UWorld Neuro Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

What is the treatmetn & MOA for status epilepticus?

A

IV benzodiazepine

enhave the effect of GABA at GABA-A receptor, which causes increased influx of Cl-, leading to hyperpolarization of postsynaptic neuron

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2
Q

What is the MOA of lidocaine?

Has the greatest effect on what type of nerve?

A

blocking sodium channels in the neuronal cell membrane, preventing depolarization

greatest effect on small, myelinated nerves (pain & temp)

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3
Q

What condition is expected with elevated AFP is detected in utero?

A

open neuraltube defect

d/t failure of primary neurulation

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4
Q

What are the MC antibodies detected in the serum of a patient with paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration?

They primarily attack what cell type?

A

Anti-yo, anti-P/Q, anti-Hu

purkinje cells

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5
Q

Mutation seen in myotonic dystrophy type 1?

What cell types are most affected?

A

CTG repeat - leading to accumulation of hairpin RNAs

accumulates most in non-dividing cells (skeletal & cardiac muscle, brain)

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6
Q

What type of drug is chlorpheniramine?

MOA?

A

first generation anti-histamine

blocks peripheral & central H1 receptors

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7
Q

What type of drug is loratadine?

MOA?

A

second generation anti-histamine

blocks peripheral H1 receptors

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8
Q

What is the probable diagnosis of a patient who is slow to wake up after receiving succinylcholine?

A

pseudocholinesterase deficience

genetic polymorphism in BCHE gene

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9
Q

What is the gross appearance of a glioblastoma?

A

typically located in the cerebral hemisphere

soft, poorly defined, with areas of necrosis & hemorrhage

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10
Q

What psychologic adverse effect can be caused by over the counter allergy medications?

A

delirium

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11
Q

What are the findings seen in TB meningitis?

A

thick, gelatinous exudate most prominent in the basal portion of the brain

vasculitis of the cerebral arteries that can cause multiple bilateral brain infarctions

hydrocephalus d/t obstruction of CSF outflow by tubercular proteins

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12
Q

What are the “3 ds” of botulism intoxication?

A

diplopia, dysphagia, dysphonia

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13
Q

What is the key point in determinig decerebate vs decorticate posture?

A

red nucleus (rostral midbrain)

above the RN: decorticate (flexing)

below the RN: decerebate (extension) - d/t loss of rubrospinal tract- which causes excitation to upper limb flexors & unopposed vestibulospinal tract output, which causes extension

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14
Q

What would you expect to see upon histopathological examination of a patient with HIV-associated dementia?

A

microglial nodules & multinucleated giant cells

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15
Q

What are the mutations associated with early-onset Alzheimer’s disease?

Late-onset?

A
  • early-onset
    • amyloid precursor protein (APP) chromosome 2
    • presenilin 1 on chromosome 14
    • presenilin 2 on chromosome 1
  • late-onset
    • epsilon 4 of apolipoprotein A
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16
Q

What chromsomal abnormality is most commonly associated with holoprosencephaly?

A

incomplete separation of the cerebral hemispheres & has one lateral ventricle

trisomy 13 (patau syndrome)

17
Q

Function of the suprachiasmatic nucleus hypothalamic nucleus?

A

circadian rhythm & pineal gland function

18
Q

Function of the ventromedial nucleus hypothalamic nucleus?

A

mediates satiety - desrtuction leads to hyperphagia

19
Q

Function of the lateral nucleus hypothalamic nucleus?

A

mediates hunger- destruction leads to anorexia

20
Q

Function of the anterior nucleus hypothalamic nucleus?

A

mediates heat dissipation- destruction leads to hyperthermia

21
Q

Function of the posterior nucleus hypothalamic nucleus?

A

mediates heat conservation - destruction leads to hypothermia

22
Q

Function of the arcuate nucleus hypothalamic nucleus?

A

secretion of dopamine (inhibits prolactin), GHRH

23
Q

Function of the medial preoptic nucleus hypothalamic nucleus?

A

secretion GnRH, regulates sexual behavior

24
Q

Function of the paraventricular nucleus hypothalamic nucleus?

A

secretion of oxytocin, CRH, TRH, small amounts of ADH

25
Function of the supraoptic nucleus hypothalamic nucleus?
secretion of ADH, small amounts of oxytocin
26
What is the role of glutamate in ischemic neuron death?
within minutes of ischemia, neurons depolarize d/t depletion of ATP this causes exocytosis of glutamate - activating the NMDA-glutamate receptor which causes an influx of calcium into the cell this overwhelms the cell & causes mitochondrial dysfunction, free radical formation, & calcium dependent protease activation
27
How is diagnosis of cryptococcus meningitis commonly made?
latex agglutination test for soluble polysaccharide antigen
28
AE of succinylcholine? MOA?
malignant hyperthermia severe hyperkalemia bradycardia MOA: attaches to nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAChR) and depolarizes the neuromuscular end plate - resulting in flaccid paralysis
29
What drug can be use to treat spactisity in patients with cerebral palsy?
benzodiazepines & baclofen b/c it can be caused by white matter necrosis which leads to loss of descending inhibitory control this can be improved by CNS inhibitory neurotransmitters - GABA A via benzos & GABA B via baclofen
30
How does the solubility of an anesthetic in peripheral tissue influesnce its onset of action?
if tissue solubility is high, then a lot of the drug will be taken up from the arterial blood, creating a large A/V gradient therefore, saturation of the blood requires more anesthetic, and since blood saturation takes longer, brain saturation is also delayed so- inhaled anesthetics w/ high a/v gradients have a slower onset of action
31
The musculocutaneous nerve innervates what muscles? never roots? It terminates as what arm?
5-7 coracobrachialis elbow flexors (biceps brachii, bracialis) continues course as lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm and provides innervation to the skin of the lateral forearm
32
Presumptive diagnosis of a patient with nonrhythmic eye movements and involuntary jerking movements of the trunk and limbs (opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome) and a firm abdominal mass under the age of 2? expected lab results to confirm diagnosis?
neuroblastoma MC extracranial solid neoplasm of childhood & arises from neural crest cells in the adrenal medulla or sympathetic ganglion elevated catecholamine metabolites (HVA, VMA), small blue round cells & Horner Wright rosettes & N-myc amlification (poor prognosis)
33
How does the histology of a neuron change in the occurance of acute irreversible injury (ie. ischemia, seere hypoglycemia) compared to extensive axonal damage?
* acute irreversible injury * 12-24 hrs post event * shrunken cells separating from the tissue * pyknotic nucleus * loss of basophilic Nissl bodies (so, very red staining cytoplasm) * axonal injury * cell body swelling * movement of the nucleus to the periphery * dispersion of Nissl bodies
34
Surgical targets for Parkinson's treatment?
subthalamic nucleus globus pallidus interna
35
chronic axonal injury or inflammation (as occurs w/ neuroma) results in upregulation of what type of ion channel?
sodium increase nociceptive (pain) sensitivty
36
What enzyme is affected in methylmalonic acidemia? Biochemical results of this mutation? Symptoms/Presentation?
methylmalonyl-CoA mutase results in **build up of methylmalonic acid & proprionic acid,** leading to a metabolic acidosis; the increased metabolic rate leads to hypoglycemia and direct toxic inhibition of gluconeogenesis by the organic acids- this promotes ketone metabolism (increaseing the anion gap acidosis) The organic acids also inhibit the urea cycle, leading to hyperammonemia _Symptoms:_ metabolic anion gap acidosis, hypoglycemia, ketosis, hyperammonemia (hypotonia, lethargy, vomiting, respiratory distress in neonatal period)
37