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Viruses Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the RNA enveloped viruses?

A 
Orthomyxovirus
Paramyxovirus - para of M's (mumps and measles)
Arbovirus
Rhabdovirus
Retrovirus
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2
Q

What are the RNA naked viruses?

A

cpR

calicivirus
picoRNAvirus
reovirus

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3
Q

What type of genetic makeup is orthomyxovirus?

A

ssRNA that is segmented

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4
Q

What are the four segmented viruses?

A

BOAR

Bunyaviridae
Orthomyxovirus (contains influenza)
Arenaviridae
Reoviridae

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5
Q

How are influenza viruses classified?

A

based on their nucleocapsid antigens

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6
Q

How is influenza spread?

A

respiratory droplets

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7
Q

After an influenza infection which microorganism can lead to fatalities due to post influenzal complications?

A

staph aureus

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8
Q

What is the most common influenza?

A

Influenza A

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9
Q

What does the ability of influenza A to cause epidemics depend on?

A

antigenic changes in the hemagglutinin and neuroaminidase

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10
Q

What are the two types of changes in a virus or bacteria?

A

antigenic shift

antigenic drift

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11
Q

What is antigenic shift?

A

major changes based on reassortment of genome pieces

This leads to new surface molecules (change in the envelope)

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12
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

minor changes based on random mutations

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13
Q

What is the treatment for influenza A

A

Amantidine/ Rimantidine

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14
Q

What does amantidine do?

A

inhibits replication of influenza A by interfering with viral attachement and uncoating. It is effective in prophylaxis and treatment of influenza A.

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15
Q

what disease can lead to Reyes syndrome if you take aspirin?

A

Influenza A

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16
Q

What virus comes from parainfluenza virus?

A

paramyxovirus

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17
Q

What diseases come from paramyxovirus?

A

parainfluenza virus
RSV
Mumps
Measles

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18
Q

What type of genome is paramyxovirus?

A

ssRNA

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19
Q

What is syncytia formation?

A

The disease induces cells to form multinuceated giant cells.

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20
Q

What is a virus that can lead to syncytia formation?

A

paramyxovirus

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21
Q

How is parainfluenza transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets and direct contact

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22
Q

What is a common symptom of parainfluenza?

A

Croup (acute laryngotracheobronchitis) and pneumonia in children

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23
Q

What treatment is there for paramyxovirus?

A

There is none

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24
Q

What is RSV?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

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25
What population is prone to getting RSV?
infants
26
What is the most common cause of pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants?
RSV
27
Which is the only paramyxovirus that lacks the glycoproteins hemagglutinin and neuroaminadase (surface spikes)
RSV
28
What is the treatment of RSV?
ribavarin | CRibavarin for babies
29
How are mumps transmitted?
respiratory droplets
30
What are common symptoms for mumps?
parotitis (unilateral or bilateral) and orchitis
31
What is Rubeola?
Measles
32
How is Rubeola transmitted?
respiratory droplets
33
what are common symptoms of rubeola?
Koplik's spots in the oral cavity
34
What are koplik's spots?
small, bluish-white lesions surrounded by red ring. Generally they are found opposite to molars in the oral cavity and associated with measles.
35
What are the three C's of symptoms with measles?
Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis
36
What is arbovirus
arthropod borne viruses
37
what are the 3 different arbovirus categories?
Togavirus Flavivirus Bunyavirus and Arenavirus
38
What is another name for Rubivirus?
Rubella or german measles
39
What category of Arboviruses is rubivirus in?
Togavirus
40
How is Rubivirus transmitted?
respiratory droplets
41
What is the only Togavirus NOT transmitted by respiratory droplets?
Rubivirus
42
What is a symptom of german measles?
erythematous rash
43
what is the prevalence of Rubivirus?
It is almost eradicated due to the MMR vaccine
44
What are the placenta crossing organisms aka teratogens?
``` TORCHes TOxoplasmosis gondi Rubella CMV HErpes zoster and HEpatitis BCE Syphilis ```
45
What type of malformations can Rubella cause in an embryo?
Heart - patent ductus arteriosus Eyes - cataracts Brain - deafness and intellectual disabilities
46
What does Flavivirus mean?
Flavi means Yellow, so Yellow Virus
47
What are the flavivirus diseases?
Yellow Fever Dengue fever West Nile Virus Hepatitis C
48
What causes yellow fever?
mosquitos that have a monkey and human reservoir.
49
What are symptoms of yellow fever?
fever, black vomit, jaundice (yellow) pneumonic remember "a skeeter on a monkey's peeter, bites it and likes the flavir then bites you and makes you yeller."
50
What virus is in the bunyavirus and arenavirus category that we should know?
Hantavirus
51
What is the transmission of Hantavirus?
Rodent borne Think "Bunny's playing with rodents in the arena)
52
What does Rhabdovirus cause?
rabies
53
What is the histology of rhabdovirus?
Negri bodies
54
What does rhabdovirus infect?
warm-blooded animals
55
What shape is rhabdovirus?
a bullet
56
What is Retrovirus?
It refers to the enzyme reverse transcriptase. It can transcribe RNA to DNA.
57
What are the 3 groups of Retroviruses?
1. oncovirus 2. lentivirus 3. spumavirus - foamy chimpanzee, non pathogenic
58
What is another name for oncovirus?
HTLV or human T-lymphocytic Virus
59
What is an oncovirus
a virus that causes cancer
60
What does oncovirus produce?
leukemias lymphomas breast carcinomas sarcomas
61
What are the four types of oncoviruses?
HTLV1, HTLV2, HTLV3, HTLV4
62
What was HTLV3 previously known as but not anymore?`
HIV
63
What famous disease is associated with lentivirus?
HIV
64
Which virus kills T helper cells and causes immunosuppression?
Lentivirus
65
How does lentivirus spread?
Through macrophages throughout the body
66
What cells do HIV affect?
CD4 or T-helper cells
67
What fluid is HIV transferred by?
semen, serum, amniotic fluid, breast milk (NOT saliva)
68
How do new strains of HIV happen?
As a result of errors in transcription. NOT translation!
69
What is the difference between capsid and nucleocapsid?
capsid - protein coat around viral DNA | nucleocapsid - the capsid + the nucleic acid
70
What is an viral envelope?
a lipid bilayer that surrounds the capsid
71
What are the DNA viruses?
HHAPPP (happy) ``` Herpes HepaDNA Adeno Papova Parvo Pox ```
72
What is the only virus that is diploid as opposed to haploid?
retrovirus
73
How does a virus adsorb onto a cell?
ONLY through cell receptors and a viral surface component. NOT via phagocytosis or using cell energy etc...
74
What is positive sense and negative sense?
positive sense: RNA has the same base sequence as the mRNA Negative sense: a complimentary sequence as the cell mRNA. The virus must carry its own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
75
What are two examples of negative sense RNA virus?
orthomyxovirus and paramyxovirus
76
What is a bacteriophage?
a virus that can only infect bacteria
77
What are the two life cycles of a bacteriophage?
lytic phase | lysogenic phase
78
What is another name for lytic phase? what is this phase?
virulent phase - when the virus is active and will kill the cell via lysis.
79
What is another name for the lysogenic phase? what is this phase?
temperate phase: when the virus is inactive and integrates into chromosomes.
80
What is a prophage?
a bacteriophage genome that has integrated itself into a chromosome.
81
What is phage conversion or lysogenic conversion?
When a good bacteria gets turned toxic or virulent by a virus
82
What is an example of phage conversion?
C. diphtheria becoming pathogenic after phage conversion or conversion of erythrogenic toxin by strep pyogenes
83
What are two ways that diptheria toxin can be triggered?
1. phage conversion | 2. AND in presence of low iron
84
Which DNA viruses are not enveloped?
PAP (girls are naked when they get a PAP smear) Papova Adeno Parvo
85
What DNA virus is the only virus where transcription occurs in the cytoplasm instead of the nucleus?
poxvirus
86
Which DNA viruses are ds versus ss?
ALL are double stranded except for parvovirus He has never made a SINGLE PARhole his whole life.
87
Whic DNA viruses are linear vs circular?
ALL are linear except for Papovavirus and Hepdnavirus
88
What are HIV-1 infection examples?
gingivostomatitis keratoconjunctivitis meningoencephalitis esophagitis in HIV patients
89
What is the only virus to obtain their envelopes by budding from the nuclear membrane?
HSV
90
Where does HSV-1 produce latency? HSV-2?
HSV-1 : trigeminal ganglion | HSV-2: lumbar and sacral ganglion
91
What is HSV-2 associated with?
cervical carcinoma or cervicitis
92
How is VZV spread?
respiratory droplets AND direct contact
93
What is a tzanck test and what is it used for?
its a smear of opened skin vesicles to detect multinucleated giant cells. Its used for HSV-1, HSV-2, and VZV
94
What disease does EBV cause?
infectious mononucleosis (kissing disease)
95
What cell does EBV infect?
B cells and some epithelial cells
96
What is the latent EBV called?
SBV
97
What can develop from EBV?
Burkitt's lymphoma nasopharyngeal carcinoma hodgkins lymphoma
98
What is a symptom of EBV
oral hairy leukoplakia
99
What is the most unique symptom of infectious mononucleosis?
splenomegaly
100
How can infectious mononucleosis be tested for?
elevated heterophile titer greater than 1:128 (an antibody agglutination test)
101
What is the major viral cause of birth defects in infants in developed countries? what about non-developed countries?
CMV | Rubella
102
What is the antiviral used to treat HSV diseases?
Acyclovir
103
What is another name for Hepadnavirus?
Hepatitis B
104
What virus is the only virus that has DNA polymerase with reverse transcriptase activity?
Hepadnavirus
105
What shape is pox virus?
brick-shaped POX in a brick box (it is also enveloped)
106
What is the largest and most complex animal virus?
Pox virus
107
What are three poxvirus diseases?
1. Smallpox virus 2. Molluscum cantagiosum virus - causes wart-like skin lesions 3. Vaccinnia Virus - used to develop vaccines
108
How are we protected from smallpox?
by vaccination of cow-pox virus (antigenic cross reactivity)
109
What is a type of Papovavirus?
HPV - human papillo virus
110
What is the most common VIRAL STD?
HPV
111
What is the most common STD?
chlamydia
112
What is a symptom of HPV?
papillomas or warts
113
What type of virus is HPV?
a DNA oncogenic virus (NOT RNA, that is retrovirus)
114
What other pathologies is HPV associated with?
cervical carcinoma (HPV16 and HPV18) also Condyloma Acuminatum (genital warts)
115
What type of HPV causes cervical carcinoma?
HPV16 and HPV 18
116
What type of HPV causes condyloma acuminatum?
HPV6 and HPV11
117
Can HPV be associated with verruca vulgaris?
Yes
118
ADENovirus pneumonic
A DEN of preschoolers with pink eye and colds So it causes URI and LRI like a cold can cause pink eye
119
How is adenovirus transmitted?
respiratory droplets, fecal-oral, direct inoculation
120
What is the real name for pink eye?
acute contagious conjunctivitis
121
What is another name for parVovirus?
ParVovirus B19
122
What disease is associated with Parvovirus?
5th disease (ParVovirus, the V for 5th)
123
What is 5th disease?
slapped cheek syndrome or erythema infectiousum remember 5 fingers slapping a plastic face
124
What is a complication of parVovirus?
transient aplastic anemia crisis remember 5 fingers slapping a plastic face
125
What is a bacterial cell wall like?
rigid and contains peptidoglycan
126
What is murein?
peptidoglycan
127
What is unique to the gram positive cell wall?
teichoic acid
128
What is unique to the gram negative cell wall?
LPS
129
What bacteria does NOT have a cell wall?
mycobacteria
130
What are the components of peptidoglycan?
glycan - NAG-NAM | teichoic acid
131
What are components of LPS?
``` Core polysaccharide Somatic O polysaccharide Lipid A (Keto-deoxy-octanoate) - endotoxin activity ```
132
Which component of LPS has endotoxic activity?
Lipid A
133
What does Lipid A cause?
release of TNF and IL-1, which cause inflammation
134
What is the Shwartzman reaction?
an exaggerated response to LPS that results in tissue necrosis
135
What bacteria are acid fast?
mycobacterium and nocardia
136
What color is an acid fast stain?
red
137
What bacteria do not stain?
Rickettsia (gram -) Mycoplasma Mycobacteria Chlamydia (gram -)
138
What is the best phase of bacterial growth for staining bacteria?
log phase
139
What type of respiration does strep mutans do?
anaerobic respiration
140
What is the final electron acceptor?
pyruvate, or organic compound or an intermediate glucose product
141
Which form of Mutation in bacteria is most susceptible to DNAase? Which is least susceptible?
DNA transformation - most DNA transduction - least
142
Which form of mutation in bacteria happens when F-factors or F-plasmid are transferred?
conjugation
143
Which bacterial mutation can transfer antibiotic resistance?
conjugation (not the other two!)
144
Which is the only bacteria that does not have a polysaccharide coat? what type of coat does it have?
Bacillus anthracis has D-glutamate or an amino acid capsule
145
What are inclusion bodies?
also known as granules, they are a storage area in a bacterial cell for nutrients. They store sulfur granules, and Volutin (a type of granule that stores ATP)
146
What are bacteria that have metochromatic (multi-colored) granules?
``` Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (Blue green) Cornybacterium diptheriae ```
147
What are transposons?
genes that encode proteins necessary for antibiotic resistance that can change position on a chromosome or "jump" from a plasmid to a chromosome.
148
What are the most important gram positive rods?
Bacillus Anthracis (spore forming) Clostridium (spore forming) Corynebacterium Listeria
149
What is the difference between clostridium and bacillus?
bacillus is aerobic and clostridium is anaerobic
150
What chemical is contained within spores?
calcium dipicolinate
151
What are some characteristics of Bacillus anthracis? (4)
1. forms spores 2. catalase positive 3. Malachai green spore staining 4. Obligate aerobe
152
What major bacteria are obligate aerobes?
Nice Pets Must Breath Nocardia Pseudomonoa aerogenosa Mycobacterium Bacillus
153
What are the three different manifestations of anthrax?
1. pulmonary (woolsorters disease) 2. GI 3. Cutaneous (black eschar)
154
What is woolsorters disease?
An anthrax disease also known as woolsorters disease. The person can get life-threatening pneumonia and a widened mediastinum
155
What are the 3 proteins in anthrax toxin?
1. Lethal factor (LF) 2. Edema factor (EM) 3. Protective antigen (PA)
156
What does edema factor do in anthrax toxin?
imitates adenylate cyclase (increase cAMP)
157
What the difference of anthracosis and anthrax?
they have nothing to do with each other! | anthracosis is a disease of coal miners by inhaling coal dust, or black lung disease. It is not predisposed to cancer.
158
What can Gardner's syndrome lead to?
colon cancer
159
What are the 4 types of clostridium?
c. botulinum c. difficile c. perfringens c. tetani
160
What are the 3 normal flora of the GI tract that are pathogenic anywhere else?
ABC's Actinomyces Bacteroides Clostridium
161
Is botulism an infection?
No its an intoxication
162
What syndrome can botulism cause?
Botox | also Floppy Baby Syndrome
163
Which clostridium bacteria cannot live well inside the body?
C. botulinum
164
What effect does botulism toxin have on the body?
It the most potent poison known to humans It binds to presynaptic nerve and blocks Ach release This leads to flaccid paralysis of muscle known as Floppy Baby Syndrome. Can lead to death due to respiratory failure.
165
What toxin does C. Difficile release?
Exotoxin A and Exotoxin B
166
What drug can lead to Cdiff?
Clindamycin
167
What is the toxin that causes Gas gangrene?
Alpha toxin or lecithinase from C.perfringens
168
What is alpha toxin?
an enzyme with hyaluronidase, that degrades HA in subcutaneous tissue
169
What does the tetanus toxin do to the body?
blocks glycine release, which is normally a neurotransmitter inhibitor so it leads to paralysis.
170
What shape are corynebacterium?
Rods
171
What disease is caused by corynebacterium diptheria?
pseudomembranous pharyngitis
172
What are characteristics of C. diptheria? (3)
1. Blue red (metachromatic) 2. Grows on tellurite agar 3. Gram positive rod
173
What agar does S. aeruginosa grow on?
MacConkey's agar
174
What encodes to exotoxin in C. diphtheria?
a bacteriophage via phage conversion so C. diphtheria alone is not toxic
175
What is the vaccine for diptheria?
toxoid vaccine
176
What is the mechanism of C. diptheria?
causes ADP ribosylation of EF-2 preventing protein synthesis (just like in pseudomonas!)
177
What are the major gram positive cocci?
1. Staph | 2. Strep
178
What is the main way to distinguish strep from staph?
catalase test Staph aureus is positive strep is negative
179
Which staph bacteria are coagulase positive and which are coagulase negative?
staph aureus is positive | the rest are coagulase negative
180
Which gram + cocci can cause a UTI?
Staph saphrocyticus
181
What is the most common manifestation of staph infection on skin?
cutaneous abcess
182
What is unique about antibiotics and staph?
staph is resistant to penicillin because it has beta-lactamase.
183
any skin, bone and joint infection is most commonly caused by?
staph aureus
184
what gram + cocci is protein A associated with?
staph aureus
185
what other diseases can staph aureus cause other than skin, bone and joint infections?
food poisoning toxic shock syndrome acute bacterial Endocarditis MRSA
186
What is the golden bug?
staph aureus (aureus means gold)
187
what is the incubation period for staph aureus food poisoning?
2-4 hours
188
What does Protein A in staph aureus?
its a protein that binds to immunoglobulins (the Fc region of IgG) and inhibits complement.
189
What are the major characteristics of streptococci? (2)
1. catalase negative | 2. facultative anaerobic gram positive cocci
190
What is the most prevalent bacteria in the oral cavity?
strep
191
What role does strep do in dental plaque?
It has GTF that makes dextran
192
What is the difference between alpha, beta and gamma hemolysis?
alpha - partial beta - complete gamma - no
193
What are the two types of alpha hemolytic strep?
``` s. pneumoniae Viridans streptococci (s. mutans and s. sanguis) ```
194
Alpha hemolytic strep can cause what major pathology?
endocarditis
195
What is the difference between s. pneumoniae and viridans strep?
S. pneumoniae has a capsule (optochin sensitive) | Viridans strep has no capsule and can cause endocarditis
196
What is a major bacteria in Group A Strep?
S. pyogenes - bacitracin sensitive
197
What is a major bacteria in Group B strep?
S. agalactiae - bacitracin resistant
198
Where is strep pyogenes found?
oropharynx
199
What causes scarlet fever?
S. pyogenes (think pyro is hot)
200
What are the two main post streptococcal diseases?
Rheumatic fever | Glomerulonephritis
201
What is streptomycin used for?
its an ABX for TB
202
What are the two major groups for gram - rods?
lactose fermenters and non fermenters

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