Uworld Topics Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

What are the two most common malignant bone tumors in childhood

A
  1. osteosarcoma
  2. ewing sarcoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bone Xray showing: central lytic lesion with moth eaten appearance or onion skinning

A

Ewing Sarcoma

MC occur in pelvis and long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the shockable rhythms in ACLS

A

Vfib and pulseless V tach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a patient has PEA cardiac arrest, would you use epinephrine or atropine after giving chest compressions for 2 minutes

A

epinephrine!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

presentation of vestibular schwannoma

A

sensorineural hearing loss, gradual tinnitus

can cause facial numbness, balance problems. Cranial nerve VIII affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

presentation of acute labrynthitis

A

sudden onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting and unilateral hearing loss.

similar to vestibular schwannoma but sudden onset instead of gradual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the difference between systemic onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis and typical juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

systemic: presents with fever, rash and 1+ joints
Typical: no fever, no rash, typically multiple joints asymmetrically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do you diagnose paget disease of the bone

A
  • elevated alkaline phosphatase level
  • radiographs showing lytic or mixed lytic-sclerotic lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Presentation of paget disease of the bone

A
  • bone deformities like in this picture
  • bone pain/back pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which type of seizure involves NO loss of awareness/conciousness

A

focal onset seziure with retained awareness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what street drug can cause seratonin syndrome when mixed with SSRI’s or other seratonin nedications

A

ecstasy (MDMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Presentation of seratonin syndrome

A
  • high fever
  • AMS
  • seizures
  • hyperreflexia
  • hyponatremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the classic presentation of a pheochromocytoma

A
  • episodic headache
  • sweating
  • tachycardia
  • resistant HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the diagnostic study for pheochromocytoma

A

urine or plasma metanephrine levels.
follow by abdominal imaging to confrim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the single most important risk factor for aortic dissection

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

an abdominal CT showing free air under the diaphragm is indicative of what diagnosis

A

bowel perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what murmur is associated with aortic root dilation

A

decrescendo diastolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Order of treatment options for bloody nose

A
  1. pinch lean forward
  2. direct compressio with topical vasoconstrictor
  3. chemical/silver nitrate or electric cautery
  4. packing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the anti-hypertensive of choice for those with osteoporosis

A

thiazide diuretic

chlorithalidone or HCTZ because these increase calcium resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which vitamins are vegans typically deficient in

A
  • vitamin D
  • Vitamin B12
  • calcium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the FIRST line treatment for PMS/PMDD

A

SSRI’s

SECOND LINE: COC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the classic triad for acute cholangitis

A
  • Fever
  • jaundice
  • RUQ pain

can add hypotension and AMS for reynolds pentad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what would you see on fundoscopic exam of macular degeneration

A

yellow/white spots clutered around the retina (aka drusen)

these are lipoprotein deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the prefferred contraceptionin patients with HTN

A

copper IUD, COCs can worsen hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what cancers have elevated CA-125 markr
* ovarian * fallopian tube *
26
what are some protective factors for ovarian cancer
* breast feeding * multiparity * COC's (prevents ovulation)
27
Presentation of polycystic kidney disease
* asymptomatic until 30-40 * flank pain/hematuria * HTN * bilateral palpable abdominal masses * CKD | extrarenal manifestations: liver cysts and cerebral aneurysms.
28
what electrolyte abnormalities are seen in anorexia
hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hyhpomagnesemia, hypophosphatemia | everything decreased because no food intake
29
how to grade pressure ulcers
1. intact skin, nonblanchable 2. shallow open ulcer 3. full thickness, visible sub Q fat 4. exposed tendon, bone, muscle Unstagable: eschar and or slough that makes unvisible.
30
Treatment for ADHD
1. amphetamine 2. atomoxetine (if drug use hx) 3. guafenicin/clonidine (if cant tolerate SE)
31
reversal agent for heparin
protamine sulfate
32
reversal agentS for warfarin
* vitamin K * fresh frozen plasma * prothrombin complex concentrate
33
what is the treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis
Flouroquinolone or Bactrim
34
presentation of complete molar pregnancy vs pregnancy with uterine fibroids
complete mole: enlarged for gewstational age, hyperemesis gravidarum, vaginal bleeding uterine fibroids: enlarged for gestational age, irregular uterine shape, urinary retention if pushing on bladder or other structures
34
what are the four medications that can be used for LONG term management of bipolar disorder
* lamictal * lithium * quietapine * valproate
35
what presentation might you see in a patient with gastric cancer
acanthosis nigricans anemia shiny tongue weight loss abdominal tenderness
36
what is management of late decelerations in labor
maternal left lateral repositioning to reduce uterine compression on the inferior vena cava. also give supplemental O2 and IV fluids!
37
treatment of pagets disease of the bone
bisphosphonates to suppress bone turnover (this doesnt really make sense to me but whatevs)
38
what is the treatment of migraines in pregancy
1. tylenol 2. promethazine for nausea 3. NSAIDs (if not first trimester) | in that order
39
fibrates are primarily used in the treatment of what
hypertriglyceridemia
40
Tx for PAD
clopidogrel or ASA + statin
41
what is the MC place for a cardiac myxoma
left atrium
42
presentation of cardiac myxomas
* diastolic rumbling decrescendo * constitutional s/s (fever/weight loss/fatigue) * infarcts elsewehere (PE, stroke, ect) * echo showing mass in LA
43
what is the vessel assocaited with subarachnoid hemorrhage
berry anurysm
44
MC lung cancer
NSCLC b(adenocarcinoma)
45
lung cancer most associated w smoking
squamous cell carcinoma
46
how to differentiate dementia with lewwy bodies vs parkinsons disease
dementia with lewy bodies: hallucinations more common, cognitive decline happens early WITH motor symptoms Parkinsons: hallucinations less common (more often related to over-medication), cognitive decline happens in late disease with EARLY onset motor dysfunction | both present with parkinsonism
47
how would a brain abscess be described on imaging
ring-enhancing lesion
47
what is the diagnostic study of choice for coarctation of the aorta
ECHO (duh. ugh) (apparently CXR is not required which like DUH but im crazy sometimes so i put this anyway)
48
what happens when people taking an MAOI consume large amounts of tyramine? | wine, meats, sauces, ect
hypertensive crisis (can present as headache and cause stroke)
49
what tryglyceride level indicates that a fibrate should be started
>500 or >1000 idk interpret this as you will
50
how to differentiate patellofemoral syndrome with IT band syndrome
Patellofemoral: tendernes to ANTERIOR knee reproduced with SQUATTING IT band syndrome: tenderness to Lateral femoral epicondyle with flexion/extension. | remember the IT band inserts on the lateral femoral condyl so thats how
51
A midshaft humeral fracture causes risk of compromise of what nerve and what artery
radial nerve brachial artery
52
what is the treatment for bronchiolitis | MCC is RSV in kids<2
supportive (hydration and nasal suctioning)
53
what is the limited motion that is seen with patellar tendon rupture
Inability to extend the knee against gravity or maintain straight leg while flexion the hip
54
what levels should be monitored to assess for RECURRENT thyroid cancer after thyroidectomy
Serum calcitonin!
55
how to transmit toxoplasmosis
* cats * undercooked meat (farm animals) * dirt (poop in the garden)
55
what are the three main causes of neonatal cap swelling and how do they differentiate
1. caput succedaneum: present AT birth. no bruising. self resolves 2. cephalohematoma: present hours AFTER birth. no bruising. self resolves, watch for hyperhilirubinemia 3. subgaleal hemorrhage: grows over DAYS, overlying bruising. lifethreatening.
56
describe seborrheic keratosis
hyperpigmented (dark) verrucous stuck on papules.
57
what is the MCC of the stomach bug
norovirus
58
key features of ALL
nonspecific symptoms nontender lymphadenopathy splenomegaly
59
what is the diagnostic modality for sickle cell disease
hemoglobin electrophoresis
60
how to differentiate malignant hyperthermia and heat stroke
malignant hyperthermia has muscle rigidity and typically is caused by medications rather than actual heat
61
what is the medication of choice for pregnant patients with bipolar disorder
lamictal (lamotragine)
62
what is the MC lesion for scar tissue or trauma to the skin
squamous cell carcinoma
63
What lipid management medication is contraindicated in a patient with gallstones
fibrates.
64
what is the typical presentation of Lofgrens syndrome in sarcoidosis
* arthritis * bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy * erythema nodosum
65
what is the main lab finding in hemolytic uremic syndrome
Thrombocytopenia
66
what electrolye abnormalities are present with thiazide diuretics
hypokalemia metabolic alkalosis
67
what is the med class that causes neuroleptic malignant syndrome
antipsychotics
68
what is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome
stop antipsychotics dantrolene or bromocriptine if refractory
69
how do you prevent nephrotoxicity secondary to acyclovir treatment
aggressive IV hydration
70
what is the treatemnt for cryptorchidism
orchiopexy | dont just get an abdominal US. If under 6 months old, can watch it.
71
which antibiotic has an ADR for aortic aneurysm rupture
flouroquinolones
72
what is placenta accreta
when the placenta does not detach from the uterine wall after birth and results in postpartum hemorrhage
73
GERD symptoms presentation but the CXR shows retrocardiac air fluid levels
paraesophageal hiatal hernia.
74
how does sheehan syndrome present
* hypotension * inability to breast feed * fatigue | results 2/2 pituitary necrosis and massive obstetric hemorrhage