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Flashcards in Virology Sample Test Questions Deck (147)
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1

This regulatory group keeps track of disease incidence across our country, reports to the OIE, & a veterinarian can inform them of a possible case either directly or indirectly:
A. State Veterinarian's office
B. USDA APHIS+
C. World Organization for Animal Health (OIE)
D. CITES
E. All of the above

B. USDA APHIS

2

What is believed to be the most common mode of transmission of papillomatosus in rabbits?

Mechanical vectors; Arthropod vectors transmit the Shope papillomavirus; therefore, arthropod control could be used as means of disease prevention.

3

What causes cerebellar hypoplasia?

Feline panleukopenia virus (Parvovirus).

4

A client brings in their previously healthy bird that suddenly died; it has liver necrosis & viral inclusions. What virus causes this?

Herpes.

5

T/F: Pigs are the main reservoir for Pseudorabies.

True

6

T or F: There is a vaccine for Herpes B Virus.

False

7

What term below describes Malignant Catarrhal Fever's mortality rate in cattle:
A. Incredibly high (~100%)
B. ~25%
C. no animal has ever died from the disease
D. ~50%
E. ~18%

A. Incredibly high (~100%)

8

Which of the following statements about Pseudorabies is FALSE:
A. it is caused by a Herpesvirus
B. it can affect cattle, sheep, dogs, cats, & pigs
C. it can be transmitted between cows
D. it presents as "Mad Itch" in cattle & dogs

C. it can be transmitted between cows

9

Viral disease MAY be caused by all of the following cellular mechanisms EXCEPT:
A. Inclusion body formation
B. Inhibition of host-cell macromolecular synthesis
C. Host-cell transformation
D. Host-cell translation of toxin-encoding viral genome
E. Alteration of host-cell chromosomes

D. Host-cell translation of toxin-encoding viral genome

10

Attenuated vaccines tend to generate a strong immune response:
A. & never revert to virulence
B. because the virus replicates in the host
C. of shorter duration than that produced in a natural subclinical infection
D. only when administered in multiple doses
E. only when administered intramuscularly

B. because the virus replicates in the host

11

What 2 viruses below may remain latent?
A. Parvovirus & papilloma viruses
B. scrapie & Herpes virus
C. coronavirus & Panleukopenia
D. Pseudocowpox & rabies
E. inhiding virus and slumberemia virus

B. scrapie & Herpes virus

12

Which foreign animal disease needs to be ruled out of the differential list before diagnosing Vesicular Stomatitis?
A. Bovine Papular Stomatitis
B. Foot & Mouth disease
C. Rinderpest
D. Rabies

A. Bovine Papular Stomatitis (It cannot be B because it cannot be differentiated from FMD if it is not a horse)

13

What is the mode of transmission of Bovine Papular Stomatitis?
A. mechanical vector
B. biological vector
C. nursing infected cattle
D. aerosol

C. nursing infected cattle

14

How long is Parvovirus shed in feces post infection?
A. 10-12 days
B. 1 month
C. 1 year
D. lifetime

A. 10-12 days

15

What is the most common cause of death in immunodeficient foals?
A. Equine Viral Arteritis
B. Equine Herpes abortion
C. Equine Adenovirus
D. Equine Infectious Anemia

C. Equine Adenovirus

16

The reservoir host for Pseudorabies is the:
A. rat
B. rabbit
C. crow
D. pig
E. cat

D. pig

17

A herd of cows was presented to you with painful, localized edema on teats, with ring or horseshoe scabs. Which one of the following viruses do you consider to be most likely the cause?
A. Cowpox
B. Pseudocowpox
C. Vesicular stomatitis
D. Bovine Papular Stomatitis
E. bovine papillomatosis

B. Pseudocowpox

18

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Canine Herpes Virus:
A. Puppies may acquire maternal immunity if dam is infected
B. Adult dogs are most susceptible to Herpes virus disease
C. Splenomegaly is a clinical sign associated with infection in puppies
D. Virus may be shed in respiratory & reproductive secretions
E. Most infections of adult dogs are asymptomatic

B. Adult dogs are most susceptible to Herpes virus disease

19

Which of the following is NOT one of Koch's postulates?
A. The agent must be present in every case of disease
B. The agent must be shown to be pathogenic
C. The agent must be isolated from the host & grown in vitro
D. The disease must be reproduced when the pure cultivated agent is introduced into a healthy susceptible host
E. The same agent must once again be recoverable from the newly infected host

B. The agent must be shown to be pathogenic

20

What viral disease more than any other disease represents the birth of virology?
A. Poxvirus
B. Herpesvirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Papovavirus
E. Retrovirus

A. Poxvirus

21

What vaccine type uses adjuvant?
A. Gene deleted vaccines
B. Recombinant vaccines
C. Attenuated vaccines
D. Inactivated vaccines
E. Live virus vaccines

D. Inactivated vaccines

22

Which virus family can remain latent & be reactivated by stress or corticosteroid treatment?
A. Reoviridae
B. Flavivirdae
C. Paramyxoviridae
D. Herpesviridae
E. Togaviridae

D. Herpesviridae

23

Which of the following is not an effect that a virus can have on the host?
A. Subclinical disease
B. Induction of cancer
C. acute clinical disease
D. induction of chronic progressive disease
E. none of the above (all choices are possible)

E. none of the above (all choices are possible)

24

The Coggins Test is the most widely used serological diagnostic test to detect precipitating antibody to ____________ virus.
A. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
B. Equine Coital Exanthema
C. Equine Infectious Anemia
D. Swine influenza

C. Equine Infectious Anemia

25

T/F: Bovine Papular Stomatitis is an important zoonotic & economic disease in cattle.

False; Bovine Papular Stomatitis is a common incidental infection in beef cattle worldwide.

26

A pregnant cow has just delivered an aborted, slightly decomposed fetus. You suspect infection with the herpes virus IBR. To confirm your diagnosis, what fetal organ would you most likely take a biopsy from to isolate the virus?
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Heart

B. Liver

27

Equine Coital Exanthema is caused by:
A. EHV-1
B. EHV-3
C. EHV-4
D. Ateriviridae
E. Retroviridae

B. EHV-3

28

Which of the statements is TRUE about Feline Panleukopenia:
A. it is caused by a Parvovirus
B. it is caused by an RNA virus
C. Ataxia is observed in kittens that were infected in utero
D. A & C are correct

D. A & C are correct

29

Equine Herpes Virus is a common world wide infection of horses. EHV-1 will cause:
A. neurological disease
B. rhinopneumonitis & neurological disease
C. abortion & rhinopneumonitis
D. neurological disease & abortion

D. neurological disease & abortion

30

Family of DNA viruses that contain naturally oncogenic members is:
A. Retroviridae
B. Adenoviridae
C. Herpesviridae
D. Pervovirdae

C. Herpesviridae

31

How is Equine Coital Exanthema transmitted?
A. Venereal, possibly from other contact
B. aerosols
C. fomites
D. biting fleas

A. Venereal, possibly from other contact

32

How do you diagnose Equine Infectious Anemia?
A. Coggins Test, a serological test to detect precipitating antibody to EIA
B. Isolation virus from feces
C. Nasal swab
D. None of the above

A. Coggins Test, a serological test to detect precipitating antibody to EIA

33

Which of the following diseases does not have an available vaccine?
A. Canine Herpes
B. Infectious Canine Hepatitis
C. Canine Parvovirus
D. Pseudorabies
E. all have vaccines available

A. Canine Herpes

34

The following are ways to detect viruses except:
A. isolation of the suspected virus in a cell system
B. detection of viral particles by electron microscopy
C. DNA or RNA sequences by ELISA
D. Detection of an antibody response

C. DNA or RNA sequences by ELISA

35

A major disadvantage of the Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) vaccine is that:
A. it has been associated with severe hypersensitivity reactions
B. it may revert back to its virulent state & cause disease
C. vaccinated cats can't be differentiated from those that are naturally infected
D. there is no FIV vaccine

C. vaccinated cats can't be differentiated from those that are naturally infected (There are DIVA concerns with the FIV vaccine & the FIV vaccine is not backed by the AAFPs.)

36

Which is an example of a disease that is a problem in the US or which is NOT only a foreign animal disease?
A. Hendra virus
B. Swinepox
C. Cowpox
D. Nipah virus

B. Swinepox (Swinepox is worldwide)

37

Pseudorabies does not affect which species:
A. dogs
B. cats
C. horses
D. goats
E. pigs

C. horses

38

Properties of viruses NOT important to disinfection & transmission are:
A. heat sensitivity
B. radiation & UV light
C. chemicals
D. lipid solvents
E. gene arrangement

E. gene arrangement

39

Which of the following pairs of diseases are caused by viruses in the same family:
A. Pseudocowpox & Pseudorabies
B. IBR & Malignant Catarrhal fever
C. Rinderpest & Canine Papillomatosis
D. Maedi/Visna & FIP
E. Bluetongue & Parainfluenza 2

B. IBR & Malignant Catarrhal fever (both Herpesviruses)

40

Which of the following families of DNA viruses has the largest genome?
A. Parvoviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Iridovirdae

B. Poxviridae

41

Herpesvirus in cattle can be characterized as having a respiratory as well as a venereal component. Which form of the disease can cause abortion?
A. Infectious Pustular Vulvovaginitis
B. Bovine Papillomatosis
C. IBR
D. Infectious Pustular Balanoposthitis
E. Bovine Papular Stomatitis

C. IBR

42

A viral isolate from a cow that has conjunctivitis, pustules, & has just aborted is most likely to be:
A. Bovine Papular Stomatitis
B. Malignant Catarrhal Fever
C. IBR
D. Pseudorabies
E. BVD

C. IBR

43

T/F: Feline Panleukopenia Virus is more related to Canine Distemper than to Canine Parvovirus.

False

44

Feline Panleukopenia Virus is notable for causing ataxia in kittens; it is caused by a single-stranded DNA virus of which family?
A. Poxviridae
B. Paramyxoviridae
C. Parvoviridae
D. Coronaviridae
E. Circoviridae

C. Parvoviridae

45

Pseudocowpox is most easily diagnosed by:
A. PCR
B. Detection of ring or horseshoe scabs on teats of infected cows
C. isolation of the virus in tissue cultures, in which the virus produces syncitia
D. histopathology
E. response to treatment

B. Detection of ring or horseshoe scabs on teats of infected cows

46

A cattle disease that is associated with poor hygiene causing ring shaped lesions. This statement best describes:
A. Malignant Catarrhal Fever
B. Pseudocowpox
C. Bluetongue
D. Papillomatosis

B. Pseudocowpox

47

During one of your house-calls as a bovine practitioner, you examine several cows with ring or horseshoe scabs on their teats. Workers on the dairy farm also have complained of nodules on their hands. The most probable diagnosis for these lesions is:
A. Infectious Pustular Vulvovaginitis
B. Bovine Papillomatosis
C. Dermopathic Bovine Herpesvirus Infection
D. Pseudocowpox

D. Pseudocowpox

48

Which of the following is NOT a cellular change caused by viruses alteration of cellular macromolecular synthesis?
A. cytophatic effect
B. complex virion effect
C. inclusion body formation cell
D. transformation

B. complex virion effect

49

Which of the following answers gives one advantage & one disadvantage to PCR as a diagnostic test for viruses?
A. rapid; not suitable for all viruses
B. rapid; not a sensitive method for many virus infections
C. rapid; expensive equipment & not always available
D. specific; does not provide virus isolate for further study
E. specific; not a rapid diagnostic method

D. specific; does not provide virus isolate for further study

50

What stage of viral replication is blocked by the presence of neutralizing antibodies?
A. Attachment
B. Penetration
C. Transcription
D. Assembly
E. Uncoating

A. Attachment

51

You are called to determine what is causing the lesions in the oral commissures of these backyard Nubians. It also appears the kids are refusing to suckle & you notice that the mothers have teat sores. Diagnosis is?
A. Papillomavirus
B. Caprine Herpesvirus 1
C. Bluetongue
D. CAE
E. Contagious Ecthyma (ORF)

E. Contagious Ecthyma (ORF); causes lesions at the oral mucocutaneous junctions (usually the commissures), & spreads to the muzzle & nostrils

52

Swelling & edema of lips, gums, dental pad, & tongue is the pathognomonic presentation of this viral disease that affects sheep & goats:
A. ORF (contagious ecthyma)
B. Carpine Herpesvirus 1
C. Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis
D. border disease
E. Bluetongue

E. Bluetongue

53

Which of the following viral infections is transmitted mechanically?
A. Bluetongue
B. Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)
C. Western Equine Encephalitis
D. Malignant Catarrhal Fever
E. Eastern Equine Encephalitis

B. Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)

54

Choose the right statement about the acronym SMEDI:
A. it describes characteristics of transmissible gastroenteritis in swine
B. it means stillbirth, mummification, embryonic death, & infertility
C. usually occurs in cattle
D. occurs in the Reoviridae family
E. refers to a TV show

B. it means stillbirth, mummification, embryonic death, & infertility

55

Which of the following virus families contain members that have dsRNA:
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. Orthomyxoviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Reoviridae
E. Retroviridae

D. Reoviridae (multi-segmented dsRNA); Retroviradae have 2 copies of ss-(+)-sense RNA

56

________ is an example of a disease in cattle caused by a Reovirus.
A. Foot & Mouth Disease
B. Bluetongue
C. BVD
D. IBR

B. Bluetongue

57

How is Bluetongue transmitted in sheep?
A. via mechanical vector
B. via biological vector
C. via fecal-oral transmission
D. by rabbit reservoirs
E. by rat reservoirs

B. via biological vector [Biological Vector: An arthropod vector in whose body the infecting organism develops or multiplies before becoming infective to the recipient individual; Mechanical Vector: An arthropod vector which transmits an infective organism from one host to another but which is not essential to the life cycle of the parasite; example: Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA).]

58

What animal species serves as a reservoir for Bluetongue?
A. cattle
B. sheep
C. deer
D. horses

A. cattle
[Bluetongue virus is endemic in some areas, with cattle & wild ruminants serving as reservoirs for the virus. Epizootics of Bluetongue kill thousands of sheep. For this reason, regulatory veterinarians have heightened their interest in Bluetongue.]

59

Which one of the following equine viral infections is not biologically transmitted by a blood sucking arthropod vector?
A. African Horse Sickness
B. Equine Infectious Anemia
C. Western encephalomyelitis
D. West Nile Virus
E. Potomac Horse Fever

B. Equine Infectious Anemia (uses a mechanical vector)

60

Orf, or Contagious Ecythyma, is a disease of sheep & goats. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Orf is caused by a Poxvirus that is highly resistant to the environment
B. Orf virus confers lifelong immunity to reinfection
C. Orf appears to have a worldwide distribution
D. Orf can be a persistent problem in a flock
E. lambs with Orf lesions on the lips & gums find it difficult to suck milk

B. Orf virus confers lifelong immunity to reinfection [Recovered animals are immune for several months only.]

61

Which of the following is NOT a vaccine requirement?
A. Efficacy
B. Cost
C. Potency
D. Purity
E. Safety

B. Cost

62

When 2 different viruses infect the same cell, what 3 things are possible?

Dual infection, recombination, & interference.

63

The following are ideal methods for selecting specimens for diagnosis & detection of viral diseases except:
A. sampling during peak pyrexia when a maximum titer of virus may occur
B. sampling closest to the affected site of the animal
C. sampling during late stages of disease when secondary bacterial infections have developed
D. sampling during early stages of disease when viruses can be present in tissues in very high concentrations

C. sampling during late stages of disease when secondary bacterial infections have developed

64

Why do segmented RNA viruses have a broader host range?

Segmented RNA viruses are better able to reassort genes.

65

One disadvantage of attenuated vaccines is:
A. multiple doses are often required for efficacy
B. possible reversion to virulence
C. immunity produced is relatively short-lived
D. cannot be given by a natural route
E. no local immunity is produced

B. possible reversion to virulence

66

Results of viral infection are influenced by all of the following except:
A. size of the particle
B. number of infecting particles
C. effectiveness of host defenses
D. degree of cellular damage
E. their virulence

A. size of the particle

67

One disadvantage of inactivated vaccines is:
A. They are generally considered to be unstable
B. They stimulate interferon
C. immunity may be short lived
D. they are inexpensive to produce due to low concentrations of antigen
E. there are no disadvantages

C. immunity may be short lived

68

How do viruses differ from obligatory intracellular parasites?
A. They are ultramicroscopic
B. They have unique structures
C. They have unique replication cycles
D. They contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

69

Which of the following is a Retrovirus in horses & is also referred to as "Swamp Fever"?
A. Equine Rhinopneumonitis
B. Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)
C. Vesicular stomatitis
D. West Nile

B. Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)

70

Concerning Canine Herpes virus infection, choose the correct statement:
A. Young & adult dogs are equally prone to develop clinical signs of the disease
B. Show dogs are not likely to be asymptomatic carriers
C. Canine Herpesvirus is very stable in the environment
D. Disease progression is rapid in puppies
E. The disease is highly zoonotic

D. Disease progression is rapid in puppies

71

Which of the following is a tenet of Koch's postulates with respect to viral agents being responsible for a specific disease?
A. The agent must be present in every case of disease
B. The agent must be isolated from the host & grown in vitro
C. The disease must be reproduced when the pure cultivated agent is introduced into a healthy susceptible host
D. The same agent must once again be recoverable from the infected host
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

72

When viewing a fixed & stained monolayer infected with Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis, the characteristic cytopathic effects seen are:
A. intense basophilic staining & cytolysis
B. intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies
C. intranuclear inclusion bodies
D. both intracytoplasmic & intranuclear inclusion bodies

C. intranuclear inclusion bodies [Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis is a Herpesvirus]

73

Identify which is incorrect. Inactivated vaccines as compared to live vaccines are disadvantageous because:
A. their immunity is short lived
B. many boosters may be needed
C. they spread
D. no interferon or local immunity is stimulated
E. high concentrations of antigen cause them to be expensive

C. they spread

74

When collecting scrapings from the skin for virus collection, should you wash with alcohol? Why or why not?

No, alcohol inactivates many viruses.

75

Successful identification of a virus through laboratory tests is best done by performing a titer in the _________ stage of disease.

early

76

Canine infectious tracheobronchitis is caused by various bacterial & viral agents. Which 2 contribute to Kennel cough?
A. Canine Herpes & Adenovirus 1
B. Canine Distemper & Adenovirus 1
C. Canine Corona & Canine Distemper
D. Canine Distemper & Adenovirus 2
E. Canine Parainfluenza & Canine Influenza

D. Canine Distemper & Adenovirus 2
-NOT Canine Adenovirus 1 as that is Infectious Canine Hepatitis

77

Which extremely contagious canine viral disease is characterized by depression, anorexia, & potentially bloody diarrhea with a predilection toward infection in young puppies of the Rottweiler, Doberman, Labrador, & German Shepard breeds?
A. Canine Distemper
B. Coronavirus
C. Canine Herpes
D. Canine Parvovirus
E. Pseudorabies

D. Canine Parvovirus

78

What is the World Organization for Animal Health?

The World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) is an intergovernmental organisation responsible for improving animal health worldwide. It is also known as OIE (Office International des Epizooties).

79

Which of the following are true about viruses:
A. Virus particles are reassembled from preformed components
B. Viruses can grow outside the host cell
C. DNA & RNA derived from common ancestor
D. There are 2 defined life cycle states; the metabolically active one is outside the host cell

A. Virus particles are reassembled from preformed components

80

The minimum a virus has to have as far as components are concerned are:
A. Genetic material
B. Capsid
C. Envelope
D. A & B

D. A & B

81

What are the most common viral symmetries?
A. Icosohedral & helical
B. complex & filamentous

A. Icosohedral & helical

82

Which Herpesvirus subfamily causes lympho-proliferative disease?

Gamma.
- Alpha (neuron)
- Beta (myeloid precursors, kidneys)
- Gamma (lymphocytes)

83

Regarding the clinical importance of viral envelopes, which of the following is true for enveloped viruses?
A. Environmentally labile & spread in large droplet secretions
B. Resistant in the environment
C. Can modify to be non-enveloped

A. Environmentally labile & spread in large droplet secretions

84

Herpes Simian B Virus is the endemic simplexvirus of macaque monkeys. B virus is an alphaherpesvirus. Can it travel to humans, & is there a vaccine?

Herpes B can be transmitted to humans & there is no vaccine.

85

Circovirus in pigs causes what disease?

Porcine Circovirus 2 causes postweaning polysystemic wasting syndrome.

86

Circovirus in pigs affects what cells?

Porcine Circovirus 2 affects mainly the immune system & targets macrophages & lymphocytes.

87

Beak & feather disease of birds is caused by what?

A Circovirus; Psittacine Beak & Feather Disease Virus.

88

Which of the following is associated with Flavivirus infection in sheep & goats?
A. The midge or gnat is the biological vector
B. Affected lambs suffer a severe setback because of restricted suckling & grazing
C. Virus is resistant to the environment & infection is commonly from fomites
D. Transmission may be transplacental without necessarily causing fetal death or abnormalities & the fetus may recognize the virus as self (immune tolerance)
E. Transmission is vertical through milk

D. Transmission may be transplacental without necessarily causing fetal death or abnormalities & the fetus may recognize the virus as self (immune tolerance); Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV) is a Flavivirus.

89

You have had several cats boarding in your practice this week stop eating with signs of dyspnea. Upon examination of each cat, you notice that each cat has predominantly palatine ulcers WITHOUT any signs of pneumonia or conjunctivitis. Your most likely diagnosis based on these signs are:
A. Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis
B. Feline Pneumonitis
C. Feline Calicivirus
D. Feline Infectious Peritonitis Virus

C. Feline Calicivirus

90

A cow has come down with a fever, diarrhea, weight loss, oral lesions, & a nasal discharge. You feel it may either be Bovine Viral Diarrhea or Malignant Catarrhal Fever. In order to distinguish the two, you:
A. Examine the hooves
B. Examine the eyes
C. Draw blood to run an ELISA
D. Draw blood to run a CBC

B. Examine the eyes
[Corneal opacity is an important clinical sign suggestive of Malignant Catarrhal Fever in cattle.]

91

Abortion is seen in which of the following equine viruses?
A. Equine Adenovirus
B. Equine rhinovirus infection
C. Equine Influenza
D. Equine Viral Arteritis

D. Equine Viral Arteritis

92

Which of the following is not a Herpes virus?
A. Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis
B. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
C. Malignant Catarrhal Fever
D. Pseudorabies
E. Porcine Reproductive & Respiratory Syndrome

E. Porcine Reproductive & Respiratory Syndrome (Arterivirus)

93

Which of the following diseases is caused by an RNA virus?
A. Pseudorabies
B. Feline Panleukopenia
C. Feline Leukemia
D. Influenza A

C & D
Pseudorabies: Herpes: dsDNA
Feline Panleukemia: Parvovirus: ssDNA
Feline Leukemia: Retrovirus; 2 copies of ssRNA
Influenza A: single-stranded, segmented RNA virus

94

Which of the following bovine viruses is MOST resistant to adverse environmental influences?
A. Rinderpest virus
B. Bovine Mammillitis Virus
C. Bovine Papular Stomatitis Virus
D. Bovine Parainfluenza Virus 3
E. Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus

C. Bovine Papular Stomatitis Virus

Rinderpest has been eradicated.
Bovine Mammillitis Virus is Bovine Herpes Virus 2, & is enveloped.
Bovine Papular Stomatitis Virus is a Pox virus.
Bovine Parainfluenza Virus 3 is a Respirovirus (Paramyxovirus).
Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV) is a Pneumovirus (Paramyxovirus).

95

With regards to patterns of virus excretion, persistent & latent infections are characterized by:
A. an early onset of viral excretion & clinical disease
B. a long period of slow excretion with no clinical disease
C. a period of excretion with no clinical disease, but preceded &/or followed by periods with both excretion & clinical disease
D. no virus excretion

C. a period of excretion with no clinical disease, but preceded &/or followed by periods with both excretion & clinical disease

96

Which of the following is an advantage of an inactivated vaccine?
A. Only 1 dose of vaccine is required to achieve adequate immunity
B. Low concentration of antigen causes them to be relatively inexpensive
C. Immunity is often long lived
D. They are stable & there are no problems with viral interference

D. They are stable & there are no problems with viral interference

97

Equine & swine influenza are considered:
A. Orthomyxovirus
B. Retrovirus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Rhabdovirus
E. Coronavirus

A. Orthomyxovirus

98

Farmer Jones calls you out to his stable because 8 of his 10 horses have SUDDENLY developed a frequent dry cough; Farmer Jones described it as an explosive onset. The cough is accompanied by high fever & nasal discharge. You suspect a viral infection & tell Farmer Jones it is likely:
A. Equine Influenza
B. Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis
C. Equine Infectious Anemia
D. Vesicular Stomatitis

A. Equine Influenza

99

Orthomyxoviruses are associated with infections of the:
A. alimentary tract
B. respiratory tract
C. skin
D. nervous system

B. respiratory tract

100

Which selection below is NOT one of the 5 criteria for selecting a diagnostic test?
A. Speed
B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity
D. Precision
E. Simplicity

D. Precision

101

Can Bluetongue affect humans?

No; Bluetongue is a Reovirus that affects sheep & goats and cows.

102

Which of the following has no chance of causing disease in humans?
A. Cowpox
B. Vesicular stomatitis
C. Bluetongue
D. Newcastle disease

C. Bluetongue

Cowpox is an Orthopox & is a zoonotic risk.
Vesicular stomatitis is a Rhabdovirus & is a zoonotic risk.
Bluetongue is a Reovirus & cannot affect humans.
Newcastle disease is a Paramyxovirus & is a zoonotic risk.

103

Orthomyxovirus infections are most problematic for which species?
A. Cattle
B. Horses
C. Dogs
D. Cats

B. Horses

Equine Influenza Virus (Orthomyxovirus) causes the most important respiratory disease in horses!

104

Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE:
A. both viruses & cells have receptors & an affinity between them resulting in attachment
B. viruses are metabolically inert when they are outside hosts
C. viruses contain some genetic information for the synthesis of proteins
D. viruses are compromised of either a DNA or an RNA genome, but not both
E. RNA viruses may be single stranded or double stranded

C. viruses contain some genetic information for the synthesis of proteins

105

Which of the following is not a disease in cattle caused by a poxvirus?
A. Cowpox
B. Lumpy Skin Disease
C. Vesicular Stomatitis
D. Bovine Papular Stomatitis
E. Pseudocowpox

C. Vesicular Stomatitis

Cowpox is caused by an Orthopox virus.
Lumpy Skin Disease is caused by a Capripox virus.
Vesicular Stomatitis is caused by a Rhabdovirus.
Bovine Papular Stomatitis is caused by a Parapox virus.
Pseudocowpox is caused by a Parapox virus.

106

A virus infection may be confirmed by all of these methods except:
A. Using a milligram test to culture the antigen
B. Identification of the causal virus in clinical material by electron microscopy
C. Identification of viral antigen or viral induced antigen in clinical material by serology
D. Demonstration of an antibody response
E. Isolation of the virus

A. Using a milligram test to culture the antigen

107

Which virus do you associate with antigenic drift & shift?

Influenza (Orthomyxovirus)

108

Rinderpest, Peste des Pestis, Measles, & Canine Distemper all share what?

They are all Paramyxoviruses (Morbillivirus).

109

How is Swinepox spread?

Swine louse.

110

What kind of virus is Pseudorabies & what is the reservoir for it?

Herpes virus; pigs are the reservoir.

111

How can equine Herpes present?

Equine Herpes 1: abortion, neurological signs, & progressive ataxia
Equine Herpes 3: coital exanthema
Equine Herpes 4: rhinopneumonitis

112

What does Parvovirus in pigs cause?

SMEDI: stillbirth, mummification, embryonic death, infertility

113

What disease in pigs is prone to antigenic drift & shift?

Swine influenza.

114

What are the main lesions of Calicivirus in cats?

Oral & pneumonia & polyarthritis.

115

Aggressive Calicivirus in cats can cause severe _______.

Pneumonia

116

How is Papillomavirus spread in rabbits?

Oral trauma, direct route, & via arthropod vectors.

117

How can people get Herpes B?

Biting, needle sticks, & scratches from a macaque that is infected.

118

Can cats get Cowpox?

Yes

119

What is the reservoir for cowpox?

Rodents

120

What virus can cause full term foal abortion in horses?

Equine Herpes Virus 1.

121

You are called out to examine a 2 year old Thoroughbred stallion that has run through a fence, severely lacerating its neck & chest. Upon arriving at the farm, you find the horse recumbent in a stall, & he seems overly-startled as you approach. His muzzle is twitching. You immediately send your technician into the stall to draw blood for a titer, including which of the following viral agents (you do not want to spend your client's money unnecessarily):
A. EEE
B. EIA
C. WNV
D. B & C
E. A & C

E. A & C

122

West Nile Virus is a Flavivirus that infects horses. An ideal surveillance species is the _____?
A. armadillo
B. mosquito
C. fruit bat
D. crow
E. Culicoides sonorensis

D. crow

123

A dog is presented to you with the clinical signs of irritability, restlessness, nervousness, tendency to bite, & difficulty swallowing. It has no history of any vaccinations. This clinical presentation is most likely due to infection with which?
A. Orthomyxovirus
B. Parvovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Herpesvirus
E. Rhabdovirus

E. Rhabdovirus

124

Negri bodies are found in tissues from animals with:
A. FIV
B. EVR
C. Rabies
D. BVD

C. Rabies

125

Dr Krout-Blakey just returned home when Farmer Jones calls. One of his cows is bellowing & acting like she has something caught in her throat. Dr K-B reports back to the farm &:
A. immediately performs an oral exam & searches for a lodged foreign body
B. handles the cow with caution because she suspects it may have Rabies
C. looks for subtle signs of the disease she suspects, such as knuckling over or the tail head carried high
D. B & C

D. B & C

126

What species below is not affected by rabies?
A. Dogs
B. Goats
C. Horses
D. Pigs
E. All are infected

E. All are infected

127

TGE (Transmissible Gastro Enteritis) in swine is similar to which small animal disease:
A. Distemper
B. Rabies
C. Parvovirus
D. FIP

C. Parvovirus

128

Which of the following can be vaccinated against in cats using a recombinant canarypox vaccine?
A. FeLV
B. FIV
C. Rabies
D. FIP

C. Rabies

129

Some of the current routine laboratory techniques used in the diagnosis of acute viral infections in companion, farm, & wild animals are listed below. Select the correct statement.
A. Virus isolation remains the "Gold Standard" in viral diagnostics as cultivable viruses will induce cytopathic effects (CPE) in the proper susceptible cell culture in the form of syncytia (Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus), intranuclear inclusion bodies (Beluga Whale Herpesvirus), intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Canine Distemper Virus), or other types of CPE.
B. Detection of viral antigens can be performed on samples such as: scrapings of the conjunctival sac, fixed on a glass slide & stained to detect intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Canine Distemper Virus), impressions of brain stem on glass slides followed by direct immunofluorescence (DIF) to detect intracytoplasmic (Negri bodies) fluorescence in neurons of rabid animals, immunoperoxidase staining of sections of the parotid gland to detect Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus infection in alpacas, etc.
C. Detection of viral nucleic acids using direct PCR or quantitative PCR for DNA viruses & reverse transcription PCR for RNA viruses using total DNA or RNA extracted from respiratory or focal swabs, lesions & tissues have "taken over" the world of diagnosis
D. Electron microscopy allows for the visualization & identification of viruses in preparations of lesions, tissues, swabs that contain at least 10^6 particles per ml
E. All the above statements are correct

E. All of the above are correct

130

In the case of Type A Influenza viruses, choose the INCORRECT statement from the statements below.
A. There are to date 17 known hemagglutinin (HA) subtypes that have been identified from avian or mammalian hosts & 9 known neuraminidase (NA) subtypes.
B. Point mutations in either or both of the HA & or NA are responsible for antigenic drifts that necessitate annual evaluation of the influenza viruses that are incorporated in vaccines to be used in the prevention of seasonal flu in humans.
C. Genetic reassortment of different type A influenza viruses is mainly responsible for the virus antigenic shift that is occasionally seen with these viruses & has been responsible for the 3 major recorded influenza pandemics in humans
D. Reassorted influenza viruses may acquire different tropism, increased virulence, & may cross species barriers
E. Reassorted influenza viruses never acquire different tropism, increased virulence or cross species barriers.

E. Reassorted influenza viruses never acquire different tropism, increased virulence or cross species barriers.

131

Some viruses have the capability of agglutinating RBCs, a property known as hemagglutination, which is frequently used in diagnostic virology to detect the presence of hemagglutinating or hemabsorbing viruses in cell cultures, lesion extracts & excretions/secretions. Which one of the following viruses is not a hemagglutinating virus &, therefore, hemagglutination & its inhibition (hemagglutination inhibition or HI) cannot be used in the laboratory for its diagnosis:
A. Porcine Parvovirus
B. Equine Influenza Virus
C. Feline Panleukopenia Virus
D. Canine Distemper Virus
E. Bovine Parainfluenza Virus 3

D. Canine Distemper Virus

132

Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP) is a systemic, progressive fatal disease of domestic & wild cats caused by variant viruses originating from feline enteric coronaviruses. The statements below refer to the currently accepted pathogenesis events that result in FIP. Select the correct statement.
A. All 4 (B-E) are correct.
B. Most Coronaviruses, including Feline Enteric Coronavirus, may exist in the host as quasi species, that may eventually favor selective strong replication of the "fittest" virus with the potential for inducing clinical FIP.
C. Both the "wet" & "dry" forms of FIP are different manifestations of the same original Feline Enteric Coronavirus infection.
D. Ascitic fluid aspirated from the abdominal cavity of cats affected by the "wet" form of FIP contain inflammatory cells such as macrophages, lymphocytes, neutrophils, that will provide a solid diagnosis of FIP, especially if stained with labeled-specific anti-serum to FIP virus.
E. A central hypothesis in the pathogenesis of the Feline Infectious Peritonitis is that Feline Enteric Coronavirus, for reasons that are not entirely clear, undergo mutation in the infected cat, which result in the emergence of mutant virus endowed with increased virulence & that target macrophages.

A. All 4 (B-E) are correct.

133

The development of molecular epidemiology for Rabies virus has greatly advanced not only the precise & unambiguous diagnosis of Rabies virus infection but also has provided state-of-the-art tools for investigating & pin-pointing sources of infection across the animal kingdom. From the statements below that refer to the molecular epidemiology of Rabies virus, select the correct statement:
A. Sequencing of the glycoprotein G & phylogenetic analysis will group the Rabies virus in question with previously known Rabies viruses
B. Phylogenetic analysis can identify "spill-over" outbreaks & determine the animal species from which the Rabies virus originated
C. Rabies virus genotypes are a reflection of the virus' host preference: i.e., "raccoons-bite-raccoones-bite-raccoons..."
D. In the case of paralytic rabies observed in cattle in Latin America, sequence of the glycoprotein G & its phylogenetic analysis would identify the Rabies virus as originating in vampire bats (Desmodus rotundas).
E. All of the above are correct

E. All of the above are correct

134

Transmissible Gastroenteritis (TGE) is a highly contagious coronavirus infection of swine that is most severe in young piglets, in which it causes vomiting, severe watery diarrhea, severe dehydration, significant weight loss & death. In older pigs & adult pigs, the infection may result in transient diarrhea or be subclinical. The statements below refer to the epidemiology of the infection. Please select the correct statement.
A. Explosive TGE outbreaks occur when infected pigs are introduced into non-immune pig herds.
B. TGE becomes enzootic in an infected premise if susceptible piglets are continuously born to non-immune sows / gilts.
C. TGE may become enzootic if susceptible pigs are introduced into an infected swine herd.
D. TGE epizootic ends when no susceptible pigs are left in the swine herd.
E. All the statements above are correct.

E. All of the statements above are correct

135

As related to the epidemiology & transmission of Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV), & to its effects on the immune system & response, identify the INCORRECT statement:
A. The vast majority of FIV infections occur among outdoor, intact cats that consistently fight
B. Infection with FIV increases susceptibility to opportunistic infections, induces cytokine dysregulation & suppresses innate & acquired cellular immune responses
C. Infection with FIV induces a shift from T-helper 1 (Th-1) to T-helper 2 (Th-2) lymphocytes
D. Infection with FIV induces a shift from T-helper 2 (Th-2) to T-helper 1 (Th-1) lymphocytes
E. FIV infection may lead to anergy & apoptosis of lymphocytes in primary lymphoid tissues

D. Infection with FIV induces a shift from T-helper 2 (Th-2) to T-helper 1 (Th-1) lymphocytes

136

Which one of the swine viruses listed below does NOT target & destroy the mature epithelial (enterocyte) cells that line the superior surface of the small intestine (mainly jejunum) villi?
A. Transmissible Gastroenteritis Virus
B. Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea Virus
C. Swine Rotavirus
D. Porcine Respiratory Coronavirus
E. None of the above

D. Porcine Respiratory Coronavirus

137

The following statements refer to the epidemiology of Rabies virus in humans or domestic animals. Please identify the INCORRECT statement:
A. In the US, skunks, raccoons, bats, & foxes are considered to be the main reservoirs of Rabies virus
B. Most cryptic cases of Rabies virus in humans (who do not recall being bitten) in the US are due to variants of the bat lineage
C. Most cases of Rabies virus in humans in the US are due to dog Rabies virus
D. Over the world, although transmission of aerosolized Rabies virus in humans working in bat caves may occur, by far the highest risk of acquiring Rabies is through the bite of a rabid animal
E. Corneas from unknowingly Rabies virus-infected humans that were transplanted to human recipients have produced Rabies

C. Most cases of Rabies virus in humans in the US are due to dog Rabies virus

138

Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV) is a Pneumovirus that causes lower respiratory tract disease in cattle, sheep, & goats. This ubiquitous virus is found worldwide & by the time calves are 1-year old, 70% of them have already encountered the virus & have neutralizing antibodies. The statements below refer to clinical features, epidemiology, & diagnosis of BRSV. Identify the correct statement.
A. BRSV disease most frequently occurs during winter months when animals have to be housed in confined conditions, spreading rapidly by respiratory aerosols & infective nasal secretions.
B. Although the protective immune response is not ideal as it will not prevent infection or reinfection, vaccination with currently available vaccines is the best tool we have to protect recently weaned-calves & young bovines from BRSV disease & from developing severe clinical signs.
C. Reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) on total RNA obtained from nasal secretions & cells from tracheal washings is an excellent approach to diagnose BRSV infection during outbreaks.
D. BRSV is an important pathogen in the pathogenesis of Bovine Respiratory Disease (BRD) complex that infects & destroys the ciliated epithelium of the lung airways. This induces oral breathing & severe respiratory distress, high fever, runny noses with copious frothy excretions / secretions, pneumonia with pulmonary edema & emphysema, further complicated by superimposed bacterial infection & death.
E. All the above statements are correct

E. All of the statements above are correct

139

In the statements below, identify the statement that is INCORRECT in the case of Type A Influenza viruses of domestic animals:
A. In the US, avian influenza viruses of subtypes H5 & H7 have been recognized as major threats for the poultry industry, regardless of whether the virus is highly-pathogenic or of low-pathogenicity.
B. Equine Influenza Virus (EIV) H7N7 was last observed in the USA in 1979, & since then, all outbreaks of Equine Influenza have been caused by H3N8 Influenza Virus.
C. All 3 Swine Influenza Viruses circulating in swine (H1N1, H1N2, & H3N2) in the USA are known to be reassortments.
D. It seems, so far, that the only dog influenza virus circulating in dogs in the USA is an H3N8 virus.
E. Avian Influenza Virus in the USA in controlled by immunization with either live-attenuated vaccines, inactivated vaccines, or poxvirus-vectored vaccines.

E. Avian Influenza Virus in the USA in controlled by immunization with either live-attenuated vaccines, inactivated vaccines, or poxvirus-vectored vaccines. (This question is no longer valid unless he changes option D)

140

Swine Influenza Virus (SIV) is transmitted by infective respiratory aerosols & when complicated by concurrent infections such as those caused by E. coli, Circoviruses, etc, animals may succumb to the ensuing interstitial bronchopneumonia. Which one of the statements below is CORRECT as far as the epidemiology of SIV?
A. SIV does not become endemic in swine herds that practice all-in/all-out system of rearing & exploitation
B. Swine are considered to be "mixing vessels" for influenza viruses, especially when poultry & pigs are present on the same farm
C. Swine Influenza Viruses may infect humans & turkeys & human influenza viruses are known to infect swine
D. Colostrum immunity modulates clinical signs & SIV spread in the pig herd
E. All of the above statements are correct
E. All of the above statements are correct

E. All of the above statements are correct

141

The statements below refer to Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) infection & disease. Choose the INCORRECT statement.
A. FIV is mainly transmitted through biting: "inoculating virus contained in the saliva" of infected cats & to a much lesser extent through mating or grooming of newly born kittens. However, the colostrum & milk of acutely infected queens may contain infectious FIV that will be the source of infection for kittens.
B. Infection with FIV is for life & the presence of FIV-antibodies in the blood correlates directly with the presence of virus in blood & saliva.
C. The sero-prevalance of FIV in healthy cats is ~1% while the prevalence in sick domestic cats is about 30%.
D. Currently available vaccines against FIV afford efficient cross-protection against a variety of circulating FIV strains, which allow for the differentiation of vaccinated cats & infected cats (DIVA strategy).
E. The incubation period of FIV infection towards "Cat AIDS" is measured in years & the progression to clinical disease parallels a decline in circulating CD4+ T lymphocytes.

D. Currently available vaccines against FIV afford efficient cross-protection against a variety of circulating FIV strains, which allow for the differentiation of vaccinated cats & infected cats (DIVA strategy).

142

Vaccination is the main strategy to control Rabies & relies on the fact that the glycoprotein G of Rabies virus is arguably one of the best known immunogens. From the choices below, select the statement that is INCORRECT when it comes to immunization against Rabies.
A. In some states in the US, it is THE LAW to keep pets vaccinated & up-to-date against Rabies virus.
B. Bait-vaccination against Rabies virus has been successfully used in several countries, including the US, to control Rabies in wildlife such as foxes, raccoons, skunks, using vectored vaccines such as canary pox & vaccine virus, that express the glycoprotein G.
C. Live-attenuated vaccines are not recommended for use in wildlife
D. Wildlife such as pandas, Siberian or Bengal tigers, should only be vaccinated against Rabies with vectored vaccines that express the glycoprotein G.
E. Wildlife should only be vaccinated against Rabies using live-attenuated vaccines.

E. Wildlife should only be vaccinated against Rabies using live-attenuated vaccines.

143

In the prevention & control of Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV), testing, identification, & culling of persistently-infected bovines are key in the eventual eradication of this viral infection from the herd. When eradication of BVDV from an infected herd is not immediately possible, vaccination is the strategy of choice. From the statements below, select the INCORRECT statement:
A. Vaccination with inactivated (killed) BVDV vaccines will prevent or reduce clinical disease but will not prevent transplacental infection of the embryo or fetus in pregnant cows.
B. Live-attenuated BVDV vaccines are widely used because these produce better protection against transplacental infection of the embryo & fetus in the pregnant cow.
C. In general, heifers should be vaccinated twice with live-attenuated BVDV vaccine, with the 2nd vaccination done about 1-month before breeding.
D. Live-attenuated BVDV vaccines can be used in pregnant cows if the animal has been vaccinated twice already; the 2nd time within the last 12 months.
E. Live attenuated BVDV vaccines can be used in BVDV persistently-infected animals without dangers of inducing mucosal disease.

E. Live attenuated BVDV vaccines can be used in BVDV persistently-infected animals without dangers of inducing mucosal disease.

144

Avian Lymphoid Leukosis (ALL) Virus is an exogenous RNA tumor virus that causes lymphoid tumors in chickens. In reference to its transmission & tumorigenesis, select the CORRECT statement from the options below:
A. ALL virus infection is perpetuated in nature by vertical transmission from the infected viremic laying hen into the embryonated chicken egg.
B. Chicks infected in ova with ALL virus hatch viremic, are immunologically tolerant to the infecting virus, & shed virus in the saliva & feces contaminating their hatch-mates at both the hatchery & the chicken house.
C. ALL tumors originate by transformation of lymphoid cells of the B-cell lineage within the primary lymphoid organ known as the Bursa of Fabricius.
D. ALL gross tumors in young adult chickens cannot be easily differentiated macroscopically from those of Marek's disease. However, the absence of nerve infiltration with inflammatory cells, negativity for the MEQ gene in the tumors by PCR & presence of B-cell markers on the tumor cells membrane is diagnostic of ALL.
E. All the above statements are correct.

E. All of the above statements are correct

145

As far as the pathogenesis of mucosal disease caused by Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV), identify the CORRECT statement:
A. The initial BVDV biotype infecting the bovine is always non-cytopathic (ncp)
B. Non-cytopathic (ncp) biotypes of BVDV are often isolated from persistently-infected bovines, which are immunologically tolerant to the specific ncp virus infecting the animal
C. Bovines that develop mucosal disease are always dually infected with a non-cytopathic (ncp) biotype & a cytopathic (cp) biotype of BVDV
D. Bovines persistently-infected with BVDV are life-long shedders & are responsible for perpetuating the infection & disease in the herd
E. All the above statements are correct

E. All of the above statements are correct

146

Listed below are some clinical specimens appropriate to be sent to the laboratory to confirm the diagnosis of viral infections in companion, farm, or wild animals. Identify the correct statement.
A. For respiratory syndromes that may involve Equine Influenza Virus, Canine Distemper Virus, Bovine Parainfluenza Virus 3, & Porcine Respiratory Coronavirus, the remittance of nasal specimens, nasal-pharyngeal swabs, or throat swabs to the diagnostic laboratory is correct
B. In the case of diarrheic syndromes, the remittance of clinical samples such as rectal swabs &/or feces is correct for performing PCR/RT-PCR or virus isolation
C. In cases in which one suspects sheep Contagious Ecthyma (ORF), Bovine Papular Stomatitis, Pseudocowpox, Swinepox, or Cutaneous Dolphin Herpes, the remittance of deep swabs, scrapings of the skin or mucosal lesion or biopsies is correct
D. In cases where there are signs of central nervous system involvement (not Rabies), the remittence of CSF is justified for performing PCR or RT-PCR
E. All of the above statements are correct
E. All of the above statements are correct

E. All of the above statements are correct

147

Bovine Respiratory Disease (BRD) complex is the most significant disease associated with feedlot & dairy cattle in the US & is responsible for lung damage, immunosuppression, & bronchopneumonia with superimposed bacterial infections & death. BRD complex accounts for ~75% of health problems in cattle & costs the US beef & dairy industries a combined 1.1 million deaths & close to $700 million annually. From the list below, select the pathogen(s) that are associated with BRD complex:
A. Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus & Bovine Herpesvirus 1
B. Bovine Parainfluenza Virus 3 & Bovine Coronavirus
C. Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus
D. Manheimaia haemolytica & Mycoplasma bovis
E. All of the above pathogens

E. All of the above pathogens