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EMT-B CIEMT Group A > Vital Vocabulary > Flashcards

Vital Vocabulary Flashcards

1
Q

Advanced EMT (AEMT)

A

An individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications.

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2
Q

Advanced Life Support (ALS)

A

Advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT.

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3
Q

Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA)

A

Comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect people with disabilities against discrimination.

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4
Q

Automated External Defibrillator (AED)

A

A device that detects treatable, life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and delivers the appropriate electrical shock to the patient.

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5
Q

Certification

A

A process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care.

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6
Q

Community Paramedicine

A

A health care model in which experienced paramedics receive advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the prehospital environment, such as heal evaluations, monitoring of chronic illnesses or conditions, and patient advocacy.

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7
Q

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)

A

A system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system.

Circular System: Plan, Do, Study, Act

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8
Q

Emergency Medical Dispatch (EMD)

A

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and provides callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.

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9
Q

Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)

A

The first trained professional, such as a police officer, firefighter, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance.

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10
Q

Emergency Medical Services (EMS)

A

A multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured.

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11
Q

Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)

A

An individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, use of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications.

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12
Q

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

A

Federal legislation passed in 1996. Its main effect in EMS is in limiting availability of patients’ health care information and penalizing violations of patient privacy.

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13
Q

Intravenous (IV) Therapy

A

The delivery of medication directly into a vein.

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14
Q

Licensure

A

The process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.

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15
Q

Medical Control

A

Physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (off-line/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program.

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16
Q

Medical Director

A

The physician who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field.

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17
Q

Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH)

A

A method of delivering health care which involves providing health care within the community rather than at a physician’s office or hospital.

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18
Q

National EMS Scope of Practice Model

A

A document created by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) that outlines the skills performed by various EMS Providers.

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19
Q

Paramedic

A

An individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills.

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20
Q

Primary Prevention

A

Efforts to prevent an injury or illness from happening.

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21
Q

Primary Service Area (PSA)

A

The designated area in which the EMS agency is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital.

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22
Q

Public Safety Access Point

A

A call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, fire, and ambulance services.

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23
Q

Quality Control

A

The responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care standards are met by EMTs on each call.

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24
Q

Secondary Prevention

A

Efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent.

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25
Q

Acute Stress Reaction

A

Reactions to stress that occur during a stressful situation.

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26
Q

Airborne Transmission

A

The spread of an organism via droplets or dust.

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27
Q

Bloodborne Pathogens

A

Pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

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28
Q

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

A

The primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the United States. The CDC is part of the US department of health and human services.

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29
Q

Communicable Disease

A

A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another.

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30
Q

Concealment

A

The use of objects to limit a person’s visibility of you.

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31
Q

Contamination

A

The presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient’s body.

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32
Q

Cover

A

The tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection.

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33
Q

Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM)

A

A process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium.

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34
Q

Cumulative Stress Reactions

A

Prolonged or excessive stress.

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35
Q

Delayed Stress Reactions

A

Reactions to stress that occur after a stressful situation.

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36
Q

Designated Officer

A

The individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues.

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37
Q

Direct Contact

A

Exposire or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact.

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38
Q

Exposure

A

A situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur.

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39
Q

Foodborne transmission

A

The contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease.

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40
Q

General Adaptation Syndrome

A

The body’s response to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance , and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion.

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41
Q

Hepatitis

A

Inflammatory of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function.

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42
Q

Host

A

The organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent.

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43
Q

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

A

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by HIV, which damages the cells in the body’s immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection and certain cancers.

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44
Q

Immune

A

The body’s ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease.

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45
Q

Indirect contact

A

Exposure or transmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object.

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46
Q

Infection

A

THe abnormal invasion of a host or hose tissues by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, with or without signs or symptoms of disease.

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47
Q

Infection Control

A

Procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel.

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48
Q

Infectious Disease

A

A medical condition cause by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

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49
Q

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

The federal regulatory compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace.

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50
Q

Pathogen

A

A microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host.

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51
Q

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

A

Protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or a hazardous material.

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52
Q

Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

A

A delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. Often the result of one or more unresolved issues concerning the incident, and may relate to an incident that involved physical harm or the threat or physical harm.

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53
Q

Transmission

A

The way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles, or by vectors.

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54
Q

Standard Precautions

A

Protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable diseases.

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55
Q

Vector-Borne Transmission

A

The use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another.

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56
Q

Auscultate

A

To listen with a stethoscope

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57
Q

Palpate

A

To feel

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58
Q

Bradypnea

A

Respiratory rate < normal

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59
Q

Tachypnea

A

Respiratory rate > normal

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60
Q

Abandonment

A

Unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient’s consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.

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61
Q

Advance Directive

A

Written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive.

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62
Q

Applied Ethics

A

The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct.

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63
Q

Assault

A

Unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm.

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64
Q

Battery

A

Unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent.

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65
Q

Bioethics

A

The study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care.

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66
Q

Breach of confidentiality

A

Disclosure of information without proper authorization.

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67
Q

Certification

A

A process by which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards

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68
Q

Compensatory Damages

A

Damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident.

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69
Q

Competent

A

Able to make rational decisions about personal well-being.

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70
Q

Consent

A

Permission to render care.

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71
Q

Contributory Negligence

A

A legal defense that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff.

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72
Q

Credentialing

A

An established process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession, or to function as an organization.

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73
Q

Decision-making capacity

A

Ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care.

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74
Q

Defamation

A

The communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person’s reputation or standing in the community.

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75
Q

Dependent lividity

A

Blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin; a definitive sign of death.

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76
Q

Depositions

A

Oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath.

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77
Q

Discovery

A

The phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain information from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and which will assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial. Discovery includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records.

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78
Q

DNR Order

A

Do not resuscitate Order. Written documentation by a physician giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.

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79
Q

Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care

A

A type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf, in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity.

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80
Q

Duty to Act

A

A medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care.

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81
Q

Emancipated Minors

A

A person who is under the legal age in a given state by, because of other circumstances, is legally considered an adult.

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82
Q

Emergency

A

A serious situation, such as injury or illness that threatens the life or welfate of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention.

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83
Q

Emergency Doctrine

A

The principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient’s age.

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84
Q

Emergency medical care

A

Immediate care or treatment.

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85
Q

Ethics

A

The philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.

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86
Q

Expressed consent

A

A type of consent in which a patient gives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport.

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87
Q

False Imprisonment

A

The confinement of a person without legal authority or the person’s consent.

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88
Q

Forcible Restraint

A

The act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action.

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89
Q

Good Samaritan Laws

A

Statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross, or willful negligence.

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90
Q

Governmental Immunity

A

Legal doctrine that can protect an EMS provider from being sued or which may limit the amount of the monetary judgment that the plaintiff may recover; generally applies only to EMS systems that are operated by municipalities or other governmental entities.

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91
Q

Gross Negligence

A

Conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care.

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92
Q

Health Care Directive

A

A written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should he or she become unable to make decisions. Also known as an advance directive or living will.

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93
Q

Health Care Proxies

A

A type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decisions making capacity. Also known as a durable power of attorney for healthcare.

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94
Q

Implied Consent

A

A type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.

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95
Q

Informed Consent

A

Permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained.

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96
Q

In loco parentis

A

Refers to the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent.

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97
Q

Interrogatories

A

Written questions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another.

98
Q

Kidnapping

A

The seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without his or her consent.

99
Q

Libel

A

False and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing.

100
Q

Licensure

A

The process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.

101
Q

Medicolegal

A

A term relating to medical jurisprudence (law) or forensic medicine.

102
Q

Morality

A

A code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience.

103
Q

Negligence

A

Failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide.

104
Q

Negligence per se

A

A theory that may be used when the conduct of the person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statute.

105
Q

Patient Autonomy

A

The right of a patient to make informed choices regarding his or her health care.

106
Q

Protected Health Information (PHI)

A

Any information about health status, provision of healthcare, or payment for health care that can be linked to an individual. This is interpreted rather broadly and includes any part of a patient’s medical record or payment history.

107
Q

Proximate Causation

A

When a person who has a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual, the EMT, the agency, and/or the medical director may be sued for negligence.

108
Q

Punitive Damages

A

Damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public.

109
Q

Putrefaction

A

Decomposition of body tissues; a definitive sign of death.

110
Q

Res ipsa loquitor

A

When the EMT or an EMS system is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occurred.

111
Q

Rigor Mortis

A

Stiffening of the body muscles; a definitive sign of death.

112
Q

Scope of Practice

A

Most commonly defined by state law; outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient.

113
Q

Slander

A

False and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word.

114
Q

Standard of Care

A

Written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm.

115
Q

Statute of Limitations

A

The time within which a case must be commenced.

116
Q

Tort

A

A wrongful act that gives rise to a civil lawsuit.

117
Q

Base station

A

Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed place.

118
Q

Cellular telephone

A

A low-power portable radio that communicates through an interconnected series of repeater stations called “cells.”

119
Q

Channel

A

An assigned frequency or frequencies that are used to carry voice and/or data communcations.

120
Q

Closed-ended questions

A

Questions that can be answered in short or single word responses.

121
Q

Communication

A

The transmission of information to another person - verbally or through body language.

122
Q

Cultural Imposition

A

When one person imposes his or her beliefs, values, and practices on another because he or she believe his or her ideals are superior.

123
Q

Dedicated Line

A

A special telephone line that is used for specific point-to-point communcations; also known as a hotline.

124
Q

Documentation

A

The recorded portion of the EMT’s patient interaction, either written or electronic. This becomes part of the patient’s permanent medical record.

125
Q

Duplex

A

The ability to transmit and receive simultaneously.

126
Q

Ethnocentrism

A

When a person considers his or her own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

127
Q

Federal Communication Commission (FCC)

A

The federal agency that has jurisdiction over interstate and international telephone and telegraph services and satellite communications, all of which may involve EMS activity.

128
Q

Interoperable Communications System

A

A communication system that uses voice-over-Internet-protocol (VoIP) technology to allow multiple agencies to communicate and transmit data.

129
Q

MED Channels

A

VHF and UHF channels that the Federal Communications Commission has designated exclusively for EMS use.

130
Q

Mobile data terminal (MDT)

A

A small computer terminal inside the ambulance that directly receives data from the dispatch center.

131
Q

Multiplex

A

The ability to transmit audio and data signals through the use of more than one communications channel.

132
Q

Noise

A

Anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message.

133
Q

Open-ended questions

A

Questions for which the patient must provide detail to give an answer.

134
Q

Paging

A

The use of a radio signal and a voice or digital message that is transmitted to pagers (“beepers”) or desktop monitor radios.

135
Q

Patient Care Report (PCR)

A

The legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. PCRs are also known as prehospital care reports.

136
Q

Rapport

A

A trusting relationship that you build with your patient.

137
Q

Repeater

A

A special base station radio that receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.

138
Q

Scanner

A

A radio receiver that searches or “scans” across several frequencies until the message is completed; the process is then repeated.

139
Q

Simplex

A

Single-frequency radio; transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously in both; when one party transmits, the other can only receive, and the party that is transmitting is unable to receive.

140
Q

Standing Orders

A

Written documents, signed by the EMS system’s medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibitions regarding patient care; also called protocols.

141
Q

Telemetry

A

A process in which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals; these signals can then be transmitted by radio or telephone to a receiver with a decoder at the hospital.

142
Q

Therapeutic Communications

A

Verbal and nonverbal communication techniques that encourage patients to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.

143
Q

Trunking

A

Telecommunication systems that allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequencies.

144
Q

UHF (Ultra-high frequency)

A

Radio frequencies between 300 and 3,000 MHz

145
Q

VHF (very high frequency)

A

Radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz; the VHF spectrum is further divided into “high” and “low” bands.

146
Q

Adolescent

A

A young person age 12 to 18 years.

147
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, which eventually leads to a partial or complete blockage of blood flow.

148
Q

Barotrauma

A

Injury caused by pressure to enclosed body surfaces, for example from too much pressure in the lungs.

149
Q

Conventional Reasoning

A

A type of reasoning in which a child looks for approval from peers and society.

150
Q

Early Adult

A

A young adult age 19-40 years.

151
Q

Fontanelles

A

Areas where the neonate’s or infant’s skull has not fused together; usually disappear at approximately 18 months of age.

152
Q

Infant

A

A young child age 1 month to 1 year.

153
Q

Life Expectancy

A

The average number of years a person can be expected to live.

154
Q

Middle Adult

A

An adult age 41 to 60 years.

155
Q

Moro Reflex

A

An infant reflex in which, when an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens his or her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab at things.

156
Q

Neonate

A

A newborn age birth to 1 month.

157
Q

Nephrons

A

The basic filtering units in the kidneys.

158
Q

Older Adult

A

An adult age 61 years or older.

159
Q

Palmar Grasp

A

An infant reflex that occurs when something is placed in the infant’s palm; the infant grasps the object.

160
Q

Postconventional Reasoning

A

A type of reasoning in which a child bases decisions on his or her conscience.

161
Q

Preconventional Reasoning

A

A type of reasoning in which a child acts almost purely to avoid punishment to get what he or she wants.

162
Q

Preschooler

A

A child age 3 to 6 years.

163
Q

Rooting Reflex

A

An infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infant’s cheek, and the infant instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch.

164
Q

School Age

A

A person who is 6 to 12 years of age.

165
Q

Sucking Reflex

A

An infant reflex in which the infant starts sucking when his or her lips are stroked.

166
Q

Toddler

A

A young child age 1 to 3 years.

167
Q

Trust and mistrust

A

Refers to a stage of development from birth to approximately 18 months of age, during which infants gain trust of their parents or caregivers if their world is planned, organized, and routine.

168
Q

Accessory Muscles

A

The secondary muscles of respiration. They include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoids), the chest pectoralis major muscles, and the abdominal muscles.

169
Q

Altered Mental State

A

Any deviation from alert and oriented to person, place, time, and event, or any deviation from a patient’s normal baseline mental status.

170
Q

Auscultate

A

To listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope.

171
Q

AVPU Scale

A

A method of assessing the level of consciousness by determining whether the patient is awake and alert, responsive to verbal stimuli or pain, or unresponsive; used principally early in the assessment process.

172
Q

Blood Pressure

A

The pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of arteries as it passes through them.

173
Q

Bradycardia

A

A slow heart rate, less than 60 beats/min

174
Q

Breath Sounds

A

An indication of air movement in the lungs, usually assessed with a stethoscope.

175
Q

Capillary Refill

A

A test that evaluates distal circulatory system function by squeezing (blanching) blood from an area such as a nail bed and watching the speed of its return after releasing the pressure.

176
Q

Capnography

A

A noninvasive method to quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient’s ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism; effectively measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in expired air over time.

177
Q

Carbon Dioxide

A

Carbon Dioxide is a component of air and typically makes up 0.3% of air at sea level; also a waste product exhaled during expiration by the respiratory system.

178
Q

Chief Complaint

A

The reason a patient called for help; also, the patient’s response to questions such as “What’s wrong?” or “What happened?”

179
Q

Coagulate

A

To form a clot to plug an opening in an injured blood vessel and stop bleeding.

180
Q

Conjunctiva

A

The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye.

181
Q

Crackles

A

A crackling, rattling breath sound that signals fluid in the air spaces of the lungs.

182
Q

Crepitus

A

A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling.

183
Q

Cyanosis

A

A blue-gray skin color that is caused by a reduced level of oxygen in the blood.

184
Q

DCAP-BTLS

A

A mnemonic for assessment in which each area of the body is evaluated for Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures/penetrations, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, and Swelling.

185
Q

Diaphoretic

A

Characterized by light or profuse sweating.

186
Q

Diastolic Pressure

A

The pressure that remains in the arteries during the relaxing phase of the heart’s cycle (diastole) when the left ventricle is at rest.

187
Q

Distracting Injury

A

Any injury that prevents the patient from noticing other injuries he or she may have, even severe injuries; for example, a painful femur or tibia fracture that prevents the patient from noticing back pain associated with a spinal fracture.

188
Q

Focused Assessment

A

A type of physical assessment typically performed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant mechanisms of injury or on responsive medical patients. This type of examination is based on the chief complaint and focuses on one body system or part.

189
Q

Frostbite

A

Damage to tissues as the result of exposure to cold; frozen or partially frozen body parts are frostbitten.

190
Q

General Impression

A

The overall intial impression that determines the priority for patient care; based on the patient’s surroundings, the mechanism of injury, signs and symptoms, and the chief complaint.

191
Q

Golden Hour

A

The time from injury to definitive care, during which the treatment of shock and traumatic injuries should occur because survival potential is best; also called the Golden Period.

192
Q

Guarding

A

Involuntary muscle contractions of the abdominal wall to minimize the pain of abdominal movement; a sign of peritonitis.

193
Q

History Taking

A

A step within the patient assessment process that provides detail about the patient’s chief complaint and an account of the patient’s signs and symptoms.

194
Q

Hypertension

A

Blood Pressure that is higher than the normal range.

195
Q

Hypotension

A

Blood pressure that is lower than the normal range.

196
Q

Hypothermia

A

A condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95F (35C) after exposure to a cold environment.

197
Q

Incident Command System

A

A system implemented to manage disasters and mass- and multiple casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning, report to the incident commander. Also referred to as the incident management system.

198
Q

Jaundice

A

Yellow skin or sclera that is caused by liver disease or dysfunction.

199
Q

Labored Breathing

A

Breathing that requires greater than normal effort; may be slower or faster than normal and characterized by grunting, stridor, and use of accessory muscles.

200
Q

Mechanism of Injury (MOI)

A

The forces, or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury.

201
Q

Metabolism

A

The biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within the cells.

202
Q

Nasal Flaring

A

Widening of the nostrils, indicating that there is an airway obstruction.

203
Q

Nature of Illness (NOI)

A

The general type of illness a patient is experiencing.

204
Q

OPQRST

A

A mnemonic used in evaluating a patient’s pain: Onset, Provocation/palliation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, and Timing.

205
Q

Orientation

A

The mental status of a patient as measured by memory of person (name), place (current location), time (current year, month, and approximate date), and event (what happened).

206
Q

Palpate

A

To examine by touch.

207
Q

Paradoxical Motion

A

The motion of the portion of the chest wall that is detached in a flail chest; the motion - in during inhalation, out during exhalation - is exactly the opposite of normal chest wall motion during breathing.

208
Q

Perfusion

A

The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels.

209
Q

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

A

Protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or a hazardous material.

210
Q

Pertinent Negatives

A

Negative Findings that warrant no care or intervention.

211
Q

Priapism

A

A painful, tender, persistent erection of the penis; can result from spinal cord injury, erectile dysfunction drugs, or sickle cell disease.

212
Q

Primary Assessment

A

A step within the patient assessment process that identifies and initiates treatment of immediate and potential life threats.

213
Q

Pulse

A

The pressure wave that occurs as each heartbeat causes a surge in the blood circulating through the arteries.

214
Q

Pulse Oximetry

A

An assessment tool that measures oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the capillary beds.

215
Q

Reassessment

A

A step within the patient assessment process performed at regular intervals during the assessment process to indentify and treat changes in a patient’s condition. A patient in unstable condition should be reassesssed ever 5 minutes, whereas a patient in stable condition should be reassessed every 15 minutes.

216
Q

Responsiveness

A

The way in which a patient responds to external stimuli, including verbal stimuli (sound), tactile stimuli (touch), and painful stimuli.

217
Q

Retractions

A

Movements in which the skin pulls in around the ribs during inspiration.

218
Q

Rhonchi

A

Coarse, low-pitched breath sounds heart in patients with chronic mucus in the upper airways.

219
Q

SAMPLE History

A

A brief history of a patient’s condition, to determine signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness.

220
Q

Scene Size-up

A

A step within the patient assessment process that involves a quick assessment of the scene and the surroundings to provide information about scene safety and the mechanism of injury or nature of illness before you enter and begin patient care.

221
Q

Sclera

A

The tough, fibrous, white portion of the eye that protects the more delicate inner structures.

222
Q

Secondary Assessment

A

A step within the patient assessment process in which a systematic physical examination of the patient is performed. The examination may be a systematic exam or an assessment that focuses on a certain area or region of the body, often determined through the chief complaint.

223
Q

Shallow Respirations

A

Respirations characterized by little movement of the chest wall (reduced tidal volume) or poor chest excursion.

224
Q

Sign

A

Objective findings that can be seen, heard, felt, smelled, or measured.

225
Q

Situational Awareness

A

Knowledge and understanding of your surroundings and situation and the risk they potentially pose to your safety or the safety of the EMS team.

226
Q

Sniffing Position

A

An upright position in which the patient’s head and chin are thrust slightly forward to keep the airway open.

227
Q

Spontaneous Respiration

A

Breathing that occurs without assistance.

228
Q

Standard Precautions

A

Protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease.

229
Q

Stridor

A

A harsh, high-pitched, breath sound, generally heart during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway; may be audible without a stethoscope.

230
Q

Subcutaneous Emphysema

A

A characteristic crackling sensation felt on palpation of the skin, caused by the presence of air in soft tissues.

231
Q

Symptom

A

Subjective findings that the patient feels but that can be indentified only by the patient.

232
Q

Systolic Pressure

A

The increased pressure in an artery with each contraction of the heart (systole)

233
Q

Tachycardia

A

A rapid heart rate, more than 100 beats/min

234
Q

Tidal Volume

A

The amount of air (in millileters) that is moved in or out of the lungs during one breath.

235
Q

Triage

A

The process of establishing treatment and transportation priorities according to severity of injury and medical need.

236
Q

Tripod Positions

A

An upright position in which the patient leans forward onto two arms stretched forward and thrusts the head and chin forward.

237
Q

Two to three word dyspnea

A

A severe breathing problem in which a patient can speak only two or three words at a time without pausing to take a breath.

238
Q

Vasoconstriction

A

Narrowing of a blood vessel.

239
Q

Vital Signs

A

The key signs that are used to evaluate the patient’s overall condition, including respirations, pulse, blood pressure, level of consciousness, and skin characteristics.

240
Q

Wheezing

A

A high-pitched, whistling breath sound that is most prominent on expiration, and which suggests an obstruction or narrowing of the lower airways; occurs in asthma and bronchitis.

EMT-B CIEMT Group A (5 decks)

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