True Learn Test Flashcards

1
Q

Mutation & presentation of a patient with Wilson’s disease?

A

(hepatolenticular degeneration)

autosomal recessive in hepatocyte copper-transporting ATPase (ATP7B on chromosome13) - decreased copper incorporation into apoceruloplasmin & excretion into bile

presentation varies - liver dysfunction, hemolysis, neuropsychiatric disease (particulary d/t basal ganglia dysfunction)

Kayser-Fleischer rings (appears dark brown in Descement’s membrane)

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2
Q

What disease (and mutation) is indicative of the following symptoms:

precocious puberty

cafe-au-lait macule

fibrous dysplasia of the bone

A

McCune-Albright Syndrome

mutation GNAS - increased production of pituitary hormomes

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3
Q

What are the organisms that have a low ID50? This is generally b/c what characteristic?

A

campylobacter jejuni

shigella

entamoeba histolytica

giardia lamblia

generally means they are able to tolerate acidic environments

ID50 = # organisms required to cause disease in 50% of exposed individuals

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4
Q

Presumable dianosis for a patient who lives in Wisconsin with constitutional symptoms, verrucous skin lesions, and lytic bone lesions?

A

blastomycosis

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5
Q

What consequences can occur in a patient with Turner Syndrome due to congenital bicuspid aortic valce? What would you expect upon examination in each of these instances?

A

early systolic, high frequency click may be heard over the right second interspace

  • aortic stenosis:
    • crescendo-decrescendo, systolic ejection murmur
    • best heart at upper right sternal border & radiates to carotids
  • aortic regurg:
    • diastolic, decrescendo murmur best heard at the left sternal border
    • wide pulse pressure

also, incrased risk of infectious endocarditis

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6
Q

Night blindness & xerophthalmia are both symptoms of what vitamin deficiency?

Deficiency in this enzyme is most commonly caused by what?

A

vitamin A

malabsorption syndrome (ie. celiac disease), chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic insuficiency, biliary disease

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7
Q

What is the underlying pathophysiology of an aortic dissection resulting from aging/hypertension?

A

cystic medial degeneration (replacement of collage, elastin & smooth muscle by basophilic mucoid extracellular matrix with irregular fiber cross-linkages and cystic collections of mucopolysaccharides)

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8
Q

What vitamin deficiency is characterized by stomatits, angular chelitis, glossitis, erythematous rash, normochromic anemia?

A

riboflavin (vit B2)

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9
Q

What are the “3 d’s” associated with pellegra?

This is due to a deficiency in what enzyme?

A

diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia

niacin (vit. B3)

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10
Q

Symptoms of vitamin c deficiency?

A

easy bruising, petichiase, bleeding gums, anemia

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11
Q

How can you differentiate between gout & pseudogout crystals under polarized light?

A
  • gout (monosodium urate crystals)
    • yellow when parallel
    • blue when perpendicular
  • pseudogous (calcium pyrophosphate)
    • blue when parallel
    • yellow when perpendicular
    • rhomboid shaped crystals
      *
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12
Q

If a patient develops QT prolongatio & bradycardia in response to a rhythym treatmet for afib, what drugs could they have been given?

A

sotalol

dofetilide

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13
Q

MC us of adenosine as a heart medication?

A

SVT

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14
Q

What heart condition causes a decrescendo diastolic murmur at the lest sternal border?

A

aortic regurgitation

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15
Q

What are the difference in the caues of eccentric LV hypertrophy vs. concentric LV hypertophy?

A

eccentric - d/t volume overload (aortic regurg)

concentric - d/t pressure overload (aortic stenosis, systemic hypertension)

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16
Q

Indirect inguinal hernias are associated with what congenital issue?

A

patency of the processus vaginalis

17
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metformin?

A

decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis via inhibition of mitochondrial glycerophosphate dehydrogenase

18
Q

What is the difference in histology of chronic pulmonary edema vs. chronic pulmonary edema?

A
  • acute
    • engorged capillaries
    • intra-alveolar pink material
  • chronic
    • hemosiderin-laden macrophages (“heart failure cells”)
19
Q

Fill out this table

20
Q

What is the only trisomy to have increased Bhcg in the first trimester screening?

A

trisomy 21

21
Q

What is the only congenital defect to cause increase alpha-fetoprotein in the second trimester screening?

A

neural tube defect

22
Q

Which trisomies have decreased estriol in the second trimester screening?

A

trisomy 21 & 18

23
Q

What is the only trisomy to have normal B-hcg in the second trimester screening?

A

trisomy 13

24
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of a patient with anterior mediastinal mass, generalized pruritis, alcohol-associated pain, peripheral eosinophilia, and elevated LDH?

A

hodgkin lymphoma

25
Difference between dystrophic calcifications & metastatic calcifications?
dystrophic - d/t aging and is associated with normal calcium levels metastatic - elevated calcium levels
26
What diagnosis is consistent with acute kidney injury, peripheral eosinophilia, sterile pyuria, white blood cell casts?
acute interstitial nephritis
27
Tumor marker for ovarian cancer? "ib" treatment?
CA-125 olaparib
28
What cancers are associated with the following tumor markers? CA-15-3? CA-19-9? Chromogranin A? PSA?
* CA-15-3 * breast cancer * CA-19-9 * pancreatic adenocarcinoma * Chromogranin A * medullary thyroid cancers * parathyroid tumors * ganglioneuroblastoma * medulloblastoma * neuroblastoma * PSA * produced by normal prostate cells
29
What are carcinoid tumors & where do they most commonly arise?
produce high concentration of serotonin small intestine