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Veterinary medicine Year 3 > Veterinary Public Health > Flashcards

Veterinary Public Health Flashcards

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1
Q

Who creates the legislation for veterinary public health?

A

DEFRA executive agencies
Food standards agency
UK health secretary agency

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2
Q

Who are the DEFRA executive agencies?

A

Veterinary medicine directorate
Animal and plant health agency
Environment agency

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3
Q

APHA

A

Animal and plant health agency

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4
Q

FBO/BO

A

Food business operator/business operators

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5
Q

FCI

A

Food chain information

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6
Q

FSA

A

Food standards agency

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7
Q

HACCP

A

Hazard analysis and critical control points

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8
Q

LA

A

Local authority/trading standards

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9
Q

MHI

A

Meat hygiene inspectors/ meat inspectors

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10
Q

OV

A

Official veterinarian

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11
Q

What are the proportions of imports and exports of beef to/from the UK?

A

Imports 35% of beef
Exports 15% of beef - 90% go to EU

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12
Q

Self sufficient score for Beef

A

65%

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13
Q

Pork imports and exports

A

Import 60%
Exports 25% to EU and china

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14
Q

Self sufficient score for pork

A

60%

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15
Q

Lamb imports and exports

A

Imports 33%
Exports 33%

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16
Q

Lamb self sufficient score

A

100%

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17
Q

How has brexit affected meat industry?

A

Lack of workforce
Reduced exports
Increased costs and labour

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18
Q

Pork production system in the UK

A

Vertically integrated
Mostly indoor (outdoor demand is growing)
3 main groups involved

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19
Q

When are pigs killed for pork?

A

24 weeks

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20
Q

Beef production system in the UK

A

Traditional - outdoor normally

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21
Q

When are cows slaughtered

A

18-24 months old

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22
Q

Sheep production system in the UK

A

Very traditional

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23
Q

When are sheep slaughtered?

A

6-11 months old

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24
Q

What are the transport requirements for live animals?

A

Handlers must be competent and trained
Vehicles approved if over 8 hour journey
Animals not caused injury or harm
Animals are fit to travels
Rules on journey times, resting and feeding req

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25
When is an animal not fit for the abattoir?
Animals that cannot move independently Severe open wounds or prolapses Pregnant or gave birth in a week New born animals with naval not healed pigs less than 3 wk lambs less than 1wk calves less than 10d Medicated within withdrawal period
26
rules to be applied with for unloading
Unload ASAP Equipment must be available - slope walls railings Floor must be non slip with side guards No sharp edges or areas for injury
27
What are the responsibilities of FBO
Food business operator Skilled and knowledgeable stockmen Caring responsible planning and management Appt env design Handling and support Humane slaughter Paperwork and FCI available to OV
28
What are the benefits of good management in meat production?
Reduction of post mortem rejections Meat quality Efficiency - animals move through design with no encouragment Less stress= less defecation= less contamination
29
What is Food chain information?
FCI is a valuable source of information for decision making in relation to animal health and welfare and is needed for every animal intended for human consumption. OV must check FCI before authorizing slaughter
30
When did FCI become legislated?
No 853/2003 laying down rules for food of animsl Came into force Jan 1st 2010
31
What are the minimum elements for FCI?
The animal health’s status; The holding health status (imp. cattle); Details of medicines and withdrawal periods; Private veterinarian details (pigs and poultry); Relevant production data, diseases and analysis.
32
Farmed game definition
Traditionally wild animals kept as domestic animals Wild boar in Uk and farmed deer
33
Wild game
Means they have been living in the wild Includes those that have been released into the wild for shooting
34
What game is allowed in the UK food chain
Only wild game killed by hunting is allowed into the food chain
35
What is the required food chain information for game?
FCIiIf Killed at the abattoir, same as any cattle FCI Is needed for Farmed Game animals: if killed at the farm, this is called “Health Certificate” Is not needed for Wild Game animals, but you would still need: Hunter’s declaration/Trained person declaration in large Wild Game - In Small wild game nothing is needed (hunter’s declaration recommended | FCI for abbatoir Health certificate if in wild and large Nothing if sm
36
What is the role of the OV at the abattoir?
Legislation puts responsibility down to the FBO and OV OV will have to carry out several checks on the day to ensure compliance OV req to carry out antemortem of all live animals and check FCIs Ensure welfare
37
When does disinfection need to occur in meat industry?
Before new animals are loaded; Inside or outside the abattoir; Farmer & FBO responsibility; FSA (MHI/OV) verifies FBO compliance; Breaches to be reported to Local Authority (L.A.).
38
What are the five freedoms of animal welfare at the abattoir?
From hunger and thirst; (Nutrition domain) From discomfort and extremes of temperature;(Physical environment domain) From pain, suffering and disease;(Health domain) To express natural behaviour;(Behavioural interactions domain) From fear and distress.( Mental State domain)
39
What is the flow for beef production?
Antemortem inspection Stunning Shackling Sticking and bleeding Head removal Hide removal Evisceration Splitting Spinal cord removal Trimming Marking sometimes washing Chilling Quartering Deboning
40
Flow diagram for lamb production
Antemortem inspection Stunning Shackling Bleeding Hide removal Evisceration Splitting when over 1yr old Trimming Marking Sometimes washing Chilling Deboning
41
Flow diagram pork production
Antemortem inspection Stunning Shackling Bleeding Scalding Dehairing Singing sometimes Polishing Washing Evisceration Splitting Washing Health mark Chilling Deboning
42
What is the council regulation No1099/2008
on the protection of animals at the time of killing
43
Killing
Intentionally induced process= death of an animal
44
Emergency killing
means the killing of animals which are injured or have a disease associated with severe pain or suffering and where there is no other practical possibility to alleviate this pain or suffering;
45
Stunning
Intentionally induce process which causes loss of consciousness and sensibility without pain
46
Slaughtering
Killing of animals intended for human consumption
47
What are the aims of stunning
Kill humanely Obtain the max amount of blood from the animal= increases keeping quality Health and safety
48
What is simple stunning?
Stun an animal unconscious but do not instantly kill it A procedure to kill the animal must be followed before it recovers conciousness
49
What is CoC
Certificate of competence - licence of slaugtermen
50
What are the requirements for slaughtermen to reach the CoC?
handle animals; stun animals; pith animals; restrain animals; shackle animals; hoist animals; bleed live animals; check stunning has worked; check pithing has worked.
51
What are the stunning methods?
Captive bold Electronarcosis Gas
52
What regulation covers the slaughter methods?
Reg EC 1099/2009 & WATOK
53
What are the types of captive bolts?
Penetrative Non penetrative - for simple stunning of ruminants under 10kg
54
What are the physiological effects of a captive bolt pistol?
Heavy blow= acceleration of head= brain impact Damages N and BV Massive rise then fall of pressure Disruption of normal electrical activity Duration depends on severity of damage
55
What are the signs of an effective stun?
Collapse No rhythmic breathing Fixed glazed expression No corneal reflex Relaxed jaw Tongue hanging out
56
What are the phases of an effective stun?
Tonic phase Clonic phase Relaxation
57
What occurs in the tonic phase of stunning?
Animal collapses Stops breathing Becomes rigid Head extended and hind legs flexed Forelegs gradually straighten out
58
What occurs in the clonic phase of stunning?
Involuntary kicking
59
What occurs in the relaxation phase of stunning?
Walking/padding movements
60
Where should the captive bolt gun enter the brain?
cerebrum
61
What are the properties of electrical stunning?
Low voltage system = 7sec application High voltage system= 3 sec application
62
When is electrical stunning reversible?
When the voltage is head only
63
When is electrical stunning irreversible?
Head to body because it causes a cardiac arrest The body is never electrically stunned alone
64
Calculation of the intensity of the current for electrical stunning?
Intensity of the current (amps)=Strength or Voltage(v)/Resistance (Ohms) Or V=IR (Ohms’law)
65
What would be seen in an epileptic fit following electrical stunning?
Unconscious and insensible to pain. TONIC: rigid, breathing stops, head raised, hind legs flexed. CLONIC: gradual relaxation, walking/paddling movements, downward rotation of eyes, foaming/urination. RECOVERY (quiet) - regain consciousness. NO TONIC = NO STUN
66
What is the standard timing for pigs, sheep and goats phases of epileptic fit following electrical stunning?
Tonic= 10-20 secs Clonic= 15-45 secs recovery= 30-60 secs
67
What is the standard timing for cattle phases of epileptic fit following electrical stunning?
tonic= 5-20 secs clonic= 10-60 secs recovery= 40-70 secs
68
What is the standard timing for calves phases of epileptic fit following electrical stunning?
Tonic = 8-14 secs clonic= 8-28 secs recovery= 40-70
69
How is gas stunning carried out?
Carbon dioxide at high conc Carbon dioxide mixed with inert gases Inert gases alone
70
When is gas stunning used in the UK?
Method of killing pigs and poultry in the UK
71
What is the minimum Co2 conc for gas stunning using CO2 alone?
80% CO2 Exposure is required to cause anoxia The concentration must reach 80% CO2 within the first 30seconds of pigs entering the chamber
72
What are the requirements for using CO2 and inert gases for stunning?
Pigs must be exposed directly or progressively to a gas mixture containing up to 40% of carbon dioxide mixed with inert gases. The maximum concentration is 40% carbon dioxide. Direct or progressive exposure of conscious pigs to the gas must lead to anoxia.
73
What are the requirements for inert gas stunning?
Pigs must be exposed directly or progressively to an inert gas mixture such as argon or nitrogen Must lead to anoxia
74
What equipment is required for gas stunning?
Chamber to contain pigs/CO2/air and conveyor system. Flush with air for staff Back-up mechanical device. Monitor animals Easy access for bleeding Pigs can stand until unconcious SPACE for lying down Lighting Gas stunners and operators should not harm animals .
75
What are the signs of an effective stun in pigs?
Recumbent animal - limbs, jaw relaxed. No voluntary movements or righting reflexes present. No response to pin prick on nose. Absence of normal breathing.
76
What are the advantages of gas stunning?
No excitement. Completely relaxed: easy bleeding. Non invasive. Reduced blood splash. Reduced Pale Soft Exudative (PSE).
77
What are the disadvantages of gas stunning?
Very expensive - only used for large throughputs Welfare doubts: Acidic gas is pungent to inhale at > 40%. Potent respiratory stimulant: breathlessness. Not instantaneous.
78
How is bleeding carried out?
During the tonic phase Neck cut = carotids and jugulars (small ruminants). Thoracic stick = ascending aorta (cattle and pigs).
79
What factors affect bleeding?
Health of animals. Rest prior to slaughter (muscle tone). Back bleeding into thoracic cavity.
80
What is the cause of blood splashing in bleeding?
normally capillary rupture -Could be related to increase in blood pressure -electrical stunning (more common) -stress, diet, physiological or genetic factors
81
What are the 2 methods of scalding?
Vertical Tank
82
What is the role of singing in pigs and why is it carried out?
Eliminate the remaining hair on the surface of the carcase. 1.000ºC. Step added in the process in regard of meat quality, however it also improves food safety.
83
What are the advantages and disadvantages of polishing pigs?
Improve quality. Eliminate burned hair and superficial epidermis. Excessive force could produce some minor damage in carcase. Increase contamination.
84
What is the role of the EU health mark?
shows that the food has been produced to the current standards of hygienic food production in licensed premises and allow food to be traced back to those premises.
85
What information does the EU health mark carry?
Country Producer European community
86
Who provides third country approval of meat products?
The European Commission’s Directorate-General (DG) for Health and Food Safety: Directorate ‘Health and Food Audits and Analysis
87
APHA
Animal and plant health agency
88
ASF
African swine fever
89
AV
Authorised veterinarian
90
CSF
Classical swine fever
91
DIL
Dead in the lairage
92
DOA
Dead on arrival
93
FIP
Further inspection procedures
94
LA
Local authority
95
hc
Human consumption
96
H1
Hygeine package EU legislation 852/2004
97
H2
Hygiene package EU legislation 853/2004
98
MHI
meat hygiene inspector
99
ND
notifiable disease
100
VIP
Visual inspection procedures
101
Why is antemortem important?
Human health - zoonosis and veterinary residues
102
What is antemortem inspecting?
Animal health (fitness for slaughter and welfare) Fitness for human consumption ND surveillance
103
What law surrounds antemortem
EU legislation 853/2004 (FBO) Regulation 2017/625, 2019/624 (FSA requirments)
104
What is the role of the food business operator?
Ensures all animals are presented to the OV Health status Identification
105
What are the requirments for animals accepted into the slaughter house?
Identified Doccumented not come from areas under disease control Clean and healthy Welfare correct
106
Can animals be moved from the farm back to the slaughterhouse?
APHA may approve movement of cattle nad sheep in EC Pigs cannot be moved back to the farm
107
What is category 1 for antemortem? (Cattle)
dry Clean Very minor amounts of loosely adherent straw/bedding
108
What us category 2 for antemortem? (Cattle)
Dry/damp Light contamination with dung/dirt Small amounts of loosley adherent beddding
109
What is category 3 for antemortem? (Cattle)
Will be rejected for slaughter unless exceptional circumstances Dry/damp Significant contamination with dirt Significatnt bedding/ straw adhered
110
What is category 4 for antemortem? (Cattle)
Will be rejected for slaughter unless exceptional circumstances Dry/damp heavily contaminated with dirt Significant bedding
111
what is category 5 for antemortem? (Cattle)
Will be rejected for slaughter Very wet Very heavily contaminated with dirt A lot of bedding adherent to the coat
112
What is category 1 for antemortem? (Sheep)
Accepted for slaughter Clean Very minor adherent bedding
113
What is category 2 for antemortem? (Sheep)
Sheep in this category will be accepted for slaughter without any special treatment Dry/damp. Light contamination with dirt/dung. Small amounts of loosely adherent straw/bedding.
114
What is category 3 for antemortem? (Sheep)
Sheep in this category will be rejected for slaughter except in circumstances which are exceptional, e.g. animal welfare grounds, disease control reasons. Dry/damp Significant contamination with dirt/dung and/or Significant amounts of adherent straw/bedding.
115
What is category 4 for antemortem? (Sheep)
Rejected for slaughter except in circumstances which are exceptional, e.g. animal welfare grounds, disease control reasons. Dry/damp. Heavily contaminated with dirt/dung. Significant amounts of adherent bedding.
116
What is category 5 for antemortem? (Sheep)
Sheep in this category will be rejected for slaughter. Very wet. Very heavily contaminated with dirt/dung. A lot of bedding adherent to the coat.
117
What are the most prevalent cattle notifiable diseases in the UK at the moment?
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy Foot and mouth disease Tuberculosis (Bovine TB)
118
What are the clinical signs of anthrax?
Sudden death High fever Muscle tremours Unclotted blood from body openings No rigor mortis
119
What are the clinical signs of for foot and mouth disease and swine vesicular disease?
Highly contagious All cloven hoofed animals for FMD and SVD for pids Pyrexia Lameness Myocarditis Vesicles and erosions in mouth feet, teats and nose
120
How does ASF and CSF appear on antemortem?
High mortality high fever loss of appetite Haemorrhages in the skin and internal organs
121
What are the clinical signs in antemortem for BSE - ND?
Changes in gait (hind ataxia) and behaviour and hyper reactivity to stimuli Once the symptoms appear the disease is always progressive and fatal
122
How does scrapie appear on antemortem?
Progressive weight loss (but not loss of appetite) Ataxia Fine head tremors Cutaneous hypersensitivity and pruritis
123
What might neurological signs be a sign of in antemortem
Listeria monocytogenes Coenurus cerebralis Vestibular disease Louping III
124
How will bluetongue appear on antemortem?
Eye and nasal discharges Drooling as a result of ulcerations in the mouth. Fever. Swelling of the mouth, head and neck. Lameness. Haemorrhages into or under the skin. Inflammation (coronary band). Mortality may reach 70%. A bluetongue is rarely a clinical sign of infection
125
How will brucellosis appear on antemortem?
B.melitensis,B.abortus (sheep and goats,cattle),B.ovis (sheep) B.suis (pigs, not ND) Zoonosis (Occupational disease) Abortion/ Orchitis and/orEpididymitis
126
Where is psoroptes ovis prevalent?
Sheep scab prevalent in scotland only
127
What can be seen in the image?
Contagious pustular dermatitis (CPD)/ orf/ ecthyma contagiousum
128
What can be seen in the image?
papillomatosis
129
What can be seen in the image?
Emaciation and poor condition
130
What are the VIPs and FIPs looking for in pig contamination?
Mastitis (if associated with general signs) Moribund/ recumbent Orchitis (marked to consider Brucella, occupational zoonosis) Suspect emaciation, poor condition Suspect fever Slaughtered in lairage Gathering of evidence for enforcement purposes (welfare breach suspect)
131
What welfare concerns can be identified in antemortem?
Lameness Prolapse Pregnancy trauma Transport
132
What is the role of post mortem inspection?
Supplement antemortem Detect diseases, residues and contaminents Contamination Unfit for human consumption animal welfare
133
What are the legislations for post mortem inspection?
2017/625 and 2019/627 Purpose, procedures and decisions H2 : Regulation (EC) 853/2004 FBO standards
134
Who is responsible for post mortem inspection?
Meat Hygiene Inspector (MHI) Official Veterinarian (OV) - Emergency slaughter - Unusual conditions
135
What are the areas of inspection for post mortem?
Head Offal carcase
136
How is post mortem inspection carried out?
Take into account ante-mortem inspection results; View all external surfaces; Pay particular attention to the detection of zoonotic and notifiable diseases; Take into account FCI; Take place without delay after slaughter; Include carcases and accompanying offal.
137
How is post mortem inspection carried out for pigs?
VIP id normal at antemortem FIP if marked at antemortem or PM
138
What may have a pig marked at antemortem or post mortem?
Multiple abscesses Enlarged Lymph nodes (suspect TB) Anaemia Badly bled Contamination with gut content Emaciation Oedema Erysipelas Generalised TB Tumours Melanosis Jaundice
139
What are the possible outcomes for post mortem inspection?
pass the meat as fit for human consumption; declare the meat unfit for human consumption; detain the meat for further examination
140
What would be the outcome for meat marked with Taenia saginata- cysticercus bovis?
Generalised: Total condemnation Localised: Partial plus freezing
141
How is the lymphatic system assessed?
Assessed for lesions In cattle TB like lesions
142
What is the protocol for Bovine tuberculosis suspicions?
If bTB is suspected in the carcase of any bovine, deer or farmed mammal, APHA must be notified immediately. In addition to the normal inspection procedures, the prescapular and superficial inguinal lymph node must be inspected.
143
What is the appearance of TB lesions?
Cream/yellow, granulomatous caseoys/ calcified/ purulent material in retropharyngeal l.n , lunds, bronchial and mediastinal l.n
144
What can be seen in the image?
TB lesions in the chest cavity
145
What can be seen in the image?
Hypertrophy of the mesenteric l.n
146
What can be seen in the image?
Common TB lesions in the mesenteric lymph nodes
147
What can be seen in the image?
Actinomycosis (lumpy jaw caused by actynomices bovis)
148
What can be seen in the image?
Wooden tongue caused by Actinobacillosis
149
What is is being inspected on the heart in post mortem>
Pericarditis Endocarditis Disease
150
What can be seen in the heart?
C.ovis
151
What can be seen in the image
C. bovis (T. Saginata)
152
What can be seen in the image?
C. cellulosae (T. solium)
153
What is the appearance of the swine lungs on PM?
: 2-3 left lobes, 3-4 right lobes, marked surface lobulation, accessory bronchus to right lobe, weight 300-400gr
154
What is the appearance of the ovine lungs on PM?
Indistinct lobulation ( left 3, right 4), weight 400-
155
What is the appearance of the swine heart on PM?
Fat is soft and greasy due to presence of olein, 2 ventricular farrows, weight 250-400gr
156
What is the appearance of the bovine heart on PM?
Fat is crispy due to stearin, 2 bones at aortic origin, 3 ventricular furrows. Weight ~2kg in adults
157
What is the appearance of the ovine heart on PM?
Fat is crispy due to stearin, 2 bones present at aortic origin in older animals, 3 ventricular furrows, weight 100-150gr
158
What is the appearance of the bovine lungs on PM?
left 3 lobes, right 4 lobes, 3 main bronchi, long trachea (50-55 cartilage rings), distinct lobulation, weight 2,5-3,5kg in adults
159
What is being assessed of the lungs in PM?
Pneumonia Pleurisy Lungworm Abscesses
160
What is the appearance of the swine liver on PM?
:5 lobes, clearly demarcated polyhedral lobules with interlobular connective tissue, Moroccan leather surface texture, teardrop shaped gall bladder, weight 1-2kg
161
What is the appearance of the bovine liver on PM?
3 lobes( left, right, caudate), renal impression at the base of caudate lobe, hepatic lymph nodes surround portal opening, pear shaped gall bladder, weight 5.5-6.5kg in adults
162
What is the appearance of the ovine liver on PM?
3 lobes, cigar shaped gall bladder
163
What pathology may be seen in the swine liver on PM inspection?
Milk spot(A.suum) (c.tenuicollis, Fasciola hepatica, hydatid cyst, abscesses)
164
What pathology may be seen in cattle and sheep liver on PM inspection?
Abscesses, Fasciola, Cysticercus tenuicollis, Hydatid cysts
165
What can be seen in the image?
Bacterial/ parasitic necrosis
166
What can be seen in the image?
bTB
167
What can be seen in the image?
C. tenuicollis
168
What is hydatidosis?
Echinococcus granulosus Cyst found in lungs, liver etc of all species
169
What parasite can be seen in the image?
Echinococcus granulosus
170
What can be seen in the image?
Hydatidosis
171
What can be seen in the image?
Hydatidic cyst in the lung
172
What is the control program for hydatidosis?
Educate public. Treat dogs (praziquantel). Control access by dog to offal. Good meat inspection => condemn offal
173
What causes distomatosis?
Fasciola hepatica (Liver rejection?
174
What can be seen in the image?
Distomatosis
175
What causes milk spot?
Ascaris suum pigs ascariasis
176
What is the appearance of swine kidneys on PM?
Bean shaped, flattened and elongated , 10+ renal papillaw, renal pelvis weight 80-200gr
177
What is the appearance of bovine kidney on PM?
right help tight to the body, left loose, reddish brown, 15-20 lobules, weight 275-350gr
178
What is the appearance of the ovine kidney on PM?
right held tight to the body, left loose, reddish brown, weight 60-90gr
179
What pathology is being inspected on the kidneys for PM inspection?
Congenital cysts Nephritis/pyelonephritis/nephrosis/ hydronephrosis ND: ASF/CSF
180
How does the swine spleen appear on PM?
Tongue/strap shaped, omentum attached to longitudinal ridge, weight 200-250gr.
181
How does the bovine spleen appear on PM?
: Flat and oval in outline, bluish/red, attached to rumen, weight 1-1.5kg in adults.
182
How does the ovine spleen appear on PM?
Flat and oval-triangular, attached to rumen, weight 50-100gr
183
What spleen conditions can be recognised on PM?
TB lesions: granular nodules Abscesses haemorrhage, hydatid cyst…
184
What can be the causes for green offal?
Enteritis Tuberculosis peritonitis
185
What is EBL and what is the protocol?
Enzootic bovine leukosis (tumour in cattle) Contact APHA
186
What are common conditions of the carcase?
Arthritis Skin lesions Contamination
187
What is the protocol for arthritis findings on PM?
Non septic mild case- pass Non septic severe- reject joint check organs Septic or purulent- reject on case by case base
188
What can be seen in the image?
Erysipelas
189
What will cause full carcase condemnation?
Emaciation Jaundice Fevered (Septicaemia /Toxaemia) DOA, DIL, Unborn Or under 7 days Generalised Oedema Pyemia Abnormal odours (uraemia, acetonemia) No ante-mortem
190
What are the signs of emaciation on PM?
Carcase - shrunken, muscles pale/wet, prominent connective tissue. Fat scarce/soft/slimy/gelatinous. Lymph nodes enlarged/watery
191
What are the signs of jaundic on PM?
Yellow discoloration of the carcase tissues. Origin: Pre-hepatic (Haemolysis due to leptospirosis or babesiosis, Hepatic (toxicity due to ragwort)or Post-hepatic (parasites, calculi, tumours) Yellow fatted vs Icterus
192
What can be seen in the image?
Jaundice
193
What can be seen in the image?
Septicaemia - poorly bled carcase
194
Protocols on road kill?
Road kills are not allowed to enter human food chain Not fit for human consumption Animal health status unknown Only animals killed as a result of hunting activity are considered fit for human consumption
195
What can be seen in the image
Melanosis
196
What can be seen in the image?
Caseous lymphadenitis Zoonotic
197
How can welfare issues be identified via PM?
198
Which species are affected by trichinella?
Breeding domestic swine: Boars and sows Wild boars (farmed or truly wild) any age Solipeds (any age) Swine bred under uncontrolled housing conditions (as per FCI)
199
What is the protocol for trichinella infection in meat industry
Freezing possible (but uncommon) in domestic pigs only (not solipeds or wild boar) Carcases ( and any part containing striated muscle) remain under official control until results obtained.
200
How can trichinella be detected?
Sampling: Diaphragm, tongue, masseter muscle, foreleg (wild boar only) Trichinelloscopy (Pressure method) Digestion ( HCL + Pepsin)
201
Who carries out health marking?
OV MHI FBO
202
What can be seen in the image?
Pyelonephritis
203
What can be seen in the image?
Actinomycosis
204
What can be seen in the image?
Actinobacillosis
205
What can be seen in the image?
Bovine tuberculosis
206
What can be seen in the image?
Bovine tuberculosis
207
What can be seen in the image?
Pericarditis
208
What can be seen in the image?
Bovine leucosis
209
What can be seen in the image?
Caseous lymphadenitis
210
What can be seen in the image?
Fasciola hepatica
211
What can be seen in the image?
Muellerius capillaris
212
What can be seen in the image?
Arthritis
213
What are the major food chain hazards?
Bacterial contamination at farm or cross cont within processing plants Chemical contamination (deliberate illegal adulteration)
214
What are the 8 pillars of food integrity?
Consumers first zero tolerance Intelligent gathering Laboratory services Government support Leadership Crisis management
215
What hazards can the farm have?
prevalence of pathogens affects healthy animals Rising prevalence of pathogens Intensively managed flocks/ herds
216
What hazards can the processor have?
ante and post mortem testing Hygiene and controls failure of controls, complex supply chains fraudulent behaviour
217
What hazards can the consumer have?
Hygiene and cooking Storage, sourcing best products poor hygiene and provenance
218
What are the control points for farm hazards?
Farm assurance to reduce risk of hazards Inspection and audit
219
What are the control points for processing hazards?
Testing Inspection HACCP
220
What are the control points for consumer hazards?
Education
221
Who sets the minimum standard for farm assurance>
Red tractor farm assured standard
222
What is the role of the red tractor farm assured standard?
Standards updated regularly and farms are assessed every 12-18 months Standards of farm assurance are set for farmers
223
Which food chain can be seen in the image?
Beef food chain farm to abbatoir
224
Which food chain can be seen in the image?
Beef food chain abattoir to consumer
225
Which food chain can be seen in the image?
Dairy food chain
226
What influence does the supermarket have on farm assurance?
Supermarket predominance has driven direct contracts with farmers to individual supermarkets with their own set of standards/ farm assurance
227
What are LISA food chain and control points?
LISA – (Longitudinal Integrated Food Assurance) has become the norm where all elements of the supply chain have responsibilities to reduce risks Historically often there was an over reliance on “ end point testing”
228
What is the original dairy farm assurance plan?
Set up post BSE to provide a uniform standard Problem was that most farms had to pass! Farms are assessed and given non compliances 90 days to rectify Health Plan is one part of the process Vets are encouraged to engage in creating health plan annually Now superceded by Red Tractor as an all encompassing farm assurance plan
229
What does HACCP stand for, and what is its primary purpose in the food industry?
HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points. Its primary purpose is to identify, evaluate, and control significant hazards related to food safety.
230
Describe the relationship between Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP), Good Hygienic Practices (GHP), and HACCP.
GMP and GHP are essential prerequisite programs that form the foundation for an effective HACCP system. They ensure the environment, processes, and personnel adhere to necessary hygiene and manufacturing standards, providing a platform for HACCP implementation.
231
What is the significance of Codex Alimentarius in food safety regulation?
Codex Alimentarius, established by FAO and WHO, provides international standards and guidelines on food safety, covering areas such as food hygiene, additives, contaminants, labeling, and inspection, to promote safe food practices globally.
232
Explain the need for HACCP in comparison to traditional food inspection systems.
HACCP, a risk-based approach, aims to proactively prevent food contamination by identifying critical control points. In contrast, traditional systems rely on end-product testing and are reactive, often unable to prevent contamination effectively.
233
What is the Stable to Table risk-based approach in food safety?
It emphasizes that agents causing food poisoning accompany food from its origin (stable) until it reaches the consumer's table, stressing the importance of ensuring food safety throughout the entire production and distribution chain.
234
Enumerate the steps involved in implementing HACCP.
Conducting a hazard analysis. Determining critical control points (CCPs). Establishing critical limits. Implementing monitoring procedures. Establishing corrective actions. Verifying the system. Documenting and record-keeping.
235
What aspects are covered in the Control of Operation within the HACCP framework?
It involves ensuring the safe production of food, controlling hazards, describing products and processes, and maintaining key aspects of Good Hygienic Practices (GHPs), including water quality, documentation, and recall procedures.
236
Discuss the importance of personal hygiene in food safety.
Personal hygiene is crucial in preventing food contamination. Adequate cleanliness, appropriate behavior, and health monitoring of individuals involved in food handling are vital to ensure food safety.
237
What are the key elements involved in a maintenance and sanitation program within a food processing plant?
A maintenance and sanitation program involves regular inspection, cleaning schedules, pest control, and proper documentation to ensure effective control of food hazards and contamination sources.
238
: How does transportation play a role in maintaining food safety standards?
Transportation measures aim to prevent food contamination, damage, and the growth of pathogens during transit, ensuring that food reaches its destination in a condition suitable for consumption.
239
What are the primary goals of Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP)?
The primary goals of HACCP are to identify, evaluate, and control significant hazards related to food safety throughout the food production process.
240
Explain the importance of conducting a hazard analysis in HACCP implementation.
Conducting a hazard analysis involves identifying and assessing potential biological, chemical, or physical hazards in food production to determine the critical control points necessary for effective risk management.
241
Define Critical Control Points (CCPs) and their role in the HACCP system.
CCPs are specific points in the food production process where control can be applied to prevent, eliminate, or reduce potential hazards to acceptable levels. They are crucial in maintaining food safety.
242
Describe the significance of setting critical limits in HACCP.
Critical limits are established criteria or boundaries that must be met at each critical control point to ensure food safety. They act as guidelines for acceptable parameters at each stage of food production.
243
Discuss the importance of monitoring procedures within the HACCP framework.
Monitoring procedures involve scheduled observations or measurements to ensure that critical control points are under control. Regular monitoring helps identify deviations and enables timely corrective actions.
244
What role does verification play in the HACCP system?
Verification involves confirming that the HACCP plan is effectively implemented and ensures that control measures are working as intended. It includes reviewing records, conducting audits, and validating procedures.
245
Explain the significance of documentation and record-keeping in HACCP.
Documentation provides a written record of HACCP procedures, including hazard analysis, CCPs, critical limits, monitoring results, corrective actions, and verification activities. Proper record-keeping is essential for compliance and traceability.
246
How does the concept of Corrective Actions apply in HACCP?
Corrective actions involve procedures implemented when monitoring indicates that a critical limit has not been met. These actions aim to identify the cause of deviation and restore control at critical points.
247
Discuss the role of employee training in successful HACCP implementation.
Employee training ensures that personnel are aware of and proficient in implementing HACCP principles. Properly trained staff are crucial for maintaining food safety standards.
248
What is the importance of continuous improvement and review in the HACCP system?
Continuous improvement involves regularly reviewing and updating the HACCP plan to adapt to changes in processes, technologies, or regulations, ensuring ongoing effectiveness in managing food safety hazards.
249
What is a HACCP plan?
A HACCP plan is a formal document outlining critical food safety management details for a product or process. It includes a process flow diagram, HACCP control chart, supporting documentation, and other relevant details like team information and product specifics.
250
What are the preliminary steps necessary before implementing a HACCP plan?
The preliminary steps include assembling the HACCP team, describing the food and its distribution, outlining the intended use and consumers of the food, developing a process flow diagram, and verifying the accuracy of the flow diagram on-site.
251
What are Critical Control Points (CCPs) in a HACCP plan?
CCPs are locations, steps, or procedures where control can be applied to prevent, eliminate, or reduce biological, chemical, or physical hazards to acceptable levels. Loss of control at a CCP could result in an unacceptable risk to the consumer or product.
252
Explain the steps involved in establishing Critical Control Points (CCPs) in HACCP.
Establishing CCPs involves identifying significant hazards, determining actions to reduce these hazards, utilizing decision trees, and setting specific measures to prevent or eliminate these hazards to ensure food safety.
253
What are Critical Limits in HACCP?
Critical Limits are values that separate acceptability from unacceptability in a HACCP plan. They must be measurable criteria for each preventative measure at a Critical Control Point (CCP) and ensure the process is under control.
254
What are the key elements of Monitoring Procedures in HACCP?
Monitoring involves planned measurements or observations at Critical Control Points to ensure that Critical Limits are continuously achieved. It involves methods, frequency, and written records for verification purposes.
255
Explain the significance of Corrective Actions in HACCP.
Corrective Actions aim to prevent and address deviations from Critical Limits. They involve adjusting processes, determining the cause of non-compliance, and determining the disposition of non-compliant products.
256
What is the purpose of Validation and Verification in a HACCP plan?
Validation ensures the HACCP plan is scientifically sound, while Verification ensures the plan is working correctly. It involves ongoing monitoring, reassessment, and assessment of the process area.
257
Why is Documentation and Record Keeping important in HACCP?
Efficient and accurate record-keeping is essential for HACCP implementation. It includes maintaining records of HACCP team composition, hazard analysis, CCP determination, monitoring activities, deviations, and verification procedures.
258
What are the prerequisites for successful HACCP implementation?
Prerequisites include management commitment, general principles of food hygiene, scientific research, validated analytical methods, data on hazard occurrence levels, determination of acceptable levels, and establishment of critical limits.
259
What are the core principles of HACCP?
The seven principles of HACCP are: Conduct Hazard Analysis, Identify Critical Control Points (CCPs), Establish Critical Limits, Implement Monitoring Procedures, Establish Corrective Actions, Verify Procedures, and Maintain Documentation.
260
: How does HACCP differ from traditional food safety management systems?
HACCP focuses on preventing hazards rather than relying solely on end-product testing, emphasizing proactive measures at critical stages of food production to ensure safety.
261
What are the benefits of implementing HACCP in a food processing facility?
Benefits include a preventive system, increased confidence in food safety, effective resource use, cost-effective control systems, international acceptance, and strengthened quality management.
262
What challenges might organizations face when implementing HACCP?
Common challenges include inadequate knowledge or training, limited resources, lack of management commitment, and the need for substantial investment and planning.
263
What is the significance of conducting a hazard analysis in HACCP?
Hazard analysis involves identifying and evaluating biological, chemical, and physical hazards in the food production process to determine where control measures are required.
264
How does HACCP ensure continual improvement and effectiveness?
HACCP emphasizes ongoing validation, verification, documentation, and management review to ensure the system remains effective and responsive to changes in hazards or processes.
265
What is the role of management in the successful implementation of HACCP?
Management must demonstrate commitment by providing resources, setting policies, conducting periodic reviews, and ensuring compliance with food safety standards and regulations.
266
What industries commonly utilize HACCP principles apart from food processing?
HACCP principles are also applied in pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, and other industries where product safety is critical.
267
What are the current strategies for controlling infectious diseases in veterinary public health?
Control strategies include host susceptibility reduction, transmission reduction via the environment, and pathogen reduction.
268
Name methods for reducing host susceptibility or increasing resistance against infectious diseases in animals.
Improving host resistance can be achieved through breeding for resistant genotypes (e.g., National Scrapie Plan) and strategic vaccinations.
269
How can transmission of diseases via the environment be reduced?
Reducing transmission includes restricting host movement, quarantine/isolation, controlling vectors, and implementing biosecurity measures.
270
What methods are used for pathogen reduction in disease control?
Pathogen reduction methods involve therapeutics (drugs), test-and-removal programs, pre-emptive culling, and stamping out.
271
Describe the available eradication methods for animal diseases.
Eradication methods include test and removal, pre-emptive culling, blanket culling, and stamping out strategies.
272
What are the main aims and approaches of an outbreak investigation?
The main aims are to identify the source, transmission, and control measures. Approaches involve observation, analysis, causation determination, and understanding disease ecology.
273
How multidisciplinary are outbreak investigations, and why?
Outbreak investigations involve various fields like epidemiology, veterinary science, environmental health, and social sciences due to their complex nature and broad impacts.
274
What is the role of veterinarians in an outbreak investigation?
Veterinarians play crucial roles in identifying animal-related diseases, contributing to disease control strategies, and communicating with relevant authorities during outbreak investigations.
275
How can disease prevention be achieved by modifying host resistance?
Modifying host resistance involves breeding for resistant genotypes and strategic vaccination programs.
276
What methods are used to control disease transmission via the environment?
Control methods include restricting host movement, quarantine/isolation, vector control, and implementing biosecurity measures.
277
Define epidemiology in the context of veterinary science.
Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of diseases in animal populations and the application of this study to control health problems.
278
What are the basic parameters observed and recorded in the context of disease occurrence?
: Basic parameters include morbidity (rate of illness), mortality (rate of death), and the distribution of diseases in a population.
279
Explain the process of identifying the cause of a disease during an outbreak investigation.
Identifying the cause involves observing, recording, and analyzing patterns of disease occurrence, determining causal principles, and understanding disease ecology.
280
What is the significance of understanding disease transmission in epidemiology?
Understanding disease transmission helps predict and control disease spread, identify at-risk populations, and implement targeted interventions.
281
How does epidemiology assess the efficiency of disease control techniques?
Epidemiology evaluates the effectiveness of disease control techniques by analyzing their impact on disease prevalence and incidence rates over time.
282
Describe syndromic surveillance in epidemiology.
Syndromic surveillance involves collecting and analyzing health-related data to provide early warnings of public health threats, requiring prompt action.
283
What are the aims of syndromic surveillance systems?
: Syndromic surveillance aims to detect trends indicating higher-than-usual illness levels, enabling timely public health responses to potential health threats.
284
How does the role of syndromic surveillance apply to veterinary public health?
Syndromic surveillance in veterinary public health aims to identify and monitor trends in animal diseases, facilitating rapid intervention and control measures.
285
What factors are considered when assessing the effectiveness of disease control measures?
Factors include disease prevalence, intervention impact, economic implications, social impact, and the rate of disease spread.
286
: Why is communication vital in disease control and epidemiology?
Communication ensures effective coordination among stakeholders, facilitates timely responses, and helps in disseminating crucial information during disease outbreaks.
287
: What are the primary study designs used in epidemiology?
Epidemiological study designs include observational studies (cohort, case-control) and experimental studies (clinical trials, field trials).
288
Which statistical measures are crucial in epidemiology for quantifying the relationships between exposures and diseases?
Measures such as risk ratios, odds ratios, and attributable risk help quantify disease frequency, association, and impact in epidemiology.
289
What is the emphasis of the "One Health" approach in veterinary epidemiology?
The "One Health" approach recognizes the interconnection between human, animal, and environmental health, highlighting the impact of diseases across these domains.
290
How have technological advancements influenced epidemiological research?
technological advancements like Geographic Information Systems (GIS), molecular epidemiology techniques (DNA fingerprinting, sequencing), and modeling methods have enhanced disease surveillance and outbreak investigations.
291
What role do Geographic Information Systems (GIS) play in epidemiology?
GIS facilitates the visualization and analysis of spatial data, aiding in mapping disease distributions and identifying patterns of disease spread within populations.
292
How has molecular epidemiology, such as DNA fingerprinting, contributed to epidemiological studies?
Molecular epidemiology techniques allow for the identification of genetic variations within pathogens, aiding in tracking disease transmission routes and understanding disease dynamics.
293
What is the significance of modeling methods in epidemiology?
Modeling methods help simulate disease transmission dynamics, predict disease outbreaks, and assess the potential impact of interventions, aiding in decision-making for disease control strategies.
294
ABP
Animal by product
295
Define APB
The entire body, part of an animal or a product of animal origin that are not intended for human consumption
296
How are APBs categorised?
ABPs are categorized into Category 1 (for disposal only), Category 2 (unfit for human or animal consumption), and Category 3 (not for human consumption).
297
What are the options for processing, use and disposal of APBs?
Options include incineration, pressure sterilization, landfill, fuel combustion, fertilizer use, and use in pet food plants, among others.
298
What is specified risk material?
SRM refers to parts of animals that pose a risk of infectivity if the animal was infected with a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) disease.
299
What are some examples of SRM in cattle?
SRM in cattle includes tonsils, the last 4 meters of the small intestine, caecum, mesentery, skull (excluding mandible), spinal cord, and specific parts of the vertebral column.
300
Why is the removal of SRM essential?
SRM must be removed from both the human and animal food chains and destroyed to prevent potential health risks associated with TSE diseases.
301
How is Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) monitored in cattle?
BSE monitoring in cattle involves testing cattle for human consumption, fallen stock, emergency slaughter animals, and those found sick during ante mortem inspection.
302
What legislation lays down rules regarding ABPs and derived products?
Regulation (EC) 1069/2009 lays down health rules regarding animal by-products and derived products not intended for human consumption.
303
What is the role of the Official Veterinarian (OV) concerning ABPs?
The OV supervises ABP handling, enforces compliance with regulations, and communicates findings related to ABP handling.
304
Name some animal by-products (ABPs) produced by the meat sector.
ABPs include various parts of slaughtered animals, such as blood, hides, feathers, heads, feet, and intestines.
305
What percentage of a chicken comprises animal by-products (ABPs)?
68%
306
Explain the difference between Animal By-Products (ABPs) and Edible Co-products.
Edible Co-products are intended for human consumption before further processing, such as fats, stomachs, bladders, intestines, and gelatine.
307
What regulations govern the handling and disposal of animal by-products?
The handling and disposal of ABPs are regulated by various legislations, including Regulation (EC) 1069/2009, (EC) 142/2011, and several others.
308
What are the different categories of ABPs, and what do they signify?
Category 1: For disposal only (highest risk, includes SRM). Category 2: Unfit for human or animal consumption. Category 3: Not for human consumption.
309
Provide examples of Category 2 ABPs.
Examples include sludge from wastewater, residues of veterinary drugs, material not compliant with EU veterinary requirements, among other
310
How are Category 3 ABPs defined?
Category 3 ABPs are fit but not intended for human consumption, including parts like poultry heads, feathers, pig bristles, hides, horns, and certain blood components.
311
: What are the disposal routes for Category 1 ABPs?
Category 1 ABPs are disposed of through approved incinerators, pressure sterilization, landfill, and other methods like burial at authorized landfills for international waste.
312
Explain the different methods of processing for Category 2 and Category 3 ABPs.
Category 2 and 3 ABPs undergo various methods like pressure sterilization, heating at specific temperatures for designated periods, and mixing with formic acid.
313
What exemptions exist regarding the use of certain ABPs?
Exemptions include the use of ABPs for diagnostic, educational, research purposes, feeding endangered species, zoo animals, reptiles, birds of prey, and in surgical procedures on live farm animals.
314
How do Food Business Operators (FBOs) play a role in ABP handling?
FBOs are responsible for due diligence in the handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of ABPs according to regulations.
315
What is the role of the Meat Hygiene Inspector (MHI) concerning ABPs?
MHIs assist in the inspection and handling of ABPs at slaughterhouses, ensuring compliance with hygiene standards and proper identification.
316
Describe the responsibilities of the Official Veterinarian (OV) in relation to ABPs.
The OV supervises and enforces compliance with ABP regulations, communicates findings, and ensures proper handling and disposal procedures.
317
How does the Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) relate to ABPs?
HACCP principles are applied in ABP processing facilities to identify and manage potential hazards, ensuring food safety and compliance.
318
Explain the significance of ante-mortem inspection (AMI) in relation to ABPs
AMI is conducted before slaughter to assess the health status of animals, identifying potential risks that might affect the quality of ABPs.
319
How does post-mortem inspection (PMI) impact ABP categorization?
PMI helps determine if carcasses and organs are fit for human consumption or are classified as Category 1, 2, or 3 ABPs based on their condition.
320
Discuss the role of the Food Standards Agency (FSA) in regulating ABPs.
The FSA oversees and enforces regulations regarding ABP handling, ensuring compliance with health and safety standards.
321
How does ABP handling relate to Notifiable Diseases (NDs)?
ABP handling protocols aim to prevent the spread of NDs by ensuring proper disposal and management of potentially infected animal parts.
322
Explain the involvement of the Animal and Plant Health Agency (APHA) concerning ABPs.
APHA licenses and audits ABP processing plants, ensuring adherence to regulations and standards set for handling and disposal.
323
Why is Animal Welfare a consideration in ABP handling?
Proper handling and disposal of ABPs are crucial to maintain animal welfare standards and prevent potential health hazards to both animals and humans.
324
What are some UK legislations governing the handling of ABPs?
UK legislations include The Animal By-Products (Enforcement) (England) Regulations 2013, The Animal By-Products (Enforcement) (Wales) Regulations 2014, and others to regulate ABP handling
325
Describe the key provisions of the Animal By-Products (Enforcement) Regulations in England and Wales.
These regulations enforce proper handling, disposal, and transportation of ABPs in England and Wales, ensuring compliance with health and safety standards.
326
Explain the relevance of Regulation (EC) 1069/2009 in the UK concerning ABPs.
Regulation (EC) 1069/2009 sets health rules for ABPs and derived products not intended for human consumption, influencing UK legislation on ABP handling.
327
How do the Food Standards Agency (FSA) and the Department for Environment, Food and Rural Affairs (DEFRA) contribute to ABP regulation?
FSA and DEFRA collaborate to oversee and implement regulations, ensuring proper handling and disposal of ABPs across the UK.
328
Detail the role of local authorities in the UK concerning the transport of ABPs.
Local authorities oversee the transportation of ABPs, ensuring compliance with regulations and proper labeling during transit.
329
Discuss the legal obligations of Food Business Operators (FBOs) under UK laws regarding ABPs.
FBOs have legal obligations to handle, store, and dispose of ABPs in accordance with UK legislation, maintaining records and ensuring compliance.
330
Explain the requirements for ABP identification as per UK laws.
ABPs must be appropriately labeled and identified according to their categories (Category 1, 2, or 3) as mandated by UK laws.
331
What enforcement measures exist within UK abattoirs to ensure ABP compliance?
Within abattoirs, the FSA, Trading Standards, and APHA enforce compliance through verbal and written notices, ensuring adherence to regulations.
332
How do UK laws ensure traceability in ABP handling?
UK laws mandate proper documentation and traceability of ABPs, ensuring their origin, handling, and disposal can be traced throughout the process.
333
Discuss the significance of UK laws in preventing food crime related to ABPs.
UK laws aim to prevent food crime by regulating ABP handling, ensuring the integrity of the food chain and preventing fraudulent activities related to ABPs.
334
What percentage of a chicken constitutes as an ABP?
Approximately 68% of a chicken is classified as an ABP.
335
What percentage of a pig constitutes as an ABP?
62%
336
What percentage of a bovine constitutes as an ABP?
54%
337
What percentage of a sheep or goat constitutes as an ABP?
52%
338
How much meat from slaughtered animals is classified as ABP?
Overall, a significant portion of slaughtered animals (chickens, pigs, bovines, sheep/goats) contributes to the ABP category, ranging from 52% to 68% of their total body weight.
339
What is the potential volume of ABPs produced annually in the UK?
n the UK, millions of tons of ABPs are generated annually due to animal processing across various sectors, posing significant disposal challenges.
340
What are the economic implications of ABP disposal and handling?
ABP disposal and handling processes incur substantial costs for industries and regulatory bodies due to the volume and specialized treatment required for these materials.
341
How do the figures of ABP production correlate with environmental concerns?
The large volume of ABPs generated annually raises environmental concerns, necessitating sustainable disposal methods to mitigate ecological impacts.
342
: What proportion of ABPs are categorized as high-risk materials (Category 1 and 2)?
A significant portion of ABPs, including those categorized as Category 1 and 2, are considered high-risk materials due to their potential health hazards and limited uses.
343
What percentage of ABPs are repurposed for various uses despite being unfit for human consumption?
A relatively small percentage of ABPs (Category 3) are repurposed for pet food and other designated industries, ensuring limited utilization despite their ineligibility for human consumption.
344
What constitutes Category 1 in Animal By-Products (ABPs), and what is its intended purpose?
Category 1 includes ABPs that are solely meant for disposal due to their high risk, such as specified risk materials (SRM), posing potential health hazards.
345
Enumerate examples of materials falling under Category 2 of ABPs. What distinguishes Category 2 materials?
Category 2 comprises materials unfit for human or animal consumption, including sludge from wastewater, residues of veterinary drugs, and non-compliant imports, posing health risks but having some restricted uses.
346
Define Category 3 within the context of Animal By-Products (ABPs). How are these materials categorized?
Category 3 includes ABPs fit for use but not intended for human consumption, such as poultry heads, hides, and blood, considered safe for pet food and certain technical purposes.
347
Discuss the disposal methods for Category 1 ABPs compared to Category 2 and 3 materials. How do disposal routes differ for these categories?
Category 1 ABPs, being high-risk materials, necessitate approved incineration or other stringent disposal methods, whereas Category 2 and 3 materials have varied disposal options, including processing for safe industrial uses or pet food.
348
What distinguishes Category 1 from Category 2 and 3 ABPs in terms of their risk to human and animal health?
Category 1 ABPs pose the highest risk due to potential health hazards like SRM, while Category 2 and 3 materials are considered lower risk but still unfit for human consumption, requiring specific handling and disposal methods.
349
Why are Category 1 and 2 ABPs considered unsuitable for human consumption? Elaborate on the potential dangers associated with these categories.
Both Category 1 and 2 ABPs contain materials unfit for human consumption due to contaminants, veterinary drug residues, or risks of transmissible diseases like BSE, posing health threats if ingested.
350
Discuss the permissible uses of Category 3 ABPs despite their classification as unfit for human consumption.
Category 3 ABPs find usage in pet food production and certain industrial processes despite being unsuitable for human consumption, meeting safety standards for these specific purposes.
351
n: How do the handling and disposal requirements differ among Category 1, 2, and 3 ABPs? Explain the regulatory distinctions for each category.
ategory 1 ABPs require stringent disposal methods due to their high-risk nature, while Category 2 and 3 materials have comparatively varied uses and disposal options regulated by specific guidelines.
352
Why is it crucial to properly categorize ABPs into Category 1, 2, or 3? Discuss the implications of misclassification.
Proper categorization ensures appropriate handling, disposal, and utilization of ABPs, preventing health hazards and potential contamination in the food chain; misclassification can lead to regulatory breaches and health risks.
353
What role do Category 1, 2, and 3 classifications play in ensuring food safety and preventing health hazards? Elaborate on their significance in regulatory compliance.
Category classifications are pivotal in segregating materials based on their risk levels, guiding regulatory compliance, and safeguarding food safety by controlling the handling and disposal of ABPs.
354
What is the definition of stunning according to Council Regulation (EC) No 1099/2009?
Stunning is any intentionally induced process that causes loss of consciousness and sensibility without pain in vertebrate animals intended for human consumption.
355
Name three methods of stunning animals according to Regulation (EC) No 1099/2009.
Captive bolt, electronarcosis, and gas stunning are methods specified for stunning animals humanely before slaughter.
356
What are the aims of stunning animals before slaughter?
The aims of stunning are to slaughter animals humanely, obtain maximum blood from the animal to improve keeping quality, and ensure health and safety.
357
What are the different stunning methods used in animal slaughterhouses?
Captive bolt, electric stunning (low and high voltage), and gas stunning (carbon dioxide at high concentration, mixed with inert gases, or inert gases alone) are commonly used stunning methods.
358
What are the steps involved in the stunning process using a captive bolt?
Captive bolt stunning involves using a device to deliver a heavy blow to the head, impacting the brain and causing loss of consciousness and sensibility without pa
359
Describe the stunning phase in animals subjected to electric stunning.
Electric stunning induces a tonic phase where the animal becomes rigid and stops breathing, followed by a clonic phase involving involuntary movements before a recovery phase.
360
What is the purpose of bleeding animals during the slaughter process?
Bleeding is performed during the tonic phase to drain blood efficiently, promoting better meat quality and reducing blood splash.
361
Explain the significance of hygiene practices during dressing and chilling of red meat-producing animals.
Hygiene practices ensure the prevention of contamination, maintain meat quality, and reduce the risk of microbial growth during processing and storage.
362
Describe the certification process for food, including the EU health mark and third-country approval.
The EU health mark certifies products produced under EU standards. Third-country approval involves a rigorous procedure ensuring animal and food safety before import.
363
Compare the processes of ante-mortem inspection, slaughter, transport, dressing, and post-mortem meat inspection between farmed game and domestic species
While the steps largely align, some variations exist, such as splitting not being mandatory for farmed game and differences in certification requirements.
364
: What are the main principles of animal welfare during slaughter?
The main principles include the requirement for stunning before slaughter, ensuring animals remain unconscious until death, and minimizing pain or distress throughout the process.
365
What is the role of a Certificate of Competence (CoC) in the context of slaughterhouses?
A CoC ensures that slaughtermen are trained and competent in handling, stunning, restraining, bleeding, and checking the effectiveness of stunning methods in compliance with regulations.
366
Describe the physiological effects observed in animals during stunning.
Stunning leads to brain impact, disruption of normal electrical activity, and a sequence of phases including tonic, clonic, and relaxation, indicating an effective stun.
367
Explain the importance of effective stunning in animal welfare and meat quality.
Effective stunning ensures humane slaughter, improves meat quality by facilitating better bleeding, and promotes health and safety standards.
368
What are the advantages and disadvantages of gas stunning methods in animal slaughter?
Advantages include reduced stress and improved meat quality. Disadvantages include expense and concerns about breathlessness in animals.
369
What are the key steps involved in post-mortem inspection of meat?
Post-mortem inspection involves examining carcasses for any abnormalities, diseases, or contamination that could affect the safety and quality of meat for human consumption.
370
How does the European Union regulate food certification and marking?
The EU implements standards for food certification, including health marks, ensuring traceability and compliance with hygiene and safety requirements.
371
Discuss the importance of hygiene practices in meat processing facilities.
Hygiene practices prevent cross-contamination, reduce microbial growth, ensure food safety, and maintain high-quality meat products.
372
Explain the significance of ante-mortem inspection in animal slaughterhouses.
Ante-mortem inspection helps identify animals unfit for human consumption due to disease, injury, or other health issues, preventing potentially unsafe meat from entering the food chain.
373
Describe the process of third-country approval for exporting animal products to the European Union.
Third-country approval involves a rigorous procedure verifying the country's compliance with EU standards, including establishment inspections, certification, and approval for export.
374
You arrive at a red meat abattoir and a trailer brings in a dead cow while you're performing ante-mortem checks on pigs. What are the key issues to consider?
Key issues include the unexpected arrival of a dead cow, the need for proper investigation into the cause of death, discrepancies in paperwork regarding the cow's condition, and potential implications for food safety and animal welfare.
375
You find a dry, mould-covered beef carcass in the chiller, killed 32 days ago from a 42-month-old animal. Do you need to take any actions?
Yes, this situation should prompt further investigation and potential actions due to the extended hanging time, mold presence, and potential impact on meat quality and safety
376
What are the primary factors influencing milk quality in dairy production?
Hygiene: Sanitary conditions during milking, storage, and transport. Health of the Cow: Diseases, infections, and overall health affect milk quality. Feed Quality: Nutritional content of feed impacts milk composition. Milking Procedures: Proper techniques and equipment usage are crucial
377
What are the key components examined in milk quality testing?
Microbial Quality: Bacterial counts, somatic cell counts. Chemical Composition: Fat content, protein content, lactose levels. Contaminants: Residues of antibiotics, pesticides, and heavy metals. Sensory Evaluation: Odor, taste, and appearance.
378
How does somatic cell count (SCC) relate to milk quality?
SCC measures the number of white blood cells in milk. Elevated SCC indicates potential udder infections or mastitis. Higher SCC can affect milk quality, reducing shelf life and processing ability.
379
What is pasteurization, and how does it impact milk quality and safety?
Pasteurization: Heat treatment to eliminate harmful bacteria in milk. Improves milk safety by killing pathogenic organisms. Preserves nutritional quality but may slightly affect some heat-sensitive vitamins.
380
Discuss the significance of bacterial counts in milk quality.
Low Bacterial Counts: Indicate better milk quality, longer shelf life. High counts suggest poor hygiene, potential contamination, and reduced quality. Legal standards exist for maximum allowable bacterial counts in milk.
381
How can veterinarians contribute to improving milk quality in dairy production?
Conducting health checks on dairy cattle to prevent diseases affecting milk quality. Educating farmers on proper hygiene practices during milking and storage. Implementing vaccination programs and monitoring for diseases like mastitis.
382
What are the crucial steps in maintaining hygienic milking practices?
Teat preparation, pre-milking disinfection, and machine wash-up are essential for maintaining milking hygiene. Regularly reviewing and monitoring these routines is vital for mastitis management.
383
How does environmental contamination affect milk quality?
Environmental sources such as cow living spaces, bedding, and water quality can introduce bacteria into the milk. Minimizing contamination from these sources is crucial for preserving milk quality.
384
What is the significance of pre-milking teat disinfection?
Effective teat disinfection significantly reduces bacterial counts in bulk milk. Properly disinfected teats contribute to lower bacterial contamination during milking.
385
What are some critical points in milk processing that pose contamination risks?
Stages like storage, pasteurization, and filling cartons are critical, as they offer opportunities for bacterial contamination. Proper control and hygiene measures are necessary at each stage to prevent contamination.
386
Case Study: Ice-Cream Contamination: Question: Describe the case study involving ice-cream contamination. What were the findings and corrective actions taken?
The study revealed Cronobacter sakazakii presence in ruptured ice-cream packs. Investigations traced the contamination to suboptimal plant hygiene and an ingredient source. Subsequent actions included extensive screening and ingredient removal.
387
What role does a veterinarian play in ensuring milk quality and public health within the dairy supply chain?
Veterinarians contribute significantly to maintaining milk quality by promoting cow cleanliness, reviewing milking routines, monitoring bacterial counts, and investigating issues affecting milk quality.
388
How does the cow's environment influence milk quality, and what are potential sources of bacterial contamination?
Environmental contamination, including bedding materials, water sources, and cow living spaces, contributes to bacterial introduction into milk. (Figure 1: Schematic illustrating sources of bacterial contamination)
389
What are the critical control points in milk processing that require stringent hygiene measures?
Key stages like pasteurization and filling cartons necessitate rigorous hygiene to prevent contamination. (Figure 3: Flowchart outlining critical control points in milk processing)
390
What role do bees play in agriculture?
Bees are vital for pollination, facilitating the reproduction of plants, including many crops, thus contributing significantly to agricultural productivity and biodiversity.
391
What are the key components of honey and their pharmacological effects?
Honey comprises various compounds, including sugars (mainly sucrose), enzymes like invertase, and bioactive substances such as Methylglyoxal (MGO) and polyphenolic compounds. These substances exhibit antimicrobial properties and may affect DNA, cell membranes, and microbial growth.
392
What are the concerns regarding veterinary drug residues in honey?
Few veterinary products are authorized for apiculture, leading to potential residues of antibiotics (chloramphenicol, streptomycin, tetracyclines, sulphonamides), pesticides, organophosphates, organochlorines, and metals (cadmium, lead) in honey. The Veterinary Medicines Directorate (VMD) oversees testing for these residues in the UK.
393
What is the significance of Clostridium botulinum in honey?
Honey can contain viable spores of Cl. botulinum, potentially causing infant botulism due to the immature gut microflora of infants. It's advised not to feed honey to children under 12 months old due to this risk.
394
What are examples of notifiable, reportable, and non-notifiable diseases and pests in honey bees, and how are they managed?
Notifiable diseases include European Foulbrood and American Foulbrood, reportable diseases like Varroa destructor, and non-notifiable diseases like chalkbrood and sacbrood. Control strategies vary, including destroying affected colonies, quarantining, and specific treatments.
395
What key legislation and regulatory bodies govern bee health and honey hygiene in the UK?
The Bees Act (1980), Bee Diseases and Pests Control Orders (2006, 2021 amended), and Honey Regulations (2015) outline legislative powers related to disease control, movement, and labeling criteria. Regulatory agencies like the National Bee Unit (NBU) oversee these regulations and enforce disease control measures.
396
Explain the lifecycle of a honeybee.
Honeybee eggs hatch into larvae, undergo pupation, and emerge as adults. The timing of emergence depends on caste (queen, worker, drone).
397
Describe the process of honey production by bees.
Bees collect nectar, regurgitate it into storage cells, and add enzymes like invertase to convert sucrose to glucose and fructose. Pollen is also collected and stored in baskets.
398
What are the general properties and specific components of honey?
Honey has low water activity (aw), inhibiting microbial growth. Specific components like Methylglyoxal (MGO), bee defensin-1, and polyphenolic compounds contribute to its antimicrobial action.
399
Why are veterinary drug residues a concern in honey?
Limited authorization for veterinary products in apiculture raises the risk of residues like antibiotics (chloramphenicol, tetracyclines), pesticides, and metals in honey, affecting consumer safety.
400
What risks does Clostridium botulinum pose in honey?
Honey may contain viable Cl. botulinum spores, posing a risk of infant botulism due to the immature gut microflora in infants.
401
Describe European Foulbrood in honey bees.
EFB, caused by Melisococcus plutonius, affects bee brood before capping. Larvae show signs of infection, with twisted, melted appearance, and may suffer secondary Bacillus alvei infections.
402
What characterizes American Foulbrood in honey bees?
AFB, caused by Paenibacillus larvae, affects brood after capping. Infected brood exhibits sunken, greasy cappings. It's highly contagious, requiring quarantine and destruction of infected colonies.
403
Explain the significance of Varroa destructor in bee colonies.
Varroa mites are ectoparasites that weaken colonies, transmit diseases like deformed wing virus, and reduce bee lifespans. They're managed through various treatments, including chemical and physical methods.
404
What threat does the Small Hive Beetle pose to honey bees?
The Small Hive Beetle (Aethina tumida) originates from Africa and can cause damage by feeding on wax, pollen, honey, and bee brood, contaminating honey and hives.
405
Name examples of notifiable diseases in honey bees.
European Foulbrood (EFB), American Foulbrood (AFB), Tropilaelaps mite, and Small Hive Beetle are considered notifiable diseases or pests in beekeeping.
406
What is Chalkbrood, and how does it affect honey bees?
Chalkbrood, caused by the fungus Ascosphaera apis, leads to infected larvae forming 'mummies'. It weakens colonies and can mask other diseases like EFB.
407
What are the main components of honey regulations?
Honey regulations cover compositional criteria, labeling requirements, and improvement notices to maintain quality and safety standards.
408
What is the role of the National Bee Unit?
The NBU aims to maintain a healthy bee population in England and Wales through coordinated efforts between government and stakeholders.
409
What are the approximate ratios of castes in a honey bee colony during different seasons?
In summer, there are around 60,000 workers, 1 queen, and 2,000 drones. However, in winter, the numbers reduce to about 10,000 workers, 1 queen, and no drones.
410
What is the role of beekeepers in the UK?
Approximately 40,000 beekeepers maintain around 300,000 honey bee colonies in the UK, contributing significantly to honey production and pollination.
411
List the main components of a beehive and their functions.
Beehives consist of frames for honeycomb, a brood chamber for developing bees, honey supers for surplus honey, and a queen excluder to limit the queen's access to honey supers.
412
Why is pollination crucial for agriculture?
Pollination facilitates the reproduction of plants, ensuring higher yields and quality of fruits, vegetables, and seeds, benefiting agricultural production.
413
Why are very few products authorized for use in apiculture?
Limited authorization aims to minimize veterinary drug residues in honey, ensuring consumer safety and reducing the impact on bee health.
414
Explain the process of bees collecting nectar.
Bees gather nectar from flowers, which they regurgitate into storage cells. Nectar mainly consists of sucrose and undergoes enzymatic changes before storage.
415
How do the components of honey contribute to its antimicrobial action?
Honey's low water activity restricts microbial growth. Bioactive compounds like MGO, bee defensin-1, and polyphenolic compounds exhibit antimicrobial effects by affecting cell membranes, DNA, and microbial metabolism.
416
Frames
Frames: Rectangular structures within beehives where honeycomb is attached. Beekeepers can remove frames for honey extraction or colony inspection.
417
Nectar
Nectar: A sugary fluid produced by flowers that honeybees collect for making honey. It contains sucrose and is converted into honey by bees.
418
Pollen
Pollen: The powdery substance produced by the male reproductive organs of flowering plants. Bees collect pollen as a protein source and for the pollination process.
419
Honey comb
Honeycomb: A structure made of beeswax formed by honeybees to store honey, nectar, pollen, and to house developing larvae.
420
queenbee
Queen Bee: The female bee responsible for laying eggs and maintaining the colony's population. She's larger than other bees and typically the only fertile female in the colony.
421
Worker bees
Worker Bees: Female bees that perform various tasks such as collecting nectar and pollen, feeding the larvae, building honeycomb, and protecting the hive.
422
Drone
Drone: Male honeybees whose primary role is to mate with the queen. They don't collect food or have stingers and are expelled from the hive during winter when resources are scarce.
423
Brood chamber
Brood Chamber: A section within a beehive where the queen lays eggs and where larvae develop into adult bees.
424
Pollination
Pollination: The process by which pollen is transferred from the male reproductive organs (anther) to the female reproductive organs (stigma) of a flower, enabling fertilization and seed production.
425
Apis mellifera
Apis Mellifera: The scientific name for the Western honeybee, the most commonly managed species for honey production.
426
Honey supers
Honey Supers: Additional boxes or chambers added to the beehive specifically for surplus honey storage, separate from the brood chamber.
427
Propolis
Propolis: A resinous mixture collected by bees from tree buds and used as a sealant in the hive, offering protection against microbes and maintaining hive structure.
428
Define the Bees act
Bees Act: Legislation in the UK (1980) that governs the control of diseases and pests affecting bees, authorizing measures for disease control and movement restrictions.
429
Varroa mite
Varroa Mite: A parasitic mite that infests honeybee colonies, weakens bees, and transmits diseases, posing a significant threat to bee health.
430
EFB (bees)
European Foulbrood (EFB): A bacterial disease affecting honeybee larvae, caused by Melisococcus plutonius, leading to larvae death and foul-smelling colonies.
431
AFB (bees)
American Foulbrood (AFB): A highly contagious bacterial disease affecting honeybee brood, caused by Paenibacillus larvae, resulting in infected larvae dying after capping.
432
What are the main strategies for controlling infectious diseases in veterinary public health?
Host: Increase host resistance (e.g., genetic modifications, vaccinations). Environment: Reduce pathogen transmission (restricting movement, quarantine, vector control, biosecurity). Pathogen: Decrease pathogen population (therapeutics, but not always effective).
433
How are animal diseases eradicated, and what factors influence eradication programs?
Test and removal: Positive animals removed and slaughtered (e.g., Bovine Tuberculosis). Pre-emptive: Exposed animals preemptively slaughtered. Blanket culling: Culling animals in proximity to infected areas. Factors influencing: Disease type, economic, welfare, socio-political, and public health impacts.
434
What are the main steps in an outbreak investigation, and what multidisciplinary aspects are involved?
Steps: Observation, analysis, determining the cause, understanding transmission and clinical signs, assessing control techniques. Multidisciplinary aspects: Involves veterinarians, health agencies, environmental health, industry, and more.
435
: What is the role of veterinarians in outbreak investigations?
Contribution: Assessing animal health, identifying disease patterns, advising on control measures, and collaborating with other disciplines for a holistic approach.
436
How can host, environment, and pathogen factors be managed to prevent and control diseases?
Host: Enhance resistance via genetics or vaccination. Environment: Limit transmission through movement restriction, quarantine, vector control, and biosecurity. Pathogen: Reduce pathogen population via therapeutics, although not always effective.
437
Who comprises the outbreak control team, and what are the essential elements of an outbreak control plan?
Team: Involves local health authorities, veterinary agencies, national health agencies, and potentially industry representatives. Plan Elements: Communication, care provision, equipment/facilities, liaison, and specific disease control measures.
438
What methods are employed to enhance host resistance in disease prevention?
Genetic modifications: Breeding for resistance traits (e.g., ARR/ARR genotypes in National Scrapie Plan). Vaccination: Strategic or blanket vaccination to prevent disease spread (e.g., emergency vaccination during outbreaks like swine flu).
439
How can disease transmission be restricted through environmental control methods?
Movement restriction: Limiting animal travel during outbreaks (e.g., standstill period for cattle/sheep movements during disease outbreaks). Quarantine/Isolation: Isolating infected individuals or exposed contacts (e.g., duration exceeding the disease incubation period for effective control). Vector control: Managing vectors (e.g., ticks in Lyme disease).
440
What does biosecurity entail in disease prevention and control?
Fomite control: Management systems reducing the risk of introducing infectious disease to herds (e.g., measures during Avian Influenza outbreaks). Test and trace systems: Identifying infected individuals and close contacts to prevent disease transmission.
441
How can pathogen load be reduced in disease prevention?
Therapeutics: Use of drugs to decrease pathogen load, although not always effective at larger scales (e.g., nitazoxanide for Cryptosporidium). Challenges: Expensiveness, concerns of antimicrobial resistance, and anthelmintic resistance.
442
What are the different approaches used in disease eradication efforts?
Test and removal: Removal and slaughter of positive animals (e.g., Bovine Tuberculosis). Pre-emptive culling: Slaughter of animals exposed to infection to prevent spread (e.g., pre-emptive culling during Avian Influenza outbreaks).
443
Why is communication crucial during outbreak investigations?
Importance: Ensures coordination between stakeholders, dissemination of vital information, and public awareness. Effective communication aids in implementing control measures and minimizing panic.
444
How does vaccination contribute to disease prevention, and what are its considerations?
Vaccination mechanisms: Stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies against specific pathogens. Considerations: Vaccine efficacy, duration of immunity, potential adverse effects, storage, and administration logistics.
445
What are the specific measures involved in biosecurity for disease control?
Fomite control: Implementation of hygiene protocols, disinfection, and sanitation to prevent disease spread via contaminated objects. Test and trace systems: Utilizing contact tracing to identify and isolate infected individuals or carriers.
446
What challenges are associated with therapeutics in reducing pathogen load?
Effectiveness limitations: Therapeutic agents may not effectively eliminate pathogens at regional or national levels. Cost considerations: Expense involved in large-scale application and sustainability concerns.
447
What are the complexities involved in test and removal methods for disease eradication?
Challenges: Identifying all infected animals accurately, logistical difficulties in removal, and the emotional impact on farmers.
448
How effective is pre-emptive culling, and what ethical considerations arise?
Effectiveness: Reduces potential disease spread but requires accurate risk assessment to avoid unnecessary loss. Ethical concerns: Balancing disease control with animal welfare and economic implications.
449
What communication strategies are effective during an outbreak investigation?
Transparency: Timely and accurate dissemination of information to stakeholders and the public. Engaging stakeholders: Collaborative decision-making and maintaining open lines of communication between various involved parties.
450
What are the key strategies employed in controlling diseases concerning public health?
Primary Prevention: Targeting risk factors before disease onset (e.g., vaccination, health education). Secondary Prevention: Early detection and intervention to halt disease progression (e.g., screening programs). Tertiary Prevention: Management and rehabilitation to minimize disease-related complications (e.g., treatment, support groups).
451
What is the role of disease surveillance in public health epidemiology?
Early Detection: Monitoring disease patterns, identifying outbreaks, and tracking emerging threats. Data Collection: Gathering and analyzing epidemiological data to understand disease trends and inform control measures. Response Planning: Providing evidence for policymaking and implementing targeted interventions.
452
What are the key steps in conducting an outbreak investigation in public health?
Recognition of Outbreak: Identification of unusual disease patterns or an increase in cases. Confirmation and Diagnosis: Laboratory testing and confirmation of the causative agent. Case Investigation: Interviewing affected individuals to gather detailed information for tracing the source.
453
How does a multidisciplinary approach contribute to controlling diseases in public health?
Collaboration: Involving diverse expertise such as epidemiologists, veterinarians, healthcare workers, policymakers, and environmental scientists. Comprehensive Understanding: Integrating different perspectives for a holistic view and effective disease control strategies.
454
Why is effective communication crucial in public health epidemiology?
Timely Information Dissemination: Sharing accurate and timely information with the public, healthcare professionals, and stakeholders. Risk Communication: Explaining risks, preventive measures, and actions required during outbreaks to promote understanding and cooperation.
455
What preventive measures are employed in public health to control diseases?
Vaccination Programs: Implementing immunization campaigns to prevent the spread of infectious diseases. Public Health Education: Raising awareness about disease transmission, hygiene practices, and health promotion. Environmental Controls: Implementing sanitation, vector control, and ensuring safe food and water sources.
456
How does data analysis and modeling contribute to disease control in public health?
Predictive Analysis: Using data trends to forecast disease patterns and potential outbreaks. Intervention Planning: Modeling scenarios to evaluate the effectiveness of control measures before implementation.
457
Why is global collaboration essential in controlling diseases concerning public health?
Cross-Border Threats: Diseases can transcend boundaries, requiring coordinated international responses. Information Sharing and Resource Allocation: Sharing knowledge, resources, and expertise to address global health challenges collectively.
458
How do health policies influence disease control in public health?
Regulatory Measures: Implementing policies for disease surveillance, vaccination requirements, and quarantine measures. Resource Allocation: Allocating funds and resources to strengthen healthcare systems, research, and response capabilities.
459
Why is ongoing evaluation and feedback crucial in disease control efforts in public health?
Effectiveness Assessment: Evaluating the impact of interventions and adjusting strategies based on results. Continuous Improvement: Incorporating lessons learned to enhance future disease control measures.
460
What are the primary strategies for controlling infectious diseases in veterinary public health?
Host Measures: Enhancing host resistance through genetic modifications and vaccination. Environmental Controls: Restricting movement, quarantine, vector control, and biosecurity. Pathogen Reduction: Using therapeutics, although limitations exist regarding efficacy and cost-effectiveness at larger scales.
461
: How are diseases eradicated in veterinary public health, and what factors influence eradication efforts?
Test and Removal: Slaughtering positive animals (e.g., Bovine Tuberculosis), pre-emptive culling, and blanket culling in surrounding areas. Factors: Consider disease type, economic, welfare, socio-political, and public health impacts in decision-making for eradication programs.
462
What steps are involved in outbreak investigations, and what role do veterinarians play?
Steps: Observation, analysis, cause determination, understanding transmission, clinical signs, and assessing control techniques. Veterinarians' Role: Assessing animal health, identifying disease patterns, advising on control measures, and collaborating in a multidisciplinary approach.
463
How can host resistance, environmental measures, and pathogen control contribute to disease prevention in veterinary public health?
Host: Improve host resistance through genetic selection and vaccinations. Environment: Implement movement restrictions, quarantine, vector control, and biosecurity measures. Pathogen: Reduce pathogen load using therapeutics, although challenges exist regarding efficacy, cost, and resistance concerns.
464
What does biosecurity entail, and how does it contribute to disease control in veterinary public health?
Biosecurity Measures: Fomite control, test and trace systems, and isolation/quarantine strategies. Contribution: Reducing the risk of disease introduction and transmission in animal populations.
465
What role does disease surveillance play, and why is effective communication critical in veterinary public health?
Surveillance Role: Early detection of diseases, data collection, and evidence-based response planning. Communication Importance: Timely information dissemination, risk communication, and public understanding during outbreaks.
466
What are zoonotic diseases, and why are they significant in veterinary public health?
Zoonotic Diseases: Diseases transmissible between animals and humans (e.g., rabies, avian influenza). Significance: Pose public health risks, requiring vigilance in surveillance, prevention, and control measures to prevent human transmission.
467
What is the One Health approach, and how does it influence disease control in veterinary public health?
One Health: Collaborative approach involving human, animal, and environmental health sectors to address interconnected health issues. Influence: Recognizes the interdependence between human and animal health, emphasizing holistic strategies for disease control.
468
How does antimicrobial resistance impact disease control in veterinary public health?
AMR Impact: Limits effectiveness of antimicrobials in treating diseases, posing challenges in managing infections in animals. Strategies: Implementing prudent use of antibiotics, stewardship programs, and surveillance to combat AMR.
469
Why is risk assessment vital in disease control, and how are risks mitigated in veterinary public health?
Importance: Identifies potential hazards and assesses their likelihood and impact on animal and human health. Mitigation: Implementing preventive measures, risk communication, and targeted interventions based on risk assessments.
470
How does international collaboration contribute to disease control efforts in veterinary public health?
Collaboration Benefits: Shared knowledge, resources, and expertise to address global health challenges. Surveillance and Response: Coordinated efforts in disease surveillance, rapid response, and control strategies across borders.
471
: What role do policies and legislation play in disease control in veterinary public health?
Regulation: Implementing laws and regulations for disease reporting, vaccination requirements, and biosecurity standards. Resource Allocation: Allocating funds and resources for research, surveillance, and response capabilities.
472
What information does the Food Chain Information (FCI) for cattle consigned for slaughter include?
Holding Number Keeper’s Name Address of Holding Contact Information Individual identification marks Declaration regarding movement restrictions, veterinary treatments, disease signs, and sample analysis
473
When is Additional Food Chain Information for Cattle, Sheep, and Goats required?
Additional details about animals showing disease signs or conditions affecting meat safety Descriptions of disease/condition, movement restrictions, sample analysis results
474
What does the Model Declaration for Emergency Slaughter entail?
Owner/keeper's declaration about movement restrictions, veterinary treatments, and sample analyses regarding animal safety for consumption
475
What does the Veterinary Surgeon’s Declaration involve during emergency slaughter?
Description of the reason for emergency slaughter and administered treatments Confirmation of the absence of diseases affecting meat safety or the presence of clinical signs
476
What is the Decision Tree for injured or abnormal cattle?
Steps to determine the fate of injured cattle based on identification, health, and fitness for human consumption
477
: What legislation covers animal welfare during transport, slaughter, and related operations?
Various acts and regulations including the Animal Welfare Act 2006, Welfare of Farmed Animals (England) Regulations 2007, Welfare of Animals at Markets Order 1990, Transport-related regulations like Council Regulation (EC) No 1/2005, Hygiene Regulations, and TSE Legislation.
478
What are the key aspects covered under the Welfare of Farmed Animals (England) Regulations 2007?
Imposes a duty of care on individuals responsible for animals Ensures welfare needs, protection from pain, suffering, injury, and disease
479
What does the Welfare of Animals at Markets Order 1990 specify?
Covers the sale of animals at livestock markets Defines "unfit" animals as those infirm due to disease, injury, or fatigue
480
What does the Council Regulation (EC) No 1/2005 entail concerning animal transport?
Prohibits transport causing injury or unnecessary suffering to animals Defines conditions rendering animals unfit for transport
481
What are the Hygiene Regulations regarding food safety?
Regulation (EC) No. 852/2004: Sets hygiene rules for food business operators, including farmers Regulation (EC) No. 853/2004: Specifies rules for slaughterhouse operators regarding food of animal origin Regulation (EC) No. 854/2004: Defines rules for official controls on animal origin products intended for human consumption
482
What do the Welfare of Animals (Slaughter or Killing) Regulations 1995 encompass?
Implements EU Directive 93/119/EC for humane treatment during slaughter or killing Defines slaughter as causing death by bleeding, killing as death by means other than slaughter
483
What does Regulation (EU) No. 999/2001 address concerning Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathy (TSE)?
Specifies controls for TSE including Specified Risk Materials (SRM) and Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) testing Enforcement through related regulations in different UK regions
484
In the last 20 years, what are the drivers behind changes in food supply, regulation, and consumer behaviors using a PESTEL analysis?
Political: Government policies, trade agreements affecting food imports/exports. Economic: Economic downturns, inflation impacting food prices and affordability. Social: Shifting consumer preferences, health consciousness, cultural influences. Technological: Advancements in food production, distribution, and safety technologies. Environment: Climate change affecting agriculture, sustainable farming practices. Legislative: Changes in food safety laws, regulations, and standards.
485
How does Red Tractor Farm Assurance benefit different stakeholders?
Animal on the farm: Ensures better welfare standards and health monitoring. Farmer: Assures quality standards, market access, and increased trust from consumers. Processor: Provides traceability, quality assurance, and adherence to standards. Retailer: Guarantees product quality, safety, and meets consumer expectations. Consumer: Assures quality, safety, and ethical production methods. UK Agriculture: Enhances reputation, sustainability, and competitiveness.
486
How does the utilization of LISA concept help in reducing the risk of zoonotic transfer of pathogens, and what are its basic pillars? How was this used to reduce campylobacter transfer from chickens to humans?
LISA (Longitudinal Integrated Food Assurance) pillars: Surveillance & Monitoring Risk Assessment Intervention Strategies Stakeholder Engagement LISA reduced campylobacter transfer: Enhanced monitoring in farms for early detection. Risk assessment identified critical points for intervention. Implemented strategies like biosecurity measures to reduce transmission. Engaged stakeholders for collaborative solutions.
487
To what extent do you support the statement that the role of a veterinary surgeon extends beyond the farm clinician in promoting UK Agriculture, and how might this influence your future work?
Support statement: Vets play a key role in ensuring food safety, quality, and animal welfare. Influence in future work: Contributing to public health, advising policymakers, promoting sustainable farming, and engaging in community education about food safety and ethical production methods.
488
What are the main zoonoses associated with egg production, and how do they transfer along the egg chain?
Main zoonoses: Salmonella, Campylobacter, Avian Influenza. Transfer: Contamination can occur through infected hens, contaminated environments, or improper handling during collection, processing, and distribution stages of egg production.
489
What are the aspects of animal welfare, product quality, and food safety associated with different methods of egg production?
Animal welfare: Varied space allowance, environmental enrichment. Product quality: Shell integrity, nutritional content, egg size. Food safety: Reduced risk of microbial contamination, proper handling practices, and hygienic conditions in housing and handling.
490
What are the Veterinary Public Health issues concerning egg collection, transport, retailing, and home usage?
Issues: Potential for contamination during collection/transport, storage temperature control, risk of Salmonella transmission, and proper handling practices in homes leading to foodborne illnesses.
491
How do microbial safety management systems (e.g., GMP/GHP, HACCP) and Quality Assurance (QA) schemes (e.g., Lion code) contribute to egg production safety?
Microbial safety systems: GMP/GHP & HACCP identify hazards, control points, and ensure hygiene practices. QA schemes: Lion code emphasizes hen welfare, hygiene, and traceability from farm to retail, ensuring quality and safety standards are met.
492
What are common diseases in egg-laying hens and how do they affect egg safety and quality?
Common diseases: Infectious bronchitis, Newcastle disease, Egg Drop Syndrome. Impact: Diseases can cause reduced egg production, shell abnormalities, and potential transmission of pathogens to eggs.
493
What are the concerns regarding antibiotic usage in egg production and the potential residues in eggs?
Concerns: Antibiotic resistance, residual antibiotics in eggs, and their impact on human health. Regulations: Strict guidelines on antibiotic use, withdrawal periods, and testing for residues to ensure egg safety.
494
How does egg grading and packaging contribute to quality assurance in the egg production industry?
Grading: Sorting eggs by size, weight, and quality criteria. Packaging: Protects eggs, maintains freshness, and facilitates traceability, ensuring consumers receive quality eggs.
495
What are the environmental impacts associated with different egg production systems?
Caged Systems: High-density farming, waste accumulation, and resource consumption. Free-Range/Alternative Systems: Land use, emissions, and potential biodiversity impact. Sustainable Practices: Focus on reduced environmental footprint through efficient resource use and waste management.
496
How does consumer education contribute to ensuring egg safety at home?
Education: Proper handling, storage, and cooking methods to prevent foodborne illnesses. Risk reduction: Teaching consumers to recognize and discard damaged or contaminated eggs, ensuring safe consumption.
497
Discuss the environmental impact of livestock production, such as pollution of land, water, and air; and reduction of biodiversity in relation to the ‘One Health’ approach.
Livestock production significantly impacts the environment through land, water, and air pollution, leading to a decline in biodiversity. This affects the 'One Health' approach by intertwining animal, human, and environmental health.
498
What are some environmental impacts of livestock production in relation to the ‘One Health’ approach?
Livestock production leads to land, water, and air pollution, contributing to a reduction in biodiversity, affecting the interconnectedness of animal, human, and environmental health under the 'One Health' approach.
499
How does improper disposal of animal waste and carcasses impact public health and the environment?
: Improper disposal poses risks to environmental and public health, potentially causing pollution, disease outbreaks, and adverse effects on ecosystems, thus undermining the 'One Health' framework.
500
How does economics interact with livestock production?
Economics significantly influences livestock production, dictating practices, resource allocation, market dynamics, and outcomes for both producers and consumers.
501
Define the concepts of ‘negative externality’ and ‘public good’ in the context of livestock production.
A 'negative externality' refers to a cost affecting a third party due to economic activity, while a 'public good' represents a resource accessible to all without charge, both impacting societal welfare in livestock production.
502
What volume of waste does chicken production (USA) generate daily, and how does it affect the environment?
Chicken production in the USA generates approximately 1 million tonnes of manure daily (dry matter), significantly surpassing human waste and contributing to pollution of land and water, illustrating the environmental impact of large-scale farming practices.
503
What environmental impacts does industrialized poultry farming have?
industrialized poultry farming practices lead to significant pollution of ground and water through leakage, leaching, and run-off. This practice overwhelms the local ecosystem's capacity to process waste and contributes to a reduction in biodiversity.
504
What are the challenges associated with centralizing poultry production (fewer, larger farms)?
Centralization makes farms more vulnerable to disease outbreaks in animals and humans. It overwhelms local ecosystems, physically separates management from workers, impacting accountability and stewardship, and adversely affects the health and social well-being of rural communities.
505
How does poultry manure disposal impact UK public health, particularly concerning botulism outbreaks?
Poultry manure disposal, including botulism outbreaks in sheep and cattle, poses health risks in the UK. These outbreaks, occurring in healthy poultry, require strict disposal regulations, including burning, vaccination, and rodent control.
506
What emergency waste disposal considerations exist in crisis situations like Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD) outbreaks?
Crisis situations, such as FMD outbreaks, demand urgent waste disposal plans due to unexpected large quantities of waste. Considerations involve leadership, regulatory conflicts, disease control vs. pollution, multi-agency approval, communication, and contingency planning.
507
What technologies are available for poultry waste disposal, and what are their environmental impacts?
Various waste disposal technologies exist, such as rendering, incineration, composting, burial/landfill, fermentation (anaerobic digestion). Each has distinct environmental impacts ranging from energy use, pollution, pathogen inactivation, and groundwater contamination.
508
How does the UK address animal welfare in poultry production concerning economics and public health?
The UK incorporates animal welfare into policies like the Animal Welfare Act, considering animals as sentient beings. This perspective aligns with the 'One Health' approach, emphasizing the interconnectedness of animal welfare, public health, and the environment.
509
What role does higher welfare standards play in poultry production's economic and public health aspects?
Higher welfare standards in poultry production can enhance productivity to a certain extent, positively impacting the environment, human health, and animal welfare. However, the economic cost often isn't reflected in the price of meat, creating challenges in balancing costs and benefits.
510
Define the 'One Health' approach in relation to optimal health for people, animals, and the environment.
The 'One Health' approach is a collaborative effort among various disciplines aiming for optimal health outcomes for people, animals, and the environment, integrating multiple sectors to achieve public health goals.
511
Why is the 'One Health' approach essential and who are the key contributors?
The 'One Health' approach is applicable to various situations, especially in addressing zoonotic diseases like Salmonella. Contributors include core professionals like medics, vets, scientists, as well as social scientists, mathematicians, government bodies, NGOs, and the general public, depending on the activity level.
512
What are some key environmental impacts of livestock production in terms of ecology, energy, air, soil, water, and biodiversity?
Livestock production significantly affects biodiversity, landscape degradation, energy consumption, air and soil pollution (including greenhouse gas emissions), water contamination, and reduction in biodiversity.
513
How does livestock production contribute to air pollution and what are the main components?
Livestock production contributes to air pollution, generating greenhouse gases such as CO2, CH4, N2O, and NH3, with specific percentages associated with each gas.
514
What are the implications of water pollution caused by meat production, and what measures exist to address it?
Meat production, particularly from ruminants, accounts for significant water usage, contributing to water pollution through nitrate and phosphate leaching. Measures like the EU Nitrates Directive and Nitrate Vulnerable Zones aim to limit this pollution by regulating nutrient loading in fields.
515
How does the disproportionate production of greenhouse gases in agriculture relate to energy consumption?
Although agriculture consumes around 2-3% of total energy, it disproportionally produces approximately 20% of greenhouse gases, heavily relying on fossil fuels for operations like fertilizer use, with larger farms being more dependent on these fuels, particularly in meat production.
516
What are some risks associated with the reduction in biodiversity due to agricultural practices, and how does it impact human and animal health?
Reduced biodiversity in agriculture increases susceptibility to pests and diseases, creates fluctuations in feed and food supply, leads to the extinction of potentially beneficial species, and encourages the emergence of new pathogens, posing risks to human and animal health.
517
Summarize the key environmental damages caused by farming and the measures in place to limit this damage.
Farming contributes to pollution of air, water, and soil, resource consumption, and reduced biodiversity. Some measures, like the Nitrates Directive, aim to limit damage, while solutions such as drip irrigation could reduce water usage, leaching, and costs, albeit with higher initial capital investment.
518
: What are some environmental impacts associated with livestock production concerning biodiversity, energy, and pollution?
Livestock production significantly affects biodiversity through land clearance, landscape degradation, and selective breeding practices. It also contributes to energy consumption and pollution of air, soil, and water.
519
Explain the implications of air pollution resulting from livestock production, specifying the greenhouse gases involved.
Livestock production contributes to air pollution, releasing greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and ammonia (NH3), which impact climate change and air quality.
520
Describe the consequences of soil pollution caused by agricultural practices and the elements contributing to this pollution.
Agricultural activities lead to soil pollution through factors like the use of agricultural chemicals, compaction, veterinary medicines, antibiotics, feed crops, heavy metals, erosion, and increased water runoff, impacting soil structure, ecology, and contamination.
521
Discuss the significant aspects related to water pollution resulting from meat production in agriculture.
Meat production, especially from ruminants, utilizes a considerable amount of water, contributing significantly to water pollution through leaching of nitrates and phosphates. This pollution affects freshwater resources, necessitating regulatory measures like the EU Nitrates Directive.
522
Explain the correlation between energy consumption in agriculture and its disproportionate production of greenhouse gases.
Although agriculture's energy consumption is relatively low (about 2-3%), it disproportionately produces a significant share (around 20%) of greenhouse gases, largely due to heavy reliance on fossil fuels, particularly in operations such as fertilizer use in larger farms.
523
Describe the risks associated with reduced biodiversity in agriculture and its impacts on human health and food supply.
Reduced biodiversity in agriculture elevates the risk of increased susceptibility to pests and diseases, creates fluctuations in food supply, leads to the extinction of potentially beneficial species, and can result in the emergence of new pathogens, impacting human health and food security.
524
What is the significance of biodiversity loss in the context of poultry farming, and how does it impact ecosystems?
Biodiversity loss due to poultry farming practices leads to landscape degradation, soil erosion, and the depletion of species diversity, impacting ecosystems' resilience and stability.
525
Explain the 'One Health' approach's role in mitigating zoonotic diseases within the poultry industry.
The 'One Health' approach involves collaborative efforts among veterinarians, environmental scientists, public health officials, and other professionals to prevent, detect, and respond to zoonotic diseases originating from poultry, ensuring comprehensive health interventions for both animals and humans.
526
How do economic factors influence the adoption of sustainable practices in poultry production?
: Economic incentives play a pivotal role in encouraging sustainable practices in poultry production. Subsidies, regulations, and market demands can incentivize farmers to adopt eco-friendly measures, impacting waste management, resource utilization, and animal welfare.
527
Discuss the strategies employed in poultry waste management to mitigate environmental impact.
Poultry waste management strategies encompass various approaches like composting, anaerobic digestion, and controlled disposal methods to reduce pollution, control pathogens, and minimize adverse environmental impacts while ensuring effective resource utilization.
528
Elaborate on the role of government policies in regulating environmental impact and animal welfare standards in poultry farming.
Government policies and regulations set standards for waste disposal, animal welfare, and environmental protection in poultry farming. These policies aim to mitigate pollution, enhance animal welfare, and ensure sustainable practices within the industry.
529
How does the concept of 'negative externality' relate to the environmental impact of intensive poultry production?
Intensive poultry production often leads to negative externalities, where the cost of environmental damage caused by production practices, such as pollution and resource depletion, is borne by society at large, not directly by producers.
530
Explain the concept of 'public good' as it applies to animal welfare standards in poultry farming.
'Public good' in poultry farming refers to animal welfare measures that benefit society as a whole, contributing to healthier ecosystems, reduced disease transmission, and improved overall public health outcomes by ensuring better living conditions for animals.
531
What are the main biochemical and physical processes during the conversion of muscle to meat?
The main processes include rigor mortis, glycogen-lactic acid conversion, and changes in myoglobin. Rigor mortis signifies muscle stiffening and loss of extensibility post-death, while glycogen-lactic acid conversion and myoglobin changes affect meat color and quality.
532
What are some ante-mortem and post-mortem factors that negatively affect meat quality?
Ante-mortem factors such as physical stress or disease depleting muscle glycogen stores can lead to early rigor mortis and high muscle pH. Post-mortem factors like excessive chilling causing cold shortening or rapid acidification affecting meat pH can also impact meat quality.
533
How is meat quality assessed?
Meat quality assessment involves evaluating various criteria such as color, drip loss, tenderness, aging/conditioning degree, and flavor. These factors provide insights into the texture, freshness, and overall palatability of the meat.
534
What are the principles for assessing carcass quality in cattle, pigs, and sheep?
Carcass quality assessment in livestock involves considering factors like age, weight, fat content, and conformation-related classes. This evaluation helps determine the compositional and physical properties of the carcass.
535
What role does ATP play in muscle contraction and relaxation?
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is essential for muscle contraction and relaxation. It is generated when needed and comes from three sources: oxidative phosphorylation, direct phosphorylation by creatine phosphate, and anaerobic glycolysis.
536
What is rigor mortis, and what causes it?
Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles after death, caused by the irreversible locking of myosin heads onto actin filaments when ATP is depleted, leading to a rigid structure in the muscle.
537
How does the resolution of rigor affect meat tenderness?
: After rigor mortis, the progressive softening of muscles occurs due to endogenous proteases like calpains and cathepsins. This resolution phase contributes to meat tenderization.
538
What are PSE and DFD meats, and how do they differ?
PSE (Pale Soft Exudative) meat is abnormally pale, has high drip loss, and might be tougher. DFD (Dark Firm Dry) meat is abnormally dark, spoils rapidly, might be more tender, and has less weight loss during cooking.
539
How does pH affect water holding capacity in meat?
pH influences the charged state of muscle proteins, impacting their ability to retain water. Meat with pH around 5.2 has higher water holding capacity, while extremes in pH can lead to drip loss in PSE or DFD meat.
540
What factors influence meat color and juiciness?
Myoglobin content, pH level, and fat content impact meat color, while tenderness and succulence (juiciness) are influenced by fat and moisture levels in cooked meat.
541
542
What are the three sources of ATP production in muscle metabolism, and how do they contribute?
ATP in muscles is generated through oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria, direct phosphorylation by creatine phosphate, and anaerobic glycolysis. These processes contribute to supplying energy for muscle function at different intensities of activity.
543
How do factors like fiber type composition and pre/post-slaughter conditions influence meat quality?
Fiber type composition affects ATP production, consumption, and pH fall in muscles, with fast muscles being more prone to issues like Pale Soft Exudative (PSE) meat. Pre-slaughter factors like stress or disease and post-slaughter conditions such as chilling rate affect glycogen stores and pH, impacting meat quality.
544
Explain the role of endogenous proteases in the resolution of rigor and tenderization of meat.
Endogenous proteases like calpains and cathepsins play a crucial role in the resolution of rigor by breaking down muscle proteins post-mortem, contributing to the tenderization of meat during the aging process.
545
How does conditioning or aging impact flavor development in meat?
During conditioning, proteins break down into amino acids and fats into aromatic fatty acids, contributing to the development of meaty flavor. Compounds like glutamic acid and inosinic acid further enhance flavor, while prolonged aging risks fat oxidation and a rancid odor.
546
What methods are used to improve meat tenderness, and how do they work?
Techniques like needle/blade tenderization, enzyme treatments (e.g., papain, bromelain), marination, or stretching through methods like hip suspension help break down muscle fibers, making meat more tender.
547
What is cold shortening, and how can it be prevented?
Cold shortening occurs when rapid chilling of meat below 10°C before rigor mortis leads to excessive release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, causing muscles to shorten. To prevent it, specific temperature guidelines for chilling beef, lamb, and pork are followed.
548
What are the main parameters used to assess physical/eating properties of meat quality?
Parameters include dark cutting beef (DCB) or Dark Firm Dry (DFD) pork, water holding capacity, color, succulence/juiciness, and boar taint. These interrelated factors determine the overall quality of the meat.
549
Explain the differences between Pale Soft Exudative (PSE) and Dark Firm Dry (DFD) meat.
PSE meat is abnormally pale with high drip loss, potentially tougher and less juicy upon cooking. In contrast, DFD meat is abnormally dark, spoils rapidly, may be more tender, and retains more moisture during cooking.
550
How does pH influence water holding capacity in meat?
Muscle proteins lose their charge between pH 5.1 and 5.5, leading to water release. Meat with a pH near 5.2 has higher water holding capacity, while extreme pH levels affect water retention, leading to drip loss in PSE or DFD meat.
551
What methods are used for carcass classification in cattle, pigs, and sheep
Carcass classification involves assessing factors such as fatness, conformation, weight, and composition. Systems like the EUROP Beef Classification Grid, USDA beef carcass quality grading, and specific weight-based classes for pigs and sheep are employed.
552
What measures can be taken to mitigate boar taint in pigs, and what causes it?
Boar taint, an unpleasant odor in boars or some pigs, is caused by compounds like androstenone and skatole. Measures to mitigate it include castration, avoiding overcrowding, using slatted floors to reduce contamination, and early slaughter of males.
553
Describe the EUROP Sheep Classification Grid and its significance in carcass assessment.
The EUROP Sheep Classification Grid is a system that categorizes sheep carcasses based on factors like fatness and conformation. It helps assess and classify carcasses for quality and market purposes in the European Union.
554
What is the AutoFom Ultrasound Scanner, and how is it used in carcass grading?
The AutoFom Ultrasound Scanner is an automatic carcass grading system that generates a digitized 3-D image to measure muscle, fat, and bone distribution. It's used in the US and Europe to provide accurate information for carcass quality assessment and can process a large number of carcasses quickly.
555
Explain the USDA beef carcass quality grading system used in the United States.
he USDA beef carcass grading system assesses beef carcasses based on factors like marbling, maturity, color, and texture to assign quality grades ranging from Prime to Canner.
556
What are the benefits and drawbacks of electrical stimulation (ES) in meat processing?
ES in beef and lamb prevents cold shortening, improves tenderness, color, and texture but might not benefit dark cutting beef. It's not routinely used in pig carcasses due to the risk of inducing PSE (Pale Soft Exudative) meat.
557
How do physical properties like tenderness, succulence, and color affect consumer perception of meat quality?
Tenderness, succulence, and color significantly influence consumer perception of meat quality. More tender, juicy, and visually appealing meat is often preferred and considered of higher quality.
558
Describe the principles of beef carcase authentication and verification services in the UK
Beef carcase authentication and verification services ensure the quality and authenticity of beef by assessing factors like composition, physical properties, and eating qualities to meet market standards.
559
How do stress and handling of animals before slaughter affect meat quality?
Stress and poor handling before slaughter can deplete muscle glycogen, impacting post-mortem processes like pH changes and rigor mortis, thus affecting meat quality and tenderness.
560
Explain the significance of water holding capacity in meat processing and its impact on final product quality.
Water holding capacity affects the yield and quality of processed meat products. High water holding capacity leads to less drip loss, ensuring higher quality and cost-effective meat processing.
561
Discuss the role of enzymes like papain, bromelain, and ficin in meat tenderization.
Enzymes like papain, bromelain, and ficin break down muscle proteins, specifically collagen, contributing to meat tenderization, often used as a method to improve meat quality.
562
What are the Five Freedoms used to assess bird welfare?
They include freedom from hunger & thirst, discomfort, pain, injury & disease, fear & distress, and freedom to express normal behavior.
563
What legislation defines legal responsibilities for poultry welfare in the UK?
uropean legislation like Council regulations (EC) 1/2005, Directives 64/432/EEC, 93/119/EC, along with national laws like the Animal Welfare Act 2006, Welfare of Farmed Animals (England/Wales) Regulations 2007, and Welfare of Animals (Transport) England Order 2006.
564
What are the aims of ante-mortem inspection in poultry?
To verify animal identification, welfare, and any condition that may affect human or animal health.
565
: How does the Food Chain Information (FCI) contribute to food safety in the poultry industry?
FCI provides crucial details about the animals procured for slaughter, aiding slaughterhouse operators' food safety management systems by informing them of diseases, medication, and other relevant data.
566
What are the welfare concerns during the transport of poultry?
These include handling issues, social disruption, food/water withdrawal, motion/vibration, noise, confinement, thermal challenges, and more.
567
What are the common notifiable diseases in poultry?
Notifiable diseases include Avian Influenza and Newcastle Disease, which may show sudden death, respiratory signs, and other distinct clinical signs.
568
How does mechanized harvesting impact poultry welfare during transportation?
: It may reduce labor costs and injuries but might decrease catching speed, potentially affecting the birds' stress levels.
569
What are the main aspects covered in ante-mortem inspection at the farm?
Tidiness/cleanliness, records, feeding/vaccination programs, mortality patterns, bird health, and environmental conditions (litter, ventilation, light).
570
Why is thermal stress a concern during the transport of poultry?
Poultry's inability to regulate body temperature adequately under different transport conditions can lead to stress, impacting their welfare and meat quality.
571
What guidelines or legislative frameworks define welfare practices in the poultry industry?
Recommendations include codes from Defra, Animal Welfare Committee advice, and standards set by organizations like RSPCA Freedom Foods and the Humane Slaughter Association.
572
How does the poultry industry contribute to meeting the expanding world population's food needs?
Poultry offers a higher conversion rate, lower investment (land use), and meets the demands of a growing population able to afford meat.
573
What is the significance of the monthly and annual poultry slaughter statistics?
These statistics provide insights into the scale of poultry production and the challenges related to handling, transport, and welfare across different periods.
574
What are the welfare challenges during lairage in the poultry industry?
Lairage poses challenges related to animal handling, welfare practices, and the overall stress experienced by birds before slaughter.
575
How do depopulation/harvesting practices impact poultry welfare?
Birds face stress due to genetic selection issues, handling challenges, and departure from their usual environment, potentially resulting in injuries and compromised welfare.
576
What are the key concerns during the transport of end-of-lay hens?
Poor feathering reducing thermal tolerance, vulnerability to weather conditions, and increased risk of heat or cold stress due to decreased regulatory abilities.
577
What does the Collection and Communication of Inspection Results (CCIR) system aim to achieve?
It aims to provide valuable information to farmers and veterinarians, ensuring prompt action if any welfare or health concerns are detected during inspections.
578
How do handling and transportation affect poultry welfare during the end-of-lay period?
Reduced thermal tolerance due to poor feathering, increased vulnerability to weather conditions, and physiological fatigue can compromise welfare during transpor
579
What resources or regulations guide poultry welfare practices?
Guidance comes from legislation like the Welfare of Animals (Transport) England Order 2006, codes from Defra, Animal Welfare Committee reports, and standards from organizations like RSPCA Freedom Foods.
580
What are the main aspects covered in the Food Chain Information (FCI) for poultry?
FCI includes details like the farm of origin, intended slaughter date, bird numbers, mortality, diseases, medications given, previous post-mortem results, etc.
581
What is the purpose of the Animal Welfare Act 2006 in the context of poultry welfare?
The Act outlines legal responsibilities concerning animal welfare, including poultry, ensuring humane treatment and care.
582
How do poultry welfare standards ensure animal well-being during transportation and handling?
Standards emphasize the importance of proper training, competent handling, and consideration for the birds' welfare to minimize pain and suffering.
583
What are the significant welfare challenges during the transportation of broilers?
Broilers are susceptible to heat stress and dehydration due to genetic selection for muscle growth, impacting both welfare and meat quality.
584
Why is thermal stress a concern during the transport of day-old chicks and pullets?
Thermal stress can compromise welfare due to inadequate temperature control and air mixing issues, impacting chicks' and pullets' ability to regulate body temperature.
585
What are the main components included in Food Chain Information (FCI) for poultry?
FCI details farm origin, intended slaughter date, bird numbers, mortality rates, diseases diagnosed, medications administered, and previous post-mortem results.
586
What are the primary notifiable diseases in poultry, and how are they identified?
Avian Influenza and Newcastle Disease are key notifiable diseases, often identified through sudden death, respiratory signs, or specific clinical symptoms.
587
What are the guidelines for responsible handling of visibly unfit or injured birds during transportation?
Unfit or injured birds should not be loaded for transport and instead should receive prompt veterinary treatment or be humanely dispatched on the farm.
588
How does the European legislation Council regulation (EC) 1/2005 impact poultry welfare?
The legislation outlines guidelines and requirements for the protection of animals during transport, emphasizing proper handling and welfare considerations.
589
What are the implications of thermal stress on poultry during transportation, especially in passively ventilated transporters?
Thermal stress may result from poor ventilation distribution, leading to localized 'hot-spots' or 'cold-spots', impacting birds' ability to regulate body temperature.
590
What is the role of the Welfare of Animals at the Time of Killing (WATOK) (2015) legislation in poultry welfare?
WATOK sets standards for humane treatment during the killing process, emphasizing the need for competent and caring handling to minimize distress.
591
How do various industry guidelines, such as those provided by Defra and the Humane Slaughter Association, contribute to poultry welfare?
These guidelines offer recommendations and best practices for catching, handling, and transportation to ensure the welfare of poultry throughout the process.
592
How do noise, novelty, and confinement impact poultry welfare during transportation?
These factors contribute to stress and discomfort during transportation, affecting the birds' well-being and potentially leading to injuries or distress.
593
What are the significant welfare challenges for spent hens during depopulation/harvesting, and how do different systems affect them?
Spent hens face challenges related to poor feathering, skeletal damage, and increased vulnerability to injuries during removal, varying based on housing systems.
594
What role does the Official Veterinarian (OV) play in ensuring food safety using Food Chain Information (FCI)?
The OV analyzes FCI provided by the Food Business Operator (FBO) to assess the health status of the animals procured for slaughter, aiding in food safety management.
595
How do handling rates during catching impact the welfare of poultry, particularly broilers?
High catching rates may lead to injuries such as bruising, fractures, or dislocations, significantly affecting broilers' welfare before transportation.
596
What are the welfare considerations during lairage in the poultry industry?
Lairage involves ensuring appropriate housing and handling of birds pre-slaughter, minimizing stress and maintaining welfare before the final phase of processing.
597
What role does thermal comfort play in the transport of end-of-lay hens, and how does it affect their welfare?
Thermal comfort is crucial, as these birds have reduced thermal tolerance due to poor feathering, making them vulnerable to cold and wet conditions
598
How does the 'All-in, all-out' practice impact the welfare of broilers in the poultry industry?
The practice ensures a controlled environment for broilers, minimizing stress factors such as noise and social disruption, contributing positively to their welfare.
599
What practices contribute to maintaining hygienic standards during the dressing and chilling of poultry?
Proper dressing and chilling techniques, including washing carcasses, chilling to specific temperatures, and allowing maturation periods post-processing.
600
Describe the slaughter process of poultry in abattoirs.
It involves stunning, bleeding, scalding, defeathering, evisceration, inspection, washing, carcass classification, chilling, packing, portioning, and labeling.
601
What are the welfare considerations during stunning and slaughter of poultry?
Ensuring effective stunning methods and minimizing pain and distress during slaughter, which includes techniques like electrical water bath or gas stunning.
602
What are the responsibilities of an Animal Welfare Officer (AWO) in a poultry abattoir?
To prioritize animal slaughter, identify welfare needs, implement interventions to improve welfare, and maintain records of actions taken.
603
What factors are crucial to consider during lairage and shackling in poultry handling?
Minimizing waiting times, controlling temperature and humidity in lairage areas, ensuring appropriate shackling size, and avoiding painful inversion and shackling.
604
What are the advantages and potential issues associated with controlled atmosphere stunning in poultry abattoirs?
Advantages include eliminating live shackling and ensuring all birds are stunned, but it can lead to initial aversion, respiratory and behavioral effects, and potential human errors.
605
What are the key responsibilities of Official Controls in poultry processing?
Overseeing the post-mortem inspection, washing, carcass classification, chilling, packaging, portioning, labeling, and ensuring compliance with food hygiene standards.
606
How are stunning methods regulated in poultry abattoirs according to European Legislation and Welfare of Animals at the Time of Killing (WATOK)?
They must result in minimal signs of agitation and distress before unconsciousness and should comply with specific regulations regarding stunning techniques.
607
What measures are in place for small-scale slaughter of birds in terms of disease control and emergency welfare killing?
Percussive devices are used for limited numbers or emergency purposes, followed by approved slaughter methods such as cervical dislocation for routine processing.
608
What are the implications of poor hygiene and welfare breaches in poultry processing plants?
Breaches can lead to fines, health hazards, and compromised consumer trust, as seen in cases reported by authorities and industry news sources.
609
What resources are suggested for further study on poultry inspection and meat processing?
Books like "Poultry Inspection" by A. Grist and "Wilson's Practical Meat Inspection" by W. G. Wilson offer comprehensive insights into poultry inspection and meat processing.
610
What regulations govern the welfare of animals during slaughter in European Legislation and UK laws?
European Legislation (EC 1099/2009) and the Welfare of Animals at the Time of Killing (WATOK) 2015 in the UK outline specific requirements for animal welfare during slaughter.
611
What are the responsibilities of personnel certified under the Certificate of Competence for poultry slaughter and handling?
Certified individuals are responsible for animal handling, stunning, checking effectiveness, shackling, bleeding, religious slaughter, pithing, and post-activity checks.
612
What considerations are crucial during lairage to maintain optimal conditions for poultry awaiting slaughter?
Minimizing waiting times, controlling ventilation, temperature, humidity, and ensuring adequate space for species-specific needs.
613
How does electrical stunning in poultry abattoirs ensure effective stunning, and what problems can occur?
Electrical stunning aims for unconsciousness lasting longer than the time taken for brain death from bleeding, but issues may include inadequately stunned birds or pre-stun shocks.
614
Describe the process of controlled atmosphere stunning in poultry abattoirs and its benefits.
Controlled atmosphere stunning uses gas methods to render birds unconscious, eliminating live shackling and ensuring all birds are stunned, thus improving working conditions and meat quality.
615
What methods are used for stunning in poultry abattoirs and what are their specific requirements?
Methods include electrical stunning (water bath), controlled atmosphere stunning (various gas mixtures), with each method having distinct operational requirements for effectiveness.
616
What are the key steps involved in the slaughter process of poultry from bleeding to evisceration?
After bleeding, the process includes scalding, defeathering, official controls, head and hock cutting, evisceration, washing, carcass classification, and chilling.
617
How does the Animal Welfare Officer contribute to maintaining animal welfare standards in a poultry abattoir?
AWOs prioritize slaughter, identify welfare needs, implement interventions to improve welfare, and maintain records of actions taken to enhance welfare.
618
Describe the post-mortem phase in poultry processing and its significance.
Post-mortem involves washing, carcass classification, chilling, packing, portioning, labeling, ensuring compliance with food hygiene standards, and preparing the meat for distribution.
619
What are the implications of poor hygiene and welfare breaches in poultry processing plants for the industry and consumers?
Breaches can lead to fines, health risks, loss of consumer trust, and negative publicity, affecting the reputation and safety standards of the poultry industry.
620
What is the process of routine post-mortem inspection in poultry processing and when does it occur?
Post-mortem inspection occurs after defeathering (whole carcass) and after evisceration (carcass and offal) by either the Official Veterinarian (OV) or a meat inspector.
621
What are the duties of the Official Veterinarian (OV) during post-mortem inspection in poultry processing?
The OV conducts daily inspections of viscera and body cavities in a sample of birds, thoroughly inspects birds unfit for human consumption, and investigates suspicious cases affecting meat safety.
622
What does the EU broiler welfare Directive 2007/43/EC aim to monitor regarding on-farm broiler welfare?
It monitors animal-based outcome parameters like cumulative daily mortality rate and seven post-mortem conditions to identify potential on-farm welfare issues.
623
What are the trigger levels set by the EU Directive for post-mortem conditions in broiler welfare monitoring?
Trigger levels are set for conditions like ascites, cellulitis, dead on arrival, emaciation, joint lesions, respiratory problems, and total rejections to prompt action from APHA if thresholds are exceeded.
624
How does the trigger system work for post-mortem conditions, and what actions does it prompt if conditions exceed set thresholds?
The system automatically generates reports for confirmation by the OV if trigger levels are breached, alerting the keeper and APHA for potential investigation or the implementation of health plans.
625
What conditions might lead to partial rejection in poultry post-mortem inspection?
Partial rejection might occur due to localized contamination, mechanical damage, resolved sub-acute pericarditis, or when only part of the carcass or a single organ is affected.
626
When does total rejection of poultry carcasses occur during post-mortem inspection?
Total rejection happens in the absence of ante-mortem or production reports, disease presence, impractical gross contamination, severe pericarditis, or Salmonella infection in the FCI.
627
What are the key post-mortem conditions related to equipment problems and other anomalies found during poultry post-mortem inspection?
Conditions include uncut-badly bled, bruising/fractures, overscald, machine damage, and other issues like airsaculitis, cellulitis, contamination, and septicaemia, among others.
628
Why is monitoring of Salmonella significant in post-mortem inspections, and what relevance does it hold?
Salmonella monitoring in the FCI is crucial for meat safety and human health, influencing post-mortem outcomes based on its presence/absence in lab results from farms.
629
Describe the process of routine post-mortem inspection in poultry processing. When does it occur, and who conducts it?
Post-mortem inspection occurs after defeathering (whole carcass) and after evisceration (carcass and offal) by either the Official Veterinarian (OV) or a meat inspector.
630
What are the duties of the Official Veterinarian (OV) during post-mortem inspection in poultry processing?
The OV conducts daily inspections of viscera and body cavities in a sample of birds, thoroughly inspects birds unfit for human consumption, and investigates suspicious cases affecting meat safety.
631
What is monitored under the EU broiler welfare Directive 2007/43/EC, and what conditions trigger action from APHA?
The Directive monitors animal-based outcome parameters and seven post-mortem conditions like ascites, cellulitis, dead on arrival, etc., which, if exceeded, trigger action from APHA.
632
Explain the function of the trigger system in post-mortem conditions for broiler welfare monitoring and the actions it prompts.
The trigger system generates reports for OV confirmation if conditions breach thresholds, alerting keepers and APHA for potential investigations or health plans.
633
What conditions might lead to partial rejection in poultry post-mortem inspection?
Partial rejection might occur due to localized contamination, mechanical damage, resolved sub-acute pericarditis, or when only part of the carcass or a single organ is affected.
634
When does total rejection of poultry carcasses occur during post-mortem inspection?
Total rejection occurs in the absence of ante-mortem or production reports, disease presence, impractical gross contamination, severe pericarditis, or Salmonella infection in the FCI.
635
What are the key post-mortem conditions related to equipment problems and other anomalies found during poultry post-mortem inspection?
Conditions include uncut-badly bled, bruising/fractures, overscald, machine damage, and other issues like airsaculitis, cellulitis, contamination, and septicaemia, among others.
636
Why is monitoring of Salmonella significant in post-mortem inspections, and what relevance does it hold?
Salmonella monitoring in the FCI is crucial for meat safety and human health, influencing post-mortem outcomes based on its presence/absence in lab results from farms.
637
Define Aquaculture and its significance.
Aquaculture is the farming of aquatic organisms, including fish, molluscs, crustaceans, and aquatic plants. It's the fastest-growing animal food-producing sector and supplied about half of the globally consumed fish in 2010.
638
What are the approximate production figures for UK Salmon and Rainbow Trout?
UK Salmon production: around 190,000 tons; UK Rainbow Trout production: approximately 17,000 tons.
639
What are the different types of aquaculture systems based on water type and nature of the system?
: Water type includes freshwater, marine, and brackish water production; Nature of the system ranges from ponds (lowest intensity) to recirculating aquaculture systems (highest intensity).
640
Why is fish welfare important in aquaculture, and what are Operational Welfare Indicators (OWIs)?
Good fish welfare leads to less stress, disease susceptibility, and dependence on medication, resulting in better growth rates and higher-quality products. OWIs are measurable parameters indicating fish welfare, either direct (observable changes in fish) or indirect (environmental factors affecting fish).
641
Give examples of Direct and Indirect Operational Welfare Indicators (OWIs) in aquaculture.
Indirect OWIs include water quality parameters, lighting, feed quality/load, and stocking density. Direct OWIs comprise mortality rates, behavior, appetite, growth, and physical conditions of individual fish.
642
What are some global and UK regulatory bodies or standards involved in fish welfare in aquaculture?
Globally: FAO's Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries, Aquaculture Stewardship Council, Global GAP; UK: RSPCA Assured, SSPO Code of Good Practice.
643
How does good fish welfare impact aquaculture, and why are Operational Welfare Indicators (OWIs) significant?
Good fish welfare leads to reduced stress, disease susceptibility, and dependence on medication, resulting in improved growth rates and higher-quality products. OWIs are essential as they provide measurable parameters that indicate fish welfare, enabling farmers to assess and enhance the well-being of aquatic species.
644
What are the key types of aquaculture systems based on water type and intensity?
Aquaculture systems differ based on water type (freshwater, marine, brackish water) and intensity, ranging from ponds (least intense) to recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) (most intensive).
645
How can we evaluate the welfare of fish in aquaculture, and what are some examples of Direct and Indirect Operational Welfare Indicators (OWIs)?
Fish welfare in aquaculture can be assessed using parameters such as water quality, mortality rates, behavior, appetite, and physical conditions of individual fish. Direct OWIs include observable changes in fish, while indirect OWIs encompass environmental factors influencing fish welfare.
646
What are some global regulatory bodies or standards involved in promoting responsible fish farming practices?
Globally recognized standards include FAO's Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries, Aquaculture Stewardship Council, and Global GAP, which aim to ensure sustainable and ethical practices in aquaculture.
647
What factors are considered essential for ensuring good animal welfare in aquaculture?
Good animal welfare in aquaculture involves maintaining the normal biological functioning, emotional state, and ability to express natural behaviors of aquatic species.
648
Apart from fish, which other aquatic species might have welfare concerns in aquaculture?
Crustaceans (such as decapods) and molluscs might also face welfare concerns in aquaculture. While fish are protected under the Animal Welfare Act 2006, invertebrates like decapod crustaceans lack similar protection.
649
What parameters qualify as good Operational Welfare Indicators (OWIs), and why are they important in assessing fish welfare?
Good OWIs are clearly defined, relevant, practical, reliable, and validated for the species and production system. They are crucial as they provide measurable benchmarks to gauge and enhance fish welfare.
650
What are the various methods used in Aquatic Animal Production, and how do they differ?
Aquatic Animal Production methods include extensive systems like pond culture, semi-intensive systems such as cage culture, and intensive systems like recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS). Extensive systems rely on natural processes, semi-intensive involve controlled environments with some reliance on natural resources, while intensive systems offer high control and minimal environmental dependency.
651
How does aquaculture impact the environment, and what measures are taken to mitigate these impacts?
Aquaculture can lead to issues like waste discharge, habitat modification, and disease transmission. Strategies to mitigate these include improved waste management, site rotation, use of probiotics, and water treatment technologies to minimize environmental impact.
652
What technological innovations have improved modern aquaculture practices?
Advancements such as automated feeding systems, sensor-based monitoring, genetic selection for disease resistance, and sustainable feed formulations have revolutionized aquaculture, improving efficiency and sustainability.
653
What are the primary challenges faced in ensuring optimal welfare for aquatic animals in commercial settings?
Challenges include accurately assessing fish stress, understanding complex fish behaviors, adapting welfare indicators across diverse species, and ensuring ethical considerations in an industry with various cultural and geographic practices.
654
How crucial are biosecurity measures in aquaculture, and what strategies are employed to maintain it?
Biosecurity is vital to prevent disease outbreaks. Measures involve strict entry controls, quarantine procedures, vaccination programs, and sanitation practices to minimize disease spread and maintain animal health.
655
What initiatives or practices contribute to sustainable aquaculture, and why are they important?
Sustainable aquaculture focuses on minimizing environmental impact, optimizing resource use, and ensuring social responsibility. Practices such as Integrated Multi-Trophic Aquaculture (IMTA), eco-certifications, and responsible feed sourcing promote sustainable operations, meeting the increasing demand for seafood without degrading ecosystems.
656
: How does genetic selection impact the aquaculture industry, and what are its benefits?
Genetic selection for desirable traits like growth rate, disease resistance, and feed conversion efficiency has improved production yields and sustainability, contributing to the development of more resilient and high-yielding aquatic species.
657
What are the anticipated future trends or advancements expected in the field of Aquatic Animal Production?
Anticipated trends include further automation, precision aquaculture through AI and big data, greater emphasis on circular economy principles, development of novel aquafeeds, and increased integration of aquaculture into the broader food systems to meet the growing demand for high-quality protein sources.
658
: How can aquaculture practices impact public health?
Aquaculture can impact public health through water pollution from increased organic loads and antimicrobial resistance (AMR) in aquatic environments, leading to potential spread of pathogens and AMR bacteria.
659
What non-infectious contaminants can be found in aquatic products, and what health risks do they pose?
Aquatic products might contain veterinary residues, heavy metals (Cd, Hg, Pb), organochlorine pesticides, and biological toxins like shellfish poisoning toxins, posing health risks upon consumption.
660
What pathogenic organisms cause food and waterborne diseases from consuming aquatic products, and what are the associated health risks?
Pathogens such as Clostridium botulinum, Vibrio parahaemolyticus, Salmonella spp., Escherichia coli, and Listeria monocytogenes can cause gastroenteritis and other health issues if aquatic products are contaminated.
661
What are the zoonotic diseases that can be transmitted from fish to humans, and what health implications do they have?
Bacterial diseases like Aeromonas spp., Vibrio spp., and Mycobacterium spp., as well as parasites such as trematodes, nematodes, and cestodes, can lead to various health concerns in humans.
662
Describe the health risks associated with specific zoonotic diseases like Mycobacteriosis, Diphyllobothrium spp., and Anisakiasis from fish consumption.
Mycobacteriosis can cause skin lesions in humans; Diphyllobothrium spp. may cause infections unless properly cooked, and Anisakiasis results from ingesting larvae in raw or undercooked fish.
663
What are some key challenges in assessing and managing health in aquaculture, as observed in practical situations?
Challenges include endemic diseases, antimicrobial resistance, biosecurity concerns, water quality management, and the lack of adequate fish health infrastructure and regulations.
664
Describe the observations and challenges identified during a consultancy in the Rainbow Trout sector in Georgia.
The farm faced challenges related to endemic diseases, biosecurity risks from untreated inlet water, mixed species farming, and lacked sufficient fish health infrastructure and training.
665
What are the potential hazards to public health arising from farming in shared aquatic environments?
Farming in aquatic environments can lead to pollution, increased organic loads promoting pathogen survival, and the spread of antimicrobial resistance (AMR), posing risks to public health.
666
How do non-infectious contaminants affect aquatic products, and what measures can mitigate these risks?
Aquatic products might contain residues of pesticides, heavy metals, and biological toxins. Effective measures include strict monitoring, testing, and proper processing to minimize health risks.
667
How does antimicrobial resistance (AMR) arise in aquaculture, and what risks does it pose to public health?
AMR develops due to overuse of antibiotics in aquaculture, leading to resistant bacterial strains that can be transmitted to humans, potentially causing treatment challenges in infections.
668
How does pollution from aquaculture activities impact public health, and what measures can mitigate these effects?
Aquaculture-related pollution, including organic loads and chemical runoff, affects water quality, potentially leading to health issues for nearby communities. Mitigation involves proper waste management and ecosystem-friendly practices.
669
What are the non-infectious contaminants found in aquatic products, and how can consumers minimize associated health risks?
Contaminants like heavy metals, pesticides, and toxins can be present. Consumers can reduce risks by purchasing products from regulated sources, proper cooking, and following food safety guidelines.
670
Which foodborne pathogens can be present in aquatic products, and what preventive measures can consumers take?
Pathogens like Vibrio spp., Salmonella spp., and Listeria monocytogenes may contaminate aquatic products. Consumers should ensure proper cooking and storage to mitigate risks.
671
What zoonotic parasites are associated with fish, and how can aquaculture practices manage these risks?
Parasites like Anisakis spp. and Diphyllobothrium spp. can affect humans. Farm biosecurity, proper processing, and educating consumers about safe consumption practices help manage these risks.
672
What are the major public health challenges specific to aquaculture, and what strategies can improve the situation?
Challenges include disease surveillance, waste management, and ensuring safe food production. Enhanced monitoring, regulations, and public awareness campaigns can address these challenges.
673
Are there any emerging health concerns in aquaculture that warrant attention, and what proactive measures can be taken?
Emerging concerns such as novel diseases or contaminants require continuous research, strict monitoring, and swift regulatory responses to safeguard public health.
674
What technical aspects influence meat microbiology and quality during processes like cutting, de-boning, mincing, and preparing "meat preparations"?
These processes can affect contamination risk, shelf life, and the overall safety of meat products.
675
How does meat curing contribute to preserving and enhancing the quality of meat products?
Meat curing involves the addition of salt, nitrites, and nitrates, which suppress spoilage organisms and promote beneficial bacterial growth, improving flavor, color, and extending shelf life.
676
What role does fermentation play in preserving and enhancing the quality of meat products like fermented sausages?
Fermentation is a preservation method that increases the shelf life of meat by creating a stable and nutritious product through the action of lactic acid bacteria.
677
What are the characteristics influencing different types of fermented sausages, and what factors affect their variations?
Factors include the type of meat used, formulation (salt, nitrites, sugar, spices), starter cultures, fermentation temperature, cooking, smoking, drying, and whether they're mould ripened.
678
Which types of meat are commonly utilized in fermented sausages?
: Pork and beef are most commonly used, but lamb, chicken, duck, turkey, and even fish can be used in certain varieties.
679
How do the addition of nitrites/nitrates and fermentable carbohydrates impact the fermentation process in sausages?
Nitrites/nitrates suppress spoilage organisms, promote beneficial bacteria growth, and aid in color retention, while fermentable carbohydrates contribute to lactic acid production, aiding in preservation.
680
What's the role of starter cultures in fermenting sausages?
Starter cultures like Lactobacillus plantarum or Pediococcus spp. contribute to controlled fermentation, leading to acid production, flavor development, and improved safety.
681
How does ripening contribute to the quality of fermented sausages?
Ripening involves protein hydrolysis, breakdown of fat and protein, and flavor compound development, enhancing the taste and texture of fermented sausages.
682
What are the primary sources of contamination for raw meat during slaughtering and butchering, and what are the consequences?
Contamination sources include spoilage organisms and potential pathogens like Salmonella. Without preservation methods, meat has a limited shelf life, but meat fermentation extends this while maintaining safety if processed correctly.
683
What are the primary characteristics of fermented sausages, and how do these characteristics vary?
Fermented sausage characteristics vary based on meat type, formulation (salt, nitrites, sugar, spices), starter cultures, fermentation conditions (temperature, smoking, drying), and whether they undergo mould ripening.
684
Why is the addition of nitrites essential in fermented sausages?
Nitrites prevent meat discoloration and oxidative rancidity, contributing to the preservation and color stability of fermented sausages.
685
What role does ripening play in the production of fermented sausages?
Ripening involves the breakdown of proteins and fats by microbial enzymes, leading to the development of flavor compounds, which enhances the taste and texture of fermented sausages.
686
What are the steps involved in the production of fermented sausages, from raw meat to the final product?
The process includes mincing raw meat, adding essential ingredients (salt, nitrites, fermentable carbohydrates), incorporating starter cultures, stuffing into casings, fermenting, drying, and ripening.
687
How does smoking contribute to the preservation of meat products like sausages?
Wood smoke contains antimicrobial compounds like formaldehyde, aldehydes, phenols, and methanol, which inhibit microbial growth and aid in preservation.
688
What are the potential defects in fermented sausages and their causes?
Defects include surface mold growth, bacterial slime, excess lactic acid production causing souring, gas production from certain bacteria, and greening due to specific bacterial activity.
689
How do food preservation technologies influence the shelf life and safety of animal origin products?
Preservation technologies extend shelf life by inhibiting microbial growth or activity, thus ensuring the safety and quality of animal origin products.
690
How does HACCP utilize microbiological information in ensuring food safety?
HACCP uses microbiological data to identify critical control points (CCPs) that affect microbial growth, death, survival, or contamination in food production processes, ensuring adequate control measures are implemented.
691
What parameters are considered in shelf-life evaluations of food products?
Shelf-life evaluations consider changes in sensory qualities (flavor, aroma, appearance, texture) and microbial growth (pathogens and spoilage organisms) under specific storage conditions.
692
What are the intrinsic factors influencing microbial behavior in foods, and how do they affect microbial growth?
Intrinsic factors include nutrient availability, pH levels, redox potential, antimicrobials, food matrix, and water activity. They significantly impact microbial growth and survival by either facilitating or inhibiting their proliferation in food.
693
How does pH influence microbial growth in food, and what role does it play in food preservation?
pH affects microbial growth, with most microorganisms thriving between pH 6.6 and 7.5. Foods that resist pH changes better tend to preserve better against microbial spoilage due to their buffering capacity.
694
What is the importance of the redox potential (Eh) in food, and how does it impact microbial behavior?
Redox potential determines the ease of electron loss or gain in a substance. It influences microbial growth, as aerobic microorganisms require a positive Eh value, while anaerobes thrive in negative Eh conditions.
695
Define water activity (aw) and its significance in preserving foods.
Water activity measures the availability of water for chemical reactions. Reducing water availability hampers microbial growth, making it an effective preservation method by controlling spoilage and pathogenic microorganisms.
696
What are the mechanical barriers to microbial invasion in food, and how do they impact food preservation?
The skin and barriers in fermented meat products act as mechanical barriers, preventing microbial invasion. These barriers play a vital role in preserving food by inhibiting microbial contamination.
697
Explain the extrinsic factors affecting microbial behavior in food, and how do they contribute to food preservation?
Extrinsic factors like temperature, gaseous atmosphere, relative humidity, and time significantly impact microbial growth. Manipulating these factors aids in food preservation by controlling microbial proliferation.
698
Describe the significance of temperature in food spoilage and preservation, highlighting different microbial temperature ranges.
Temperature greatly influences spoilage, with psychrotrophs thriving at or below 7°C, psychrophiles at 15°C or lower, mesophiles between 20°C and 45°C, and thermophiles at or above 45°C. Proper temperature control is crucial for food preservation.
699
Define D-value and its role in thermal processing of food to control microbial populations.
D-value represents the time required for a population of microorganisms to decrease by 90% at a specific temperature. It guides thermal processing, ensuring effective reduction of microbial populations to enhance food safety.
700
Explain the significance of gaseous atmospheres, such as carbon dioxide (CO2) and ozone (O3), in preserving foods.
CO2 and O3 are used to control microorganisms in foods, particularly in Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP). CO2 inhibits microbial growth, while O3 has strong oxidizing properties, but its use requires caution due to potential rancidity issues.
701
How does relative humidity (RH) impact food storage, particularly concerning surface spoilage from microbes?
RH affects food storage conditions, especially for foods prone to surface spoilage from molds, yeasts, and bacteria. Adjusting RH can retard surface spoilage without reducing overall humidity.
702
Enumerate various reasons why food is rejected as spoiled, covering both organoleptic and physical aspects.
Food rejection occurs due to organoleptic changes like altered taste, odor, appearance, and texture. Physical aspects such as foreign bodies, chemical changes, staling, and ripening contribute to food being rejected as spoiled.
703
How do selection and growth of specific spoilage microflora contribute to food spoilage?
Specific spoilage microflora grow in food due to intrinsic and extrinsic factors, causing organoleptic changes and rendering the food unacceptable to consumers, even if it might still be safe to eat.
704
Define Food Technology and its scope.
Food technology encompasses the study of food production, processing, and utilization from farm to table, covering methods to create food products for consumption.
705
What disciplines are integrated into Food Science?
Food Science integrates biology, chemistry, microbiology, diet and nutrition, physics, engineering, and multidisciplinary sciences.
706
Enumerate the dimensions of Food Science.
The dimensions of Food Science include production, processing, preservation, packaging, safety, quality, distribution/logistics, preparation, and health.
707
What are the fundamental aspects underpinning Food's functionality or functional foods?
Functional foods need to be safe, enjoyable in taste, user-friendly, well-packaged, and reasonably priced while offering health benefits.
708
709
What does Food Chain Management entail?
Food Chain Management involves overseeing all aspects of food production, transformation, storage, distribution, and the holistic farm-to-table approach.
710
What is the primary aim of food preservation, and how does it relate to foodborne illness?
Food preservation aims to minimize microbial growth during storage to extend shelf life and reduce the risk of foodborne illness due to spoilage or pathogenic microorganisms.
711
Define the role of intrinsic factors affecting microbial behavior in foods.
Intrinsic factors encompass nutrient availability, pH levels, redox potential, antimicrobials, food matrix, and water activity, significantly impacting microbial growth in food.
712
Explain the significance of pH in food preservation and microbial behavior.
pH influences microbial growth, with most microorganisms thriving between pH 6.6 and 7.5. Foods with stable pH levels tend to preserve better against spoilage.
713
How does the redox potential (Eh) affect microbial behavior in food, and what influences it?
The redox potential influences microbial growth, where aerobic microbes require positive Eh values, while anaerobes thrive in negative Eh conditions. Factors influencing Eh include food characteristics, atmosphere, and microbial activities.
714
What is water activity (aw), and how does it relate to food preservation?
Water activity measures water's availability for chemical reactions, and by reducing water activity, the growth of spoilage and pathogenic microorganisms is hindered, aiding in food preservation.
715
What are the mechanical barriers to microbial invasion in food, and how do they aid in preservation?
Skin and barriers in fermented meat products serve as mechanical barriers, preventing microbial invasion and aiding in preserving food quality.
716
Outline the significance of extrinsic factors in influencing microbial behavior in food.
Extrinsic factors like temperature, gaseous atmosphere, relative humidity, and time play crucial roles in influencing microbial growth and preserving food quality.
717
How does temperature impact food spoilage, and what are the various microbial temperature ranges?
Temperature significantly influences spoilage, with psychrotrophs, psychrophiles, mesophiles, and thermophiles thriving at different temperature ranges.
718
Explain the concept of D-value and its role in controlling microbial populations during thermal processing.
D-value represents the time required for a microbial population to decrease by 90% at a specific temperature, guiding thermal processing to enhance food safety
719
How do gaseous atmospheres like carbon dioxide and ozone aid in food preservation?
Carbon dioxide inhibits microbial growth, while ozone possesses strong oxidizing properties. Both gases are used in Modified Atmosphere Packaging to preserve food quality.
720
Describe the importance of relative humidity in food storage and spoilage prevention.
Relative humidity plays a crucial role in preventing surface spoilage from molds, yeasts, and bacteria. Proper adjustment of RH helps retard spoilage without reducing overall humidity.
721
Enumerate various reasons for food rejection due to spoilage.
Food rejection occurs due to organoleptic changes like altered taste, odor, appearance, and texture, as well as physical aspects such as foreign bodies, chemical changes, staling, and ripening.
722
What are the primary objectives in a zoonotic disease outbreak investigation involving broiler chickens?
Summarize essential equipment and methodologies needed for the investigation. Describe the isolation and enumeration of foodborne zoonotic pathogens from farm, abattoir, and food samples. Explain the utility of serotyping and genotyping in tracing pathogens during an outbreak.
723
Recap the initial details of the suspected salmonellosis outbreak involving 49 children in Rutland.
APHA vets were engaged in an OCT (Outbreak Control Team). Suspected sources: Poultry abattoir and Blackwater open farm. FSA collected approximately 500 samples from the abattoir over 2 days to establish a potential link to the outbreak.
724
What was confirmed by the Health Security Agency regarding the outbreak involving Salmonella-infected children?
Health Security Agency confirmed Salmonella infection among the affected children and initiated sequencing to identify the strain. FSA discovered Salmonella in retail chickens sourced from the Blackwater broiler farm.
725
Explain the steps involved in confirming the presence of Salmonella in abattoir specimens.
Record colony appearance on Brilliant Green Agar plates. Conduct a slide agglutination test with Poly-O antisera: Place a clean glass slide and add 10 μl of sterile PBS using a sterile loop. Pick a red colony from the BG plate and resuspend it in the PBS drop until a smooth suspension is obtained. Add a drop of Poly-O Salmonella antiserum onto the suspension and rotate the slide. Observe for granularity after 1-2 minutes as an indicator of Salmonella presence.
726
How can typing methods aid in outbreak investigations?
Typing methods simplify investigations by answering fundamental questions such as presence/absence, prevalence, source attribution, and risk. The most efficient combination of typing methods is chosen based on the specific question at hand.
727
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) in pathogen identification?
Advantages: Specific and relatively quick. Disadvantages: Does not distinguish between live and dead cells. Samples a limited part of the genome, potentially linking isolates with differences elsewhere in their genome.
728
Explain Phage typing and its advantages/disadvantages in pathogen identification.
Phage typing involves determining a bacterium's sensitivity to a panel of bacterial viruses (phages). Advantages: Specific and requires no specialized equipment. Disadvantages: Phage sensitivity may change, needs skilled interpretation, and is labor-intensive.
729
Describe the process and pros/cons of Pulsed Field Gel Electrophoresis (PFGE) in pathogen analysis.
PFGE involves cutting the whole genome with restriction enzymes and running fragments on a gel to create strain-specific patterns. Advantages: Samples the entire genome and can be standardized across labs. Disadvantages: Requires expensive equipment and software and is labor-intensive.
730
Explain Serotyping, its application, and its limitations in differentiating strains.
Serotyping involves mixing bacteria with specific antisera to agglutinate cells. Advantages: Specific and easy. Disadvantages: Expensive when dealing with multiple serotypes and cannot differentiate between strains.
731
What are IMViC tests, and what are their advantages and limitations?
IMViC tests are biochemical assays used to differentiate coliforms based on Indole, Methyl Red, Voges-Proskauer, and Citrate reactions. Advantages: Easy to conduct and robust. Disadvantages: Cannot differentiate between strains and are labor-intensive.
732
Describe the methodology and capabilities of gene sequencing in distinguishing between strains.
Gene sequencing involves targeting genes or whole genomes to differentiate strains differing by even a single base pair. It's mostly automated but requires expensive equipment. It can construct phylogenetic trees to display isolate similarities.
733
What is Whole Genome Sequencing (WGS) and how does it contribute to outbreak investigations?
Whole Genome Sequencing involves sequencing the entire genetic material of an organism. It aids in outbreak investigations by providing high-resolution data to identify genetic variations, trace sources of infection, and understand transmission pathways among pathogens.
734
Enumerate the steps involved in Whole Genome Sequencing (WGS) for outbreak investigation purposes.
Sample collection and DNA extraction. Sequencing the entire genome of the pathogen. Comparative analysis to identify genetic differences and similarities among isolates. Constructing phylogenetic trees to visualize relatedness and trace transmission routes.
735
What are the benefits and limitations of Whole Genome Sequencing (WGS) in outbreak investigations?
Benefits: High resolution and accuracy in identifying genetic variations. Precise tracking of pathogen transmission. Limitations: Requires specialized expertise and expensive equipment. Data interpretation complexities may arise from large datasets.
736
Differentiate between Phenotypic and Genotypic methods used in outbreak investigations.
Phenotypic methods involve observing physical characteristics or behavior of organisms (e.g., culture appearance). Genotypic methods analyze genetic material (DNA, RNA) to identify variations or similarities, providing higher resolution and accuracy in distinguishing strains during outbreaks.
737
: What role does Environmental Sampling play in zoonotic disease outbreak investigations?
Environmental sampling involves collecting samples from the surroundings (water, soil, surfaces) to identify potential sources or reservoirs of pathogens. It aids in understanding transmission dynamics and helps pinpoint the origin of the outbreak.
738
Describe the importance of One Health approach in zoonotic disease outbreak investigations.
The One Health approach involves collaborative efforts among veterinary, human health, and environmental professionals to address zoonotic diseases. It recognizes interconnectedness between human, animal, and environmental health, crucial in understanding and controlling zoonotic outbreaks.
739
How does Antibiotic Resistance Testing contribute to zoonotic disease outbreak investigations?
Antibiotic resistance testing determines the susceptibility of pathogens to antibiotics. In outbreak investigations, it helps assess treatment options, understand the spread of resistant strains, and manage the potential impact of antimicrobial resistance on public health.
740
Explain the concept of Metagenomics and its relevance in identifying unknown pathogens during outbreaks.
Metagenomics involves studying genetic material directly from environmental samples to identify diverse microbial communities, including unknown or unculturable pathogens. It aids in detecting emerging diseases and understanding the overall microbial landscape in outbreaks.
741
What statistics highlight the impact of foodborne zoonotic diseases on global health?
1 in 6 US citizens fall ill due to food-borne infections annually. Globally, around 1 billion people are affected by foodborne illnesses, resulting in approximately 600,000 deaths yearly. In the UK/EU, Salmonella and Campylobacter are among the most reported pathogens linked to foodborne diseases.
742
Describe the systematic approach involved in outbreak investigations.
Plan: Focus on problem description, questions, equipment selection, expertise available, and budget. Act: Implement control measures, public information, coordination, and case review. Check: Collect samples, documents, photos, and communicate. Take precautionary measures. Do: Carry out sample collection, communication, and necessary precautions.
743
What are the various sample types considered in zoonotic disease outbreak investigations?
Animals: Faeces, urine, blood/sera, feed, hides, litter or bedding. Environment: Water, dust, handrails, walkways, housing. People & Vehicles: Staff, visitors, contract workers. Food: Farm shop, contract caterers, milk/meat produced on-site.
744
Explain the importance of transport considerations in samples for laboratory testing during outbreak investigations.
Transport medium and swabs/saline are crucial. Maintain virus/bacteria integrity and prevent desiccation. Ensure aseptic technique, timely transport (<48 hours), and compliance with EU regulations.
745
Enumerate various laboratory testing methods utilized in outbreak investigations and their applications.
Direct Plating: For robust pathogens present in large numbers. Enrichment: For low numbers or fragile organisms. Tissue Culture: Specifically for viruses or intracellular pathogens. Molecular: Rapid detection of pathogens, including DNA detection when organisms cannot be recovered.
746
What health and safety protocols should be followed when working with live Salmonella during laboratory investigations?
Ensure Good Laboratory Practice at all times. Cover wounds/cuts, tie back long hair, wear appropriate protective gear (lab coat, gloves), practice aseptic technique, and maintain cleanliness.
747
Outline the scenario and initial details of the suspected salmonellosis outbreak investigation in Rutland involving 49 children.
49 children in Rutland were hospitalized with suspected salmonellosis. Preliminary investigation identified contaminated chicken meat or a visit to an open farm as possible sources. APHA vets were co-opted into the Outbreak Control Team (OCT) by the Health Security Agency to investigate.
748
Briefly explain the tasks involved in investigating the food source (abattoir) regarding the suspected Salmonella outbreak.
FSA led an investigation at the poultry abattoir, collecting around 500 samples from chicken neck skin, water, feather flume, soak tank, scald tank, drains, surfaces, and workers. Teams were tasked to isolate, enumerate, and characterize Salmonella from these samples to establish a potential link to the outbreak.
749
Describe the sample processing steps involved in preparing samples from the abattoir for analysis.
Each group received 12 samples including chicken skin, water, and swab samples. Skin and swab samples required stomaching before performing serial dilutions. Stomaching involved diluting the samples and spotting them onto Brilliant Green Agar plates for incubation and examination in subsequent sessions.
750
What role does APHA play in investigating the "Blackwater Open Farm" in the suspected Salmonella outbreak scenario?
APHA led the investigation at Blackwater Open Farm, which comprised a contract broiler business and an open farm. Their task was to plan an investigation and determine if there was any connection between the farm and the outbreak.
751
What are notifiable diseases in veterinary practice?
Notifiable diseases refer to animal illnesses that must be reported to the Animal and Plant Health Agency (APHA) by law, even upon suspicion of an animal being affected. Failure to report a notifiable disease is considered an offense.
752
Why is reporting notifiable diseases crucial?
Reporting notifiable diseases is vital for disease control, surveillance, and implementing appropriate measures to prevent the spread of contagious diseases. It enables authorities to take necessary actions promptly, mitigating the risk of widespread outbreaks.
753
Provide examples of UK vertebrate animal notifiable diseases.
Some examples include Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD), Bovine Tuberculosis (TB), Rabies, Avian Influenza (bird flu), Anthrax, and others listed by DEFRA and the UK.
754
What are the implications of not reporting a notifiable disease?
Failure to report a notifiable disease is an offense. Reporting is crucial for public health, disease control, and prevention, impacting animal welfare, trade, and the economy.
755
How are notifiable diseases controlled once reported?
Upon suspicion or confirmation, measures such as quarantine, culling infected animals, restricting movements, isolation, disinfection, and surveillance zones are implemented to prevent further spread.
756
Why is having an evidence-based view on notifiable diseases important for veterinary professionals?
Veterinary professionals must possess informed perspectives on disease control methods, epidemiology, and their implications to provide optimal care, mitigate risks, and make informed decisions in practice.
757
What is the significance of notifiable diseases like Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) to veterinary professionals?
Diseases like FMD highlight the importance of prompt reporting, disease management strategies, and their impact on agriculture, public perception, and mental health in rural areas.
758
How does the control of endemic diseases like Bovine Tuberculosis (TB) differ from exotic notifiable diseases?
Endemic diseases often require ongoing management strategies due to their continuous presence, involving debates around control methods, zoonotic risks, economic implications, and public health concerns.
759
Outline the process when Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) is suspected on a farm.
Suspected FMD cases prompt immediate notification to APHA. Subsequent steps include veterinary assessment, sample collection, farm isolation, movement restrictions, and various zones for containment and control.
760
Discuss the social, economic, and mental health implications of outbreaks like Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) on communities and veterinary professionals.
Disease outbreaks impose significant stress on communities, mental health challenges on professionals, economic losses, and disruptions in trade and agriculture.
761
What is the primary objective of reporting notifiable diseases to the OIE (World Organisation for Animal Health)?
Reporting notifiable diseases to the OIE aims to support efforts in preventing the transboundary spread of significant animal diseases and zoonoses. It facilitates transparent reporting and harmonization of disease detection, prevention, and control measures among member countries.
762
Differentiate between notifiable diseases in animals and human notifiable infectious diseases in the UK.
Notifiable diseases in animals are required to be reported to the APHA, whereas registered medical practitioners have a statutory duty to report suspected cases of certain infectious diseases in humans to local health protection teams or councils in the UK to detect possible outbreaks rapidly.
763
Provide examples of human notifiable infectious diseases in the UK.
Examples include COVID-19, Cholera, Diphtheria, Measles, Mumps, Tuberculosis, Viral Hemorrhagic Fever (VHF), Whooping Cough, and Yellow Fever, among others.
764
What organisms or causative agents are included in the list of notifiable diseases in humans in the UK?
The list comprises various pathogens such as bacteria (Salmonella spp, Shigella spp), viruses (Hepatitis A, B, C, and E, Influenza virus, Measles virus), parasites (Plasmodium spp, Cryptosporidium spp), and others known to cause notifiable infectious diseases.
765
Explain the WHO approach concerning notifiable diseases.
The International Health Regulations (2005) mandate member states to notify the WHO of events considered urgent and internationally significant, rather than focusing solely on disease-specific notifications. Additionally, member states may consult the WHO for guidance in related circumstances.
766
Elaborate on the significance of Bovine Tuberculosis (bTB) as an endemic notifiable disease.
Bovine Tuberculosis is a significant endemic disease with a wide host range, impacting cattle, wildlife, and potentially humans. Controlling bTB is controversial, requiring an evidence-based approach due to its implications for trade, animal health, and zoonotic risks.
767
Outline the historical timeline and key events related to the management of Bovine Tuberculosis (bTB) in the UK.
Events include the recognition of bTB as zoonotic in the early 1900s, the implementation of compulsory testing and slaughter, badger protection in the 1970s, various control approaches, and the Krebs report in 1996.
768
Explain the role of badgers in the maintenance and transmission of Bovine Tuberculosis (bTB).
Badgers can harbor and transmit bTB to cattle and vice versa. Control in badger populations is crucial in endemic areas to manage the disease in cattle, though cross-species transmission is relatively uncommon compared to transmission within species.
769
How is Bovine Tuberculosis diagnosed and controlled in cattle?
Diagnosis involves skin tests, gamma-interferon tests, post-mortem examinations, and culture. Control measures include culling positive animals, movement restrictions, and ongoing surveillance.
770
What is the significance of abattoir testing in the context of Bovine Tuberculosis (bTB) control?
Abattoir testing of skin test-positive cattle serves as crucial surveillance. If lesions are found, some parts are condemned, but the rest of the carcass may be passed fit for consumption after specific measures, aiding in disease surveillance.
771
Discuss the concept of One Health and its relevance to veterinary medicine.
One Health emphasizes the interconnectedness of human, animal, and environmental health. In veterinary medicine, it underscores the importance of collaboration between veterinarians, physicians, ecologists, and other experts to address zoonotic diseases, antimicrobial resistance, and environmental impacts on health.
772
Elaborate on zoonotic diseases and their significance in veterinary practice.
Zoonotic diseases are infections transmitted between animals and humans. Veterinarians play a critical role in recognizing, treating, and preventing these diseases, considering their potential impact on public health, animal welfare, and the broader ecosystem.
773
Describe the principles of antimicrobial stewardship in veterinary medicine.
Antimicrobial stewardship involves the responsible use of antibiotics to minimize resistance development. In veterinary practice, it includes proper diagnosis, prescription, dosage, and education of clients about the judicious use of antibiotics in animals.
774
Explain the role of vaccines in veterinary medicine and their significance in disease prevention.
Vaccines are crucial tools in preventing infectious diseases in animals. Veterinary vaccines aim to stimulate an immune response, protecting animals against specific pathogens, thus reducing disease transmission and enhancing overall herd or population immunity.
775
Discuss the importance of biosecurity measures in veterinary practices and animal facilities.
Biosecurity protocols are essential in preventing the introduction and spread of infectious diseases within animal populations. These measures encompass hygiene practices, quarantine procedures, restricted access, and surveillance to safeguard animal health and welfare.
776
Explore the field of veterinary epidemiology and its role in disease surveillance and control.
Veterinary epidemiology involves studying disease patterns and transmission in animal populations. It aids in identifying risk factors, designing control strategies, and implementing surveillance systems to monitor and manage diseases effectively.
777
How does environmental health intersect with veterinary medicine?
Environmental health influences animal health and welfare. Veterinarians consider factors such as pollution, climate change, habitat destruction, and exposure to toxins as they impact the health of animals and contribute to disease emergence.
778
Describe emerging infectious diseases in veterinary medicine and their implications.
Emerging infectious diseases are newly identified or re-emerging diseases that pose threats to animal populations. They require vigilance, rapid response, and collaborative efforts among veterinarians, researchers, and public health authorities due to their potential to cause outbreaks or pandemics.
779
What are the ethical considerations in veterinary medicine, especially concerning disease management and animal welfare?
Ethical dilemmas arise in disease management, particularly balancing disease control measures with animal welfare. Veterinarians must navigate ethical frameworks to ensure optimal care for animals while addressing public health concerns.
780
Discuss the evolving role of technology in veterinary medicine's approach to disease diagnosis, treatment, and surveillance.
Advancements in technology, including diagnostic tools, telemedicine, big data analytics, and genomic sequencing, revolutionize disease diagnosis, treatment, and surveillance in veterinary medicine, leading to more efficient and precise interventions.
781
What considerations should be taken when testing animals for diseases?
Always ask what is being tested for and why. Determine the actions based on test results (surveillance, treatment, quarantine, or culling).
782
What are the key types of tests used in cattle and certain species for disease detection?
Skin tests: Effective in cattle and humans, but limited in other species. Gamma-interferon tests: Work in most species but require fresh blood cells.
783
What are the sensitivity and specificity of skin tests and gamma-interferon tests in cattle?
Skin tests: Individual sensitivity ~70-80%, herd sensitivity ~50%, individual specificity 99.5%. Gamma-interferon tests: Possibly less specific (~88% sensitivity, ~96% specificity).
784
What are the characteristics and applications of antibody tests in disease detection?
Sensitivity depends on the stage of infection. They rely on boosting low antibody responses and targeting specific antigens for increased specificity.
785
What role does post-mortem confirmation play in disease identification?
Sensitivity compared to skin tests in cattle is approximately 80%. Allows characterization of the isolated organism and determination of its epidemiology/source.
786
Discuss the methods used in disease management: culling vs. vaccination.
Current aim is 'eradication' rather than 'control.' Culling infected cows; vaccination (BCG) for badgers, with efficacy in question.
787
What are the advantages and limitations of skin tests for disease detection in animals?
Advantages: Effective in cattle and humans. Limitations: Ineffective in many other species; sensitivity varies for individuals and herds.
788
Explain the comparative test in cattle for disease detection. What are its sensitivities and specificities?
Comparative test: Individual sensitivity ~70-80%, herd sensitivity ~50%, individual specificity 99.5%.
789
How do gamma-interferon tests differ from skin tests in disease detection?
Gamma-interferon tests: Work in most species but require live blood cells; more sensitive than skin tests but possibly less specific.
790
Discuss the role of antibody tests in disease detection. What factors influence their effectiveness?
Sensitivity varies based on the infection stage. Dependent on boosting low antibody responses and targeting specific antigens for increased specificity.
791
Compare and contrast culling and vaccination as disease management strategies. What challenges exist for each?
Culling: Aimed at eradicating infected cows; ineffective test might leave infected cows on the farm. Vaccination (BCG): Efficacy questioned; DIVA test needed for distinguishing vaccinated from infected animals in cattle.
792
Explain the controversy regarding badger culling and vaccination. What are the proposed solutions?
Culling is expected to work faster than vaccination but may not eliminate all infected animals. Trials suggest control of TB in badgers possible if no reinfection from cattle; oral vaccines could be more efficient.
793
hat is rabies, and how does it pose a risk to humans and animals?
Caused by lyssaviruses affecting carnivores and bats. Cases detected in bats along the south coast; surveillance and biosecurity crucial for prevention.
794
Describe control measures for rabies in animals and humans.
Control involves surveillance, quarantine, vaccination (injectable for humans, oral for wildlife), and culling if epidemic/endemic.
795
What is anthrax, and how does it affect animals?
Caused by Bacillus anthracis affecting a wide range of herbivore and some omnivore mammals, as well as birds. Presents in peracute, acute, or chronic forms.
796
What steps should be taken if anthrax is suspected in animals?
Report suspicions to APHA; avoid carcass handling to prevent spore production. APHA conducts investigations, serves restriction notices, and advises on disposal.
797
What are the key considerations before testing animals for diseases? List the steps involved in evaluating test results.
Considerations: Define the purpose of testing, decide on actions based on results (surveillance, treatment, quarantine, culling), and understand test limitations. Steps: Interpret CMI antibody responses, assess visible lesions, conduct cultures, and evaluate specificity and sensitivity.
798
Explain the challenges associated with antibody tests for disease detection and their sensitivity and specificity.
Challenges: Dependence on the infection stage and boosting low antibody responses to increase sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity: ~90% Specificity: ~98-100%
799
Compare the benefits and limitations of culling versus vaccination in disease management, focusing on badger populations.
Culling: Aims for eradication but may leave infected animals if an insensitive test is used; controversial efficacy. Vaccination: BCG vaccine shows effectiveness in badgers (60-70%) and humans (50-80%), needing DIVA tests for cattle.
800
Describe the theoretical effectiveness and practical challenges of badger culling versus vaccination in controlling bovine TB.
Theoretical Effectiveness: Culling expected to work faster but may require complete removal of infected animals. Vaccination more efficient if reinfection from cattle is prevented. Challenges: Perturbation effect, incomplete elimination, and ethical concerns.
801
Elaborate on the risk factors and control measures for rabies in wildlife and domestic animals.
Risk Factors: Lyssaviruses affect carnivores and bats, with some cases detected along the south coast. Control Measures: Oral vaccination in wildlife, quarantine, and injectable vaccines in domestic animals.
802
Discuss the characteristics of anthrax, its modes of transmission, and symptoms in animals and humans.
Characteristics: Caused by Bacillus anthracis affecting various mammals and birds; exists in spore form. Transmission: Through contaminated soil or materials. Symptoms: Peracute, acute, or chronic presentations, sudden death in ruminants.
803
What actions should be taken when anthrax is suspected in animals, and why is prompt reporting crucial?
Actions: Report to APHA, avoid carcass handling to prevent spore release, disinfect contaminated areas, and isolate other animals. Prompt Reporting: Facilitates investigation, restriction notices, and proper disposal to prevent further spread.
804
Explain the concept of transboundary diseases and provide examples in veterinary medicine.
Definition: Transboundary diseases are infectious diseases that easily cross national borders, impacting multiple countries and regions. Examples: Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD), avian influenza, African swine fever (ASF).
805
Discuss the role of international organizations in managing transboundary diseases and their significance in global disease control.
Role: Organizations like OIE (World Organisation for Animal Health) and FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization) facilitate information exchange, establish standards, and coordinate disease control efforts. Significance: Harmonize disease surveillance, early warning systems, and response strategies to prevent global spread.
806
Define biosecurity measures in veterinary practice and explain their importance in preventing disease spread.
Definition: Biosecurity refers to practices and protocols aimed at preventing the introduction and spread of infectious agents in animal populations. Importance: Minimizes disease transmission through quarantine, restricted access, sanitation, and control of animal movements.
807
Outline the steps involved in conducting a risk assessment for notifiable diseases on a farm or within a veterinary facility.
Steps: Identify potential hazards, evaluate exposure pathways, assess the likelihood of disease introduction, determine consequences, and implement risk mitigation strategies.
808
Describe the process of reporting a notifiable disease outbreak and its significance in disease control.
Process: Immediate notification to appropriate authorities (e.g., government veterinary services), providing details about the disease, affected animals, and location. Significance: Triggers rapid response measures, containment, and prevention of further spread.
809
: Explain the role of passive and active surveillance in disease monitoring and early detection.
Passive Surveillance: Relies on veterinarians and animal owners reporting suspicious cases; effective for detecting unusual disease events. Active Surveillance: Proactive monitoring involving systematic testing and sampling; useful in high-risk areas or specific populations.
810
Detail the purpose and procedures of quarantine in preventing disease spread.
Purpose: Isolate potentially infected animals, restrict movement, and observe for signs of disease to prevent its spread. Procedures: Separation, restricted access, monitoring, and diagnostic testing before releasing from quarantine.
811
What is the definition of sustainability?
Sustainability means meeting present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
812
According to the BVA survey, what percentage of vets wish to engage more actively in the UK sustainability agenda?
89% of vets expressed interest in playing a more active role in the UK sustainability agenda.
813
What are the six Veterinary Sustainability Goals outlined by VetSustain?
Diverse and abundant wildlife A good life for animals Net zero warming Health and happiness A no-waste society Enough clean water for all
814
What initiatives does the BVA/RCVS Vet Futures report aim to address regarding sustainability?
The report aims to address global health and environmental sustainability issues such as animal health, biodiversity, climate change, food security, research, antimicrobial resistance, and more.
815
What are some suggestions provided in the Vet Sustain Veterinary Student Sustainability Guide?
The guide offers suggestions for students during university and clinical placements regarding sustainability practices.
816
Which universities have set goals for achieving net zero carbon emissions and by what year?
University of Liverpool by 2035 University of Edinburgh by 2040 Harper Keele by 2030 University of Cambridge by 2048 University of Glasgow by 2030 University of Aberystwyth by 2030-31 University of Surrey by 2030 University of Nottingham by 2030 (63% reduction), 2040 (net zero with offsetting), and 2050 (absolute zero without offsetting)
817
What is the difference between carbon offsetting and carbon insetting?
Carbon offsetting: Investing in projects outside the immediate scope to compensate for carbon emissions. Carbon insetting: Addressing emissions internally within the organization or system itself.
818
How much carbon footprint is associated with various activities such as streaming, emailing, etc.? A8:
Streaming for an hour equates to under 100gCO2e, similar to driving a gas-powered vehicle a quarter mile. Viewing content on a mobile or laptop has a lower carbon footprint than using a large-screen TV. Emails can range between 0.03g and 26g of CO2e per email, contributing to around 0.3% of the world’s carbon footprint.
819
What happened during the NHS email failure incident?
Around 500 million emails were mistakenly sent within the NHS network in just 75 minutes due to an error in a test email distribution list, causing network congestion.
820
How can the veterinary profession contribute to sustainability?
By critically appraising sustainability definitions, implementing interventions to enhance sustainability within the profession, and fulfilling roles that prioritize animal welfare, environmental conservation, and societal health.
821
What is the overarching purpose of sustainability in the veterinary profession?
To ensure that veterinary practices operate responsibly, preserving resources, promoting animal welfare, and reducing negative environmental impacts, all while meeting the needs of current and future generations.
822
What does 'One Health' aim to achieve?
'One Health' is an integrated approach that aims to sustainably balance and optimize the health of people, animals, and ecosystems, recognizing their interconnectedness.
823
What is the definition of 'sustainability'?
Sustainability means meeting present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
824
What are zoonoses, and why are they important in veterinary medicine?
Zoonoses are diseases that can be transmitted between animals and humans. Understanding them is crucial as they impact public health and require a holistic approach involving both human and animal health sectors.
825
What are some definitions associated with 'One Health'?
The Manhattan Principles on 'One World, One Health' (2004) emphasizes an integrated approach balancing the health of people, animals, and ecosystems. The WHO defines health as complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not just the absence of disease.
826
What are ecosystem services?
Ecosystem services are the benefits provided by ecosystems that contribute to making human life possible and worthwhile, highlighting the value of nature in sustaining life.
827
What is the significance of understanding the roles of vectors and reservoirs in disease transmission?
Vectors are organisms that transmit diseases, while reservoirs are sources of infection. Understanding these roles helps identify how diseases spread within and between populations.
828
Why is the study of pathogens essential?
EID sources include factors like globalization, population growth, environmental changes, behavioral changes, and contact networks that contribute to the emergence and spread of new diseases.
829
How do functioning ecosystems potentially protect against diseases?
Well-functioning ecosystems may help mitigate disease spread by regulating factors that influence disease transmission, exemplifying the importance of ecosystem health for human health.
830
What is the significance of 'One Health' in interdisciplinary collaboration?
One Health' necessitates interdisciplinary collaboration, not just multidisciplinary efforts, fostering communication, mutual respect among disciplines, and acknowledging the interconnectedness of health across different sectors.
831
What is the definition of a zoonosis?
A zoonosis refers to diseases and infections naturally transmitted between vertebrate animals and humans.
832
What percentage of human pathogens originated in animals, and what does it signify?
Over 60% of human pathogens originated in animals, indicating the significant link between animal and human health.
833
Name some common misconceptions about zoonotic infections.
Some misconceptions include the belief that HIV can be acquired from cats, coronavirus transmission from pets, and concerns about toxoplasma, pinworms, Cryptosporidium, Giardia, head lice, and MRSA.
834
What are some implications of zoonotic infections for veterinary professionals?
Implications include a high risk of contracting zoonoses in the profession, client unawareness of risks, financial benefits through accurate advice, and potential legal consequences for not informing clients.
835
Explain the public health risks associated with companion animals.
Over 75% of emerging human diseases are zoonotic, emphasizing the importance of understanding diseases linked to animals, including their transmission methods, infectious materials, incubation periods, and effective control measures.
836
Why are worming protocols essential for dogs and cats?
Worming protocols help prevent zoonotic potential by targeting helminths and reducing the risk of transmission to humans.
837
What are some essential points about Bordatella bronchiseptica in dogs and cats?
Bordatella bronchiseptica is a multifactorial disease in dogs, potentially infecting cats, and vaccination methods should consider the zoonotic risk.
838
How can wildlife act as a source of zoonotic infections?
Various wildlife species such as foxes, badgers, small rodents, and bats carry specific infections that can pose health risks to humans and pets.
839
How can zoonotic transmission be prevented?
Following the chain of infection and understanding routes of transmission can aid in preventing zoonotic transmission between pets and humans.
840
What are essential facts about Salmonellosis in animals?
Salmonellosis affects multiple animals, can be subclinical, and poses a risk through contaminated food sources and damp conditions.
841
What is Psittacosis, and how is it transmitted?
Psittacosis, caused by Chlamydia psittaci, is transmitted through airborne particles of respiratory secretions, dried feces, or feather dust from birds.
842
Describe E. caniculi and its prevalence.
E. caniculi is a spore-forming parasite affecting immunocompromised individuals, with a 52% seroprevalence in clinically healthy rabbits.
843
What are key points about diagnosing and treating dermatophytosis in dogs and cats?
Clinical signs can include any combination of hair loss, scaling, crusting, erythema, papules, hyperpigmentation, and variable pruritus. Diagnosis can be confirmed by direct examination of hairs or scales from lesions or by skin biopsy. Dermoscopy or a Wood's lamp can be used to identify hairs for culture and/or direct examination. Fungal culture can determine whether spores are present on the hair coat and must be used in conjunction with clinical examination findings. PCR testing confirms the presence or absence of fungal DNA on the hair coat. It cannot distinguish between viable and nonviable spores. In animals that need treatment, topical antifungal therapy disinfects the hair coat and eliminates infection from hair follicles.Diagnosis and treatment involve specific protocols and understanding the infection's characteristics.
844
Why is controlling zoonotic infections in imported pets essential?
Imported pets might carry zoonotic infections not prevalent in the UK, necessitating preventive measures upon entry.
845
What is notable about Echinococcus multilocularis?
It's a notifiable animal disease without known domestic cases in the UK, requiring vigilance due to its potential danger.
846
What is the risk associated with Brucella canis in the UK?
: It's not endemic in the UK, but awareness is crucial due to its zoonotic potential and associated health risks.
847
How might infections in pets and their owners reflect a common source of infection rather than direct zoonotic transmission?
Examples include E. coli O157:H7 and Campylobacter spp., which can be acquired through a shared environmental source like raw meat.
848
Can dogs directly transmit Lyme Disease to humans?
There's no direct evidence of transmission, but dogs can carry ticks that may transmit the disease to humans.
849
How is Leptospirosis transmitted to humans?
Leptospirosis is transmitted through direct or indirect contact with the urine of infected animals.
850
What are the essential requirements for pet travel within and beyond the UK?
Requirements include microchipping, vaccinations (e.g., rabies), health certificates, and compliance with specific country regulations.
851

Veterinary medicine Year 3 (5 decks)

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