Vestibular disease Flashcards

(39 cards)

1
Q

What does the vestibular apparatus coordinate?

A
  1. Allows for maintenance of posture and balance relative to the head, body and limbs
  2. Detects acceleration and deceleration
  3. Coordinates eye movement
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2
Q

Where does the vestibular apparatus lie?

A

Directly above the middle ear

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3
Q

What are the 3 portions of the vestibular apparatus?

A

Utricle, Saccule, Ampula

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4
Q

Which portion of the peripheral vestibular apparatus can detect rotational movement in any direction?

A

Ampulla

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5
Q

Which two structures form the central vestibular apparatus?

A

The vestibular nucleus (in medulla oblongata) and the floculonodular lobe

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6
Q

What does the vestibular apparatus allow for in terms of the eyes?

A

Physiologic nystagmus and the oculocephalic reflex

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7
Q

Why can you get facial nerve paralysis with vestibular disease?

A

Facial nerve is in very close proximity to the vestibular nucleus and vestibulocochlear nerve

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8
Q

What are the 4 main clinical signs associated with horners syndrome?

A

Miosis, Ptosis, enopthalmos, 3rd eyelid protrusion

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9
Q

What are the main clinical signs associated with dysfunction of the vestibular system?

A

Abnormal posture, vestibular ataxia, strabismus, nystagmus

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10
Q

How can dysfunction of the vestibular system lead to nausea?

A

The vestibular nucleus, chemoreceptor trigger zone and vomiting center all live within the medulla oblongata
-activation of vestibular nucleus can stimulate CTZ which then stimulates vomiting center

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11
Q

What type of receptors lie on the vestibular nucleus?

A

Muscarinic and histamine

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12
Q

What type of receptors lie on chemoreceptor trigger zone?

A

serotonin, dopamine, nk1

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13
Q

What type of receptors lie on vomiting center?

A

NK-1, muscarinic

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14
Q

Where does dramamine act to prevent vomiting?

A

It is an antihistamine that acts on the histamine receptors on the vestibular nucleus

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15
Q

How does maropitant prevent vomiting?

A

It acts on the neurokinin 1 receptors in the CTZ and vomiting center

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16
Q

How does ondansetron prevent vomiting?

A

It is a serotonin inhibitor which acts on the serotonin receptors in the CTZ

17
Q

How does metaclopramide prevent vomiting?

A

It acts on the dopamine receptors in the CTZ

18
Q

How do central vs peripheral vestibular diseases affect conciousness?

A

Patients with central vestibular disease can be alert, disoriented, obtunded, stuporous or comatose (AKA altered conciousness=central)

Patients with peripheral are alert, but may be slightly disoriented

19
Q

What abnormal postures/gaits are often associated with vestibular disease?

A

Asymmetric input, head tilt (towards side of lesion), circling rolling and leaning towards lesion, vestibular ataxia

20
Q

How will the gait be different if the central vs peripheral vestibular system is affected?

A

Peripheral: vestibular ataxia but good strength. No postural deficits

Central: vestibular ataxia, tetra or hemiparesis, proprioceptive deficits (ipsilateral), hemi/tetraparesis

21
Q

What does vestibular strabismus look like?

A

Abnormal eye position (vetrolateral)- can be resting or positionally induced

22
Q

Compare and contrast central and peripheral vestibular nystagmus

A

Peripheral: horizontal/rotary with fast phase away from the lesion

Central: horizontal/rotary/vertical. Changes in the direction of movement change with head position, though fast phase often away from head tilt

23
Q

What other cranial nerves are affected in peripheral vs central vestibular disease?

A

Peripheral: facial nerve

Central: multiple cranial nerves (V-XII)

24
Q

Describe the common causes of peripheral vestibular disease using DAMNITV scheme

A

A- congenital vestibular disease
M-hypothyroidism
N-aural neoplasia, malignant nerve sheath tumor
I: otitis media/interna, nasopharyngeal polyp, PSOM
I: idiopathic
T: inner ear trauma
T- ototoxic drugs

25
Describe the diagnostic approach for peripheral vestibular disease.
Start with otoscopic exam, then bulla radiography (DV, open-mouth), BAER test, myringotomy with cytology and culture
26
What are the main infectious agents that lead to otitis media/interna?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, staph pseudintermedius, ecoli, klepsiella
27
How do you best treat otitis media/interna?
oral antibiotics (based on C/S). Can start empirically on clavamox or baytril, myringotomy, or TECA-BO for recurrent episodes
28
Where do you enter for a myringotomy?
Caudoventral region of pars tensa
29
What are the indications for a myringotomy?
Chronic infection, intact tympanum, fluid and bulging membrane
30
Describe inflammatory polyps
They often originate in the middle ear, nasopharynx or combo -lead to upper airway signs and otitis externa -removed with traction or bulla osteotomy but may recur
31
What are the common aural neoplasias?
Fibrosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, ceruminous gland adenocarcinomas, SCC
32
Who is most affected by idiopathic vestibular disease?
Older cats and dogs-acute onset -can undergo spontaneous remission over 1-2 weeks -may be due to cuterebral larval migran
33
What are the main toxins that can lead to vestibular signs?
Aminoglycosides mainly, fursemide, some NSAIDs, cisplatin
34
What are the main causes of central vestibular disease?
Arachnoid cysts, COMS, hydrocephalus, hypothyroidism, primary intracranial neoplasia, metastatic disease, thiamine deficiency, infectious causes, brainstem disease, metronidazole, cerebrovascular accident
35
Describe the diagnostic approach for central vestibular disease
Cross sectional imaging, CSF analysis, referral
36
Describe the potential pathogenesis of peripheral and central vestibular signs due to hypothyroidism
Peripheral: myxomatous compression of cranial nerves at foraminal level (may have signs of polyneuropathy or facial paralysis) Central: ischemic infarction secondary to atherosclerosis disease, CNS demyelination
37
What are the common intracranial neoplasias leading to vestibular signs?
Meningioma, choroid plexus tumor, ependymoma, lymphoma
38
What diet can lead to a thiamine deficiency in cats?
Fish only
39
What is the anectote for metronidazole toxicity?
Diazepam