head ultrasound in premature infants

A

<32 weeks requires ultrasound at age 1-2 weeks.

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49
Q

when do intraventricular hemorrhages typically occur

A

within the first 3-4 days of life

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50
Q

what are the symptoms of IVH

A

bulging fontanelle, anemia, apnea, seizures.

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51
Q

what is the treatment for intraventricular hemorrhage of the premature neonate

A

mostly symptomatic management –antiseizure meds, and blood pressure management

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52
Q

how can you tell the difference between a pneumothorax and a congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

scaphoid abdomen

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53
Q

what is the most likely cause of pneumonia in CF in a younger patient

A

staph aureus

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54
Q

what is the most common cause of pneumonia in a CF in an adult

A

pseudomonas

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55
Q

what are the associated complications of mumps

A

parotitis, orchitis and aseptic meningitis

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56
Q

what is a common source of non-typhoidal salmonella

A

inadequate refrigeration of prepared foods.

mostly undercooked poultry or eggs

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57
Q

what is acute cervical lymphadenitis

A

commonly caused by staph aureus or streptococcus pyogenes usually involves the submandibular nodes or cervical.

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58
Q

what is the empiric treatment of cervical lymphadenitis

A

clindamycin

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59
Q

when do you order a CT scan for a child with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis

A

when they have altered mental status, periorbital edema, vision abnormalities

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60
Q

routine screening for newborns is

A

pulse ox

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61
Q

what is an exudate

A

leakage of fluid around the capillary cells do to inflammation
also direct leakage of chyle

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62
Q

what is a transudate

A

is leakage of fluid due to high vascular pressures

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63
Q

what are the causes of an exudate

A

tuberculosis, malignancy, chylothorax and empyema

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64
Q

what is the cause of coarctation of the aorta

A

this is caused by thickening of the tunica media of the aortic arch near the junction of the ductus arteries

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65
Q

what is the presentation of coarctation

A

initially fine, when the ductus closes infants may develop heart failure, tachypnea, poor feeding, fussiness, lethargy, metabolic acidosis and decreased renal perfusion

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66
Q

what is the most common cause of bacterial sinusitis

A

nontypable H flu, strep pneumonae, morexella catarrhalis

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67
Q

is PT extrinsic or intrinsic

A

extrinsic

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68
Q

what is the extrinsic pathway

A

factor VII

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69
Q

why would cystic fibrosis cause coagulation deficits

A

because of the malabsorption. vitamin K would be low and this would cause VII or the extrinsic pathway

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70
Q

what is the next best diagnostic step for isolated proteinuria in a child

A

early morning protein and creatinine

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71
Q

chronic granulomatous disease is caused by what

A

deficits in NADPH oxidase which is responsible for the respiratory burst

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72
Q

what organisms are people with CGD susceptible to

A

fungal organisms and catalase positive bacteria such s staph aureus and serratia

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73
Q

what are the tests that confirm CGD

A

dihydrorhodamine 123 and nitro blue tetrazolium

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74
Q

what is WAGR syndrome

A

wilms tumor, aniridia, genitourinary abnormalities, and retardation

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75
Q

what is otitis media with effusion and what is the management

A

this typically occurs after acute otitis media or viral infections and only causes mild discomfort. The tympanic membrane will show reduced movement on insufflation

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76
Q

how can transient synovitis present

A

As a small intracapsular fluid collection.

common in children after a mild viral illness

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77
Q

treatment for transient synovitis

A

NSAIDs

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78
Q

what are the clinical presentation of Legg-calve perthes

A

positive trendelenberg, insidious limp, restricted hip abduction and internal rotation,

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79
Q

do x rays always show Legg calve perthes

A

no. early x rays are often normal

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80
Q

most common cause of osteomyelitis in healthy children

A

staph aureus

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81
Q

most common cause of osteomyelitis in children with sickle cell

A

salmonella and staph aureus

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82
Q

what are the risk factors for iron deficiency anemia

A

prematurity, lead exposure, delayed introduction o solids (exclusive breast feeding > 6 nonths). > 24 oz of milk cows ,

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83
Q

what are the labs for iron deficiency anemia

A

low RBCs, high iron binding, low hemagoblin, decreased MCV, increased RDW

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84
Q

are there triggers for cyclic vomiting syndrome

A

yes. usually infection or stress

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85
Q

what is a consequence of hemophilic arthropathy

A

hemosiderin deposit and fibrosis which leads to destruction of the cartilage and bone

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86
Q

are pink stains in the urine soaked diaper normal

A

yes. those are uric acid crystals from hyperuricemia of the newborn. totally normal

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87
Q

what are the features of bronchiolitis

A

cough, congestion and increased work of breathing which is usually due to a lower respiratory tract infection such as RSV
presents with increased expiratory phase and wheezes

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88
Q

What is FSH stimulation dependent on

A

GnRH

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89
Q

what is the presentation of syndehams chorea

A

grimacing and writhing

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90
Q

what is the most common cause of pericarditis

A

coxsackie virus

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91
Q

what is another cause of carditis instead of coxsackie

A

strep pyogenes

92
Q

what is the renal findings for henoch sheinlon purpura

A

IgA mesangial deposition

very similar to IgA nephropathy

93
Q

what is HSP

A

IgA vasculitis

94
Q

what is the next step if bilious vomiting, after X ray with dilated bowel

A

contrast enema

95
Q

what is the immediate workup for bilious emesis

A

stop feeds, NG decompression, IV fluids and abdominal X ray.

96
Q

what is the finding for meconium ileus on contrast enema

A

microcolon

97
Q

hypoplasic left heart syndrome presents hw and what is required for survival and why

A

PDA is required rope survival. as the PDA is closing during the first few days of life the baby will become hypotensive, cyanotic and will not respond to oxygen
treatment is prostaglandin

98
Q

what antibiotics should be considered in a patient with CF and pneumonia and why

A

cefepime and vancomycin

cefepime has good coverage for pseudomonas and MSSA, while MRSA is likely and thus requires vancomycin

99
Q

what are the complications of mononucleosis

A

acute airway obstruction, splenic rupture, autoimmune hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia

100
Q

what is the cause and treatment for acute airway obstruction from mono

A

severe oropharyngeal and tonsillar inflammation and enlargement. corticosteroids

101
Q

what are the risk factors for infant HIV

A

high maternal viral load

breast feeding by the affected mother

102
Q

what are the clinical findings of infancy HIV

A

failure to thrive, chronic diarrhea, lymphadenopathy and pneumocystis pneumonia

103
Q

what is the treatment of UTI in child

A

cefixime

104
Q

does penicillin have gram negative activity

A

NO

105
Q

what are the renal manifestations of childhood HSP

A

hematuria

106
Q

what should be done with a newborn with severe hyposapdius

A

karyotyping

becuase it is associated with disorders of sexual development

107
Q

when is dextrose fluid given

A

maintenance fluids. this is not used for initial rehydration

108
Q

when is an upper GI series necessary

A

if the initial imaging is not diagnostic

109
Q

what component is hemophilia A and what is the presentaiton

A

VIII. more common in males, as it is X-linked recessive. the presentation is hemarthrosis

110
Q

what is a common coagulopathy that cause heavy menstrual bleeding with a normal PT and PTT

A

von wile brand disease

111
Q

what does renal biopsy of alport sydnrome

A

longitudinal splitting of the glomerular basement membrane

112
Q

what is the gene for alport

A

type IV collagen

113
Q

what is the difference between acute lymphoblastic leukemia and aplastic anemia

A

ALL has painful bone morrow.

114
Q

what is the pathophysiology of giardiasis

A

local epithelial disruption.

115
Q

what is the treatment for giardiasis

A

tinidazole

116
Q

what is the cause of scarlet fever

A

erythrogenic exotoxins from strep pyogenes

117
Q

what is the vaccination schedule for varicella

A

ages 1 and 4

118
Q

what is the post exposure prophylaxis for varicella

A

provide the vaccine if not immunized with both.

if cannot receive the vaccine then give immunoglobulin.

119
Q

who cannot receive the varicella vaccine

A

pregnant and immunocopmpromised

120
Q

What are the complications of varicella and who do they typically happen to

A

pneumonia, serious skin infections and CNS infections, usually happen adolescents and adults.

121
Q

what is the diagnosis treatment for central precocious puberty

A

MRI to exclude tumor. If idiopathic PP then treat with GnRH agonist

122
Q

what is 21 hydroxylase deficiency and what does it do

A

reduces mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids leading to increased adrogens leads to virilization and severe hypotension due to a lack of aldosterone.
accumulation of 17-hydroxyprogesterone
decrease in 11-deoxycortrisol

123
Q

what is the presentation of D-transposition of the great vessels

A

immediate cyanosis

124
Q

is seizure after administering DTap a contraindication

A

no.

contraindications are anaphylaxis and encephalopathy

125
Q

what is the classic presentation of osteoid osteoma

A

lytic-looking lesion with sclerotic edges. NSAIDs relieve pain worse at night, pain unrelated to activity

126
Q

treatment for osteoid osteoma

A

NSAIDs and monitor

127
Q

what type of bilirubin is elevated in Crigler-Najjar and Gilbert which are the same

A

Unconjugated and and thus indirect

128
Q

what are the complications of drowning injury

A

cerebral edema (if submerged for >5 min), respiratory insufficiency, pneumonia

129
Q

what is empiric treatment for epiglottitis

A

vancomycin and cetriaxone

130
Q

what are other causal organisms besides H flu that can cause epiglottis

A

other H flu strains, streptococcal (pneumonae and pyogenes) and staph aureus

131
Q

does G6PD occur in females

A

not usually X linked disorder

132
Q

what is the MCHC in G6PD

A

typically normal

133
Q

what is the MCHC in beta thalasemia

A

usually low

134
Q

when does beta thalassemia usually occur

A

after 6 months because thats when the fetal hemoglobin goes away

135
Q

what is the MCHC in hereditary spherocytosios

A

usually elevated

136
Q

Does spherocytosis occur in females

A

yes

137
Q

what is a common metabolic deficit in people with sickle cell disease

A

folic acid

138
Q

what is the follow up for VSD

A

echocardiogram to determine the location and size and to rule out other defects

139
Q

what is the treatment for tinea capitis

A

griseofulvin or terbenifine

140
Q

what are the causes of neonatal cataracts

A

rubella and galactosemia
be careful and don’t jump to congenital infection
rubella will also have microcephaly and a heart defect; otherwise they present exactly the same

141
Q

brutons agammaglobimemia is defined how

A

with low antibodies and low B cells normal everything else

142
Q

how to determine the difference between Brutons and common variable

A

the B cells with be low in Brutons

143
Q

what is the presentation of VUR

A

dilation of the ureter and blunted calyces

144
Q

what is the long term consequence of VUR

A

Interstitial fibrosis.

145
Q

how to tell the difference between post strep gliomerulonephritis and IgA neophropathy

A

IgA occurs within days, PSGN occurs weeks after
IgA is due to IgA nesangial depostis while post strep is due to mesangial immune complex deposition.
PSGN also presents with low complement, hypertension, edema

146
Q

what is the treatment for long QT syndrome

A

beta blockers and pacemaker

147
Q

are calcium channel blockers used for long qt

A

no.

148
Q

what are the labs for DIC

A

anemia, thrombocytopenia and elevation of the PT and PTT

149
Q

what are the peripheral blood smear findings of HUS

A

schistocytes due to the intravascular lysis of RBC

150
Q

what determines the immunization schedule

A

chronological age

151
Q

what is the presentation of G6PD

A

treatment with some drugs causes hemolysis. there are Heinz bodies due to precipitation from reduced glutathione
higher incidence in africans and Mediterranean populations.

152
Q

inheritance of g6pd

A

x linked recessive

153
Q

what’s the initial wound management for animal puncture wounds

A

irigation and removal of debris. weigh the options for leaving open or closing
for cosmetic purposes closure is usually performed. infections are likely with closure. leaving the wound open and allowing closure by secondary intent is sometimes better –must think of hemostasis as well

154
Q

what is the presentation of a button battery ingestion

A

corrosive esophagitis and a double density sign on x ray

155
Q

what is the presentation of molluscum

A

centrally located dimpled umbilication of the lesions

156
Q

what is the course of molluscum

A

self-limiting and usually no treatment, can take years to resolve. liquid nitrogen can be used.

157
Q

what are the majority of cases of viral meningitis caused by

A

enteroviruses such as coxsackie b virus

158
Q

what medications should be avoided in G6PD

A

dapsone, isobutyl nitrate, nitrofurantoin, primaquine, rasburicase

159
Q

what is the histological impression of hepatic biopsy for reye syndrome

A

microvesicular steatosis

160
Q

what is the karyotype of kallman

A

normal –will have isolated gene mutation

161
Q

what is the presentation of diamond Blackman anemia

A

pure macrocytic RBC anemia with triphalagnial thumbs and hypertelorism, webbed neck

162
Q

treatment for immune thrombocytopenia

A

rituximab, thrombopoietin receptor agonists or splenectomy

163
Q

what is a modifiable risk factor for acute otitis media

A

smoking/second hand smoke

164
Q

what are the chances of a 17 year old female with a joint effusion having hemophilia

A

low. usually arises in childhood and is an X linked trait

165
Q

what is an early manifestation of sickle cells

A

dactylitis or vasoocclusive disease of the hands and feet

166
Q

what is the defect in nearsightedness (myopia)

A

anterior-posterior diameter of the eye

167
Q

Can the varicella vaccine cause an infection

A

yes.

168
Q

can an undescended testicle have torsion

A

yes. 10X more likely

169
Q

what is an alternative to stimulant therapy for ADHD

A

atomoxetine

this is a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

170
Q

is valproate used for ADHD

A

no

171
Q

what is a potential side effect of hydroxyurea for SCD

A

myelosuppression

172
Q

what hormone causes refeeding syndrome

A

insulin

173
Q

how should patients with beckwith-weideman syndrome be monitored

A

with abdominal ultrasound and AFP measurements every three months from birth to age 4 and renal ultrasound every three months from 4-8 Years for risk wilms tumor and hepatoblastoma

174
Q

what supplements should be given to preterm infants

A

iron and vitamin D. should be given to infants until 1 year of age

175
Q

what is the characteristic stridor for laryngeomalacia

A

inspiratory stridor

176
Q

do people with CF have nose bleeds

A

yes they can because of decreased vitamin K from the pancreatic insufficiency

177
Q

what peripheral blood smear finding is associated with sickle cell disease, other than sickled cells

A

holly-jolly bodies

nuclear remnants from lack of splenic function

178
Q

can a two month old have a pain crisis

A

not likely as they still have fetal hemoglobin

179
Q

when is fetal hemaglobin replaced

A

about 3-6 months

180
Q

what are the symptoms of B2 defieicny

A

angular cheilosis, stomatitis, glossitis, normocytic anemia, seborrheic dermatitis

181
Q

what are the symptoms of B6 defeiicny

A

cheilosis, stomatitis, glossitis

182
Q

what is the presentation of leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

lymphocyte and monocyte decrease. marked leukocytosis with neutrophilia.
presents with multiple skin infections and severe periodontal disease

183
Q

what is the characteristic rash for niacin

A

pruritic dermatitis in the sun exposed areas.

184
Q

what are the soft palate findings for rubella

A

petechiae or erythematous papule known as forchheimer spots

185
Q

what is the presentation of sickle cell trait

A

usually asymptomatic but can have hematuria

186
Q

what are the findings for DiGeorge syndrome

or velocardiofacial syndrome

A

CATCH
conotruncal cardiac defects (tetralogy of fallot, truncus arterioles, interrupted aortic arch), abnormal facies, thyme agenesis/hypoplasia, craniofacial deformities (cleft palate), hypoparathyroidism/hypocalcemia.

187
Q

what is the treatment for pinworm

A

pyrantel pamoate and albendazole

188
Q

what causes obstructive sleep apnea in children

A

FUCKING TONSILS

189
Q

what is the underlygin cause of concussion

A

neuronal functional disturbance

190
Q

what are the features of a pathologic murnur

A

harsh, holosystolic, diastolic, grade III intensity or higher, increases with standing/valsalva
Loud, fixed split, or single s2, harsh, holosystolic, diastolic, grade III intensity or higher, increases with standing/valsalva
Loud, fixed split, or single s2,

191
Q

what are the features of a benign murmnur

A

early or mid-systolic, grade I or II intensity, decreases with standing or valsalva, low-pitched, musical, pure or squeaky tone, or high-pitched at the LUSB

192
Q

what causes the development of prolonged activated PTT in hemophilia treated with recombinant VIII

A

inhibitor development. antibodies recognize the factor

193
Q

heart defect in turners

A

bicuspid aortic valve and coarctation

194
Q

what do intentional burns look like

A

sparing the flexural creases. zebra striped pattern

195
Q

what is the most common cause of conengital hypothyroidism

A

thyroid dysgenesis

196
Q

is fibrosarcoma a childhood disorder

A

no. >30. presents exactly like ewings

197
Q

what is the plan b pill

A

levonogestrel

198
Q

croup is edema and narrowing where

A

the proximal trachea

199
Q

what is PEP for new born for hep B

A

immunoglobulin and vaccine

200
Q

what increases the murmur of HCM

A

valsalva

201
Q

what should you think if you see jaundice hepatomegaly and an increased risk of e coli infetins

A

galactosemia

also associated with elevated transaminases hemolytic anemia and cataracts

202
Q

does continuous positive airway pressure CPAP, increase risk of pneumothorax

A

yes

203
Q

what is the difference between primary dysmenorrhea and endometriosis

A

endometriosis lasts throughout the cycle and usually has a palpable mass or finding in the exam

204
Q

what is required of people with beta thalassemia

A

chronic transfusions and chelation therapy due to iron overload

205
Q

what are the features of mccune albright

A

precocious puberty, fibrous dysplasia of the bone and cafe au lait macules

206
Q

polycythemia presentation in the newborn

A

plethora, respiratory distress, low glucose

207
Q

what is the workup for primary amorrhea

A

first look at uterus. if they have one look at look to the FSH if they dont have a uterus then karyotype.
if the FSH is normal then they have an imperforate Hyman. if its high look to karoytoe. if its low then look at the other hormones (TSH, prolactin). if both are high then hypothyroidism. if prolactin high then prolactinoma. and if normal functional hypothalamic amorrhea

208
Q

what is the presentation of iron toxicity

A

presence of pills on x ray. metabolic acidosis. abdominal pain, nausea and vomting, diarrhea, hematemesis

209
Q

what is the presentation of salicylate poisoning

A

very similar to iron. although often tinnitus will be present first and the pills are not found on x ray

210
Q

what causes the metabolic acidosis of iron toxicity

A

increases oxygen radicals cause lactic acidosis

211
Q

what are people with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia at risk for and how does it present

A

hemorrhagic stroke. presents with sudden weakness and focal neurological symptoms. with hyper dense fluid collections with irregular margins in the cortex.

212
Q

what is the cause of vitamin K bleeding disorders

A

decreased carboxylation of coagulation factors

213
Q

what are the risk factors for DDH

A

breech position, family history and tight swaddling

214
Q

what are the causes of infectious bloody diarrhea

A

salmonella, shigella, campylobacter and E coli o157 H7

215
Q

what are the complications of e coli o157 H7 infection

A

HUS

216
Q

what are the complications of shigella

A

HUS, seizure

217
Q

what are the complications of camplobacter

A

GBS

218
Q

what are the complications of salmonella

A

bacteremai

219
Q

what is the first line treatment for all bloody diarrheas

A

supportive care only unless severe

220
Q

what is the characteristic presentation of fragile X

A

marcoorchidism, behavioral issues, long narrow face, large ears, prominent forehead and chin

221
Q

what is bronchiolitis and the complications

A

common winter respiratory tract infection csaueds ny RSV. children are at risk for developing apnea and respiratory failure

222
Q

what are the labs for turners syndrome hypothalamic axis

A

high FSH/LH, low estrogen

223
Q

what gene should be tested fro CHARGE

A

CHD7

224
Q

what is the genotype-phenotype correlation in kallman and what is the casue

A

they are the same. thus a female is female.

this is hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

225
Q

what are the FSH/LH in females with kallman

A

LOW

pediatrics (4 decks)

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