vocab

Question 1

sensitivity

Answer 1

likelihood of true positive results w/ the disease. __ of test in proportion of ppl known to have dz who test positive for it. ___= positive in disease. TruePos/total # of ppl w/ dz in pop

Question 2

specificity

Answer 2

likelihood of a true negative result in those who are healthy (dz free). relates to tests ability to identify negative results ___ test, when positive, helps to rule in disease. __ of a test defined as the proportion of pt’s that are known not to have the dz who will test negative for it. TrueNeg/total # w/o dz (healthy individuals).

Question 3

Tanner Stage 1 Male

Answer 3

Pre-puberty; asexual

Question 4

Tanner Stage 2 Male

Answer 4

Testes enlg; scrotal skin reddening w/ change in texture; sparse growth of long, slightly pigmented pubic hair at base of penis.

Question 5

Tanner Stage 3 Male

Answer 5

inc in penile length but min change in width, sometimes called ‘pencil penis’ stage; further scrotal enlgmnt; pubic hair darker, coarser, covers greater area; onset of growth spurt

Question 6

Tanner Stage 4 Male

Answer 6

inc in penile length & width w/ development of glans; further darkening of scrotal skin; adult-type pubic hair w/ no spread to medial surface of thighs.

Question 7

Tanner Stage 5 Male

Answer 7

full adult genitalia; adult type pubic hair w/ spread to medial surface of thighs.

Question 8

Tanner Stage 1 Female

Answer 8

pre-puberty/ asexual.

Question 9

Tanner Stage 2 Female

Answer 9

breast buds & papilla elev’d; downy pigmented pubic hair along labia majora.

Question 10

Tanner Stage 3 Female

Answer 10

breast mound enlgmnt; darker, coarser, curling pubic hair on mons, labia majora; onset of growth spurt.

Question 11

Tanner Stage 4 Female

Answer 11

Areola & papilla elev’d to form a 2nd mound above level of breast; adult-type pubic hair w/ no spread to medial surface of thighs; menarche.

Question 12

Tanner Stage 5 Female

Answer 12

Recession of areola to mound of breast, extension of pubic hair to medial thigh.

Question 13

normal/healthy women of reproductive age

Answer 13

vag pH 3.8-4.2. white, clear, flocculent discharge. absent odor. lactobacilli under microscope. no complaints. no intervention.

Question 14

Candida vulvovaginitis. candida albicans 80-90%

Answer 14

vag pH usually d. amine odor: usually absent. microscopic: mycelia, budding yeast, pseudo-hyphae w/ KOH prep. complaints: itching/burning, discharge. intervention: -azole antifungal, po (fluconazole/diflucan) or vag clotrimazole/monistat, terconazole.

Question 15

BV; etiology- unclear, likely polymicrobial assoc’d w/ G. vaginalis, M. hominis.

Answer 15

vag pH >4.5. discharge: thin, homogeneous, white, gray, adherent, often inc’d. amine odor (KOH ‘whiff’ test): present (fishy). microscopic: >20 clue cells/HPF few or no WBCs. complaints: discharge, foul odor, itching occasional. Rx: metronidazole (topical metrogel) or po flagyl, clinda vag cream or ovules (cleocin), po tinidazole.

Question 16

atrophic vaginitis, etiology- estrogen deficiency

Answer 16

vag pH >5. discharge: scant, white-clear. amine odor: absent. microscopic few or absent lactobacilli. complaints: itching/burning, discharge, but often w/o sx’s. Rx: topical &/or vag estrogen if sx.

Question 17

genital herpes

Answer 17

common asymp or atypical sx’s. classic presentation: painful ulcerated lesions, lymphadenopathy w/ initial lesions. women- thin vag d/c if lesion located at vagina or introitus. tx- acyclovir, famciclovir, valacyclovir.

Question 18

nongonococcal urethritis & cervicitis. (chlamydia)

Answer 18

irritative voiding sx’s, occasional mucopurulent dc. women- cervicitis common. often w/o sx’s in either gender. micro exam of dc- lg # of wbc’s. tx: azithro 1 time dose 1st line. alt: doxy, erythro, ofloxacin, levofloxacin (multi days of tx needed). most common bacterial sti

Question 19

gonococcal urethritis & vaginitis (gonorrhea)

Answer 19

irritative voiding sx’s, occasional purulent dc. often w/o sx’s in either gender. micro exam of dc- lg # of wbc’s. tx: ceftriaxone IM 1 time dose + azithro x1 dose or doxy x7d.

Question 20

trichomoniasis (t. vaginalis)

Answer 20

dysuria, itching, vulvovaginal irritation, dyspareunia, yellow-green vag dc, occasionally frothy, cervical petechial hemorrhages (strawberry spots). often w/o sx’s in either gender. on micro exam: motile organisms & lg # wbc’s. alkaline pH. tx: po metronidazole or tinidazole 1x dose. avoid alcohol during tx of po metronidazole or tinidazole. abstinence from alcohol cont x24 hr after metro or 72hr after tinidazole.

Question 21

syphilis (t. pallidum)

Answer 21

primary stage: chancre (firm round, painless genital &/or anal ulcer w/ clean base & indurated margins) accompanied by lymphadenopathy, ~3wks duration, resolve w/o tx. Secondary stage: nonpruritic skin rash, often involving palms & soles, as well as mucous membrane lesions. Fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, patchy hair loss, HA’s, wt loss, muscle aches, & fatigue common. resolution w/o tx possible. latent stage: presentation variable occurs when primary & 2ndary sx’s resolve. tx: antimicrobial tx w/ dose & length dictated by stage. options: ink PCN (1st line), tetracycline, or doxy.

Question 22

Genital warts (condyloma acuminata) HPV 6&11 genital warts. HPV 16, 18, 31, 33 assoc’d w/ GU malignancies.

Answer 22

most common STI. verruca-form lesions can be subclinical or unrecognized. location of lesion can guide choice of tx. podofilox, liquid nitrogen, cryoprobe, trichloracetic acid, podophyllin resin, surgical removal, or imiquimod (only indicated for external warts). trichloroacetic acid & cryoprobe preferred tx during preg.

Question 23

pelvic infalmm dz- gonorrhea, chlamydia, bacteroides, eneterobacteriaceae, streptococci.

Answer 23

infectious, inflamm d/o of upper female reproductive tract, incl uterus, fallopian tubes, adjacent pelvic structures. ascension of sti. irritative voiding sx’s, fever, abd pain, cervical motion tenderness, vag dc. possible sequela incl tubal scarring w/ subsequent inc’d risk for ectopic preg &/or infertility. tx: ceftriaxone IM 1x dose + doxy x 14d w/ or w/o metronidazole x14d.

Question 24

epididymitis/ epididymoorchitis. </=35 yrs

Answer 24

upper reproductive tract infection w/ inflamm of epididymis/testis). etiology: N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis. irritative voiding sx’s, fever, & painful swelling of epididymis, & scrotum. infertility potential post infection. pain. tx: ceftriaxone IM 1xdose + doxy x10d (same as women PID). advise scrotal elev to help w/ sx relief. Plehn’s sign= relief of discomfort w/ scrotal elev.

Question 25

epididymitis/ epididymoorchtis. >/=35 yrs or insertive partner in anal intercourse

Answer 25

enterobacteriaceae (coliforms). irritative voiding sx's, fever, & painful swelling of epididymis & scrotum. infertility potential post infection. voiding pain. primary tx: cipro qd or levofloxacin qd x 10-14d. plehn's sign doesn't apply.

Question 26

acute bacterial prostatitis,

Answer 26

etiology: gon & chlamydia. irritative voiding sx's, suprapubic, perineal pain, fever, tender, boggy prostate, leukocytosis. tx: ceftriaxone IM x1dose, then doxy bid x10d.

Question 27

acute bacterial prostatitis >35 yrs

Answer 27

etiology: enterobacteriaceae (coliforms). irritative voiding sx's, suprapubic, perineal pain, fever, a tender, boggy prostate, leukocytosis. tx: cipro or ofloxacin x14d.

Question 28

paraphimosis

Answer 28

retracted foreskin that cannot be brought forward to cover the glans

Question 29

varicocele

Answer 29

a palpable, 'nest of worms' scrotal mass that is only evident in standing position

Question 30

hydrocele

Answer 30

collection of serous fluid that causes painless scrotal swelling, easily recognized by transillumination

Question 31

phimosis

Answer 31

w/ this, the foreskin cannot be pulled back to expose the glans

Question 32

testicular torsion

Answer 32

characterized by scrotal pain & loss of the cremasteric reflex

Question 33

cryptorchidism

Answer 33

testicle located in inguinal canal or abdomen

Question 34

cholinesterase inhibitors= donepezil (aricept), rivastigmine (exelon), galatamine (razadyne)

Answer 34

mild-mod stage dz, considered to be mainstay of tx. clear tho minor & time-ltd benefits by inching availability of acetylcholine. AE: GI effects. more acetylcholine in body- cholinergic SEs: salivation, ^GI motility, lacrimation, urination, defecation, bradycardic.

Question 35

N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonist= memantine (Namenda).

Answer 35

protects neurons that make acetylcholine. tx of mod-severe AD. thru its effect on glutamate, helps create an environment that allows for storage & retrieval of info.

Question 36

lumbar spinal stenosis

Answer 36

older age >/=50; standing discomfort w/ improvement in sx's w/ bending forward; pseudoclaudication; bilateral lower extremity numbness, weakness in majority. dx: initially none indicated. for sx's >1mo, consider MRI, EMG/NCV. intervention: physical tx, NSAIDs, epidural corticosteroid inj, perhaps surgery.

Question 37

stress incontinence

Answer 37

assoc'd w/ lifting

Question 38

transient incontinence

Answer 38

occurs during an acute illness

Question 39

urge incontinence

Answer 39

reports of strong sensation of needing to void

Question 40

functional incontinence

Answer 40

often occurs in presence of mobility problems

Question 41

McMurray test

Answer 41

meniscal tear

Question 42

talar tilt

Answer 42

ankle instability

Question 43

tinel's sign

Answer 43

carpal tunnel syndrome

Question 44

lachman test

Answer 44

anterior cruciate ligament tear

Question 45

straight leg raising test

Answer 45

lumbar nerve root compression

Question 46

spurling test

Answer 46

cervical nerve root compression

Question 47

drop arm test

Answer 47

rotator cuff evaluation

Question 48

finkelstein test

Answer 48

De Quervain tenosynovitis

Question 49

lumbar sacral strain

Answer 49

etiology: spasm, irritation of LS spine supporting muscles, most common reason for low back pain. characteristics: spasm, ache, stiffness. position, activity, rest typically impacts pain. PE: paraspinal muscle tenderness & spasm. LS curve straightening. dec'd LS flexion. neuro exam wnl. dx: usually not required. dx imaging & testing for pt's w/ low back pain indicated when severe or progressive neuro deficits present or serious underlying conditions. tx: analgesia, physical conditioning/tx, heat or ice as indicated by pain response, muscle relaxer can be helpful but all sedating, some w/ abuse potential. limiting physical activity potentially harmful.

Question 50

lumbar radiculopathy

Answer 50

etiology: irritation or damage of neural structures such as disks L4-L5, L5-S1 most common sites of disk bulge. characteristics: sharp, burn, electric-shock sensation; worse when inc'd spinal fluid pressure, thus pressure on nerve root; sneeze, cough, straining evoke sharp pain. PE: signs of lumbar-sacral strain; altered neuro exam incl: abnl straight leg raising, sensory loss, altered DTR's. dx: no required unless severe or progressive neuro deficits. tx: conservative. specialty veal indicated for rapidly evolving defect, persistent neuro defect w/o resolution after 4-6 wks conservative tx.

Question 51

L4

Answer 51

neuro testing in lumbar vertebral problems. motor: foot dorsiflexion, reflex: knee jerk, sensory area: medial calf.

Question 52

L5

Answer 52

neuro testing in lumbar problems. motor: great toe dorsiflexion, reflex: none, sensory area: medial foot.

Question 53

S1

Answer 53

neuro testing in lumbar problems. motor: foot eversion, reflex: ankle jerk, sensory area: lateral foot

Question 54

NL BMD

Answer 54

BMD w/in 1 SD of a 'young nl' adult (T-score at -1.0 and above

Question 55

low bone mass/osteopenia

Answer 55

BMD btwn 1.0-2.5 SD below that of a 'young nl' adult (T-score btwn -1.0 and -2.5)

Question 56

osteoporosis

Answer 56

BMD is 2.5 SD or more below that of a 'young nl' adult (T-score at or below -2.5). pt's in this group who have already experienced one or more fractures are deemed to have severe or 'established' ____.

Question 57

7-8 mos

Answer 57

can sit & begins to have stranger anxiety

Question 58

4-5 mos

Answer 58

able to roll over from tummy to back, brings hands to mouth, smiles spontaneously, & babbles.

Question 59

6-8 mos

Answer 59

responds to own name & sits w/o support

Question 60

4-6 mos

Answer 60

reaches for toy w/ 1 hand & recognizes familier ppl & objects at a distance

Question 61

~ 9 mos

Answer 61

babbles mamama, bababa, & transfers objects hand-to-hand w/o difficulty

Question 62

6-8 wks

Answer 62

vocalizes 'ah' & 'oh' sounds, & able to life head briefly when positioned on tummy & can turn it from side to side.

Question 63

communicating hydrocele

Answer 63

incomplete sealing of peritoneal cavity at inguinal area during gest leaving communication btwn abd cavity & scrotum. CP: fluid-filled scrotal sac; transillum, contender; testes nl; however amt of fluid in scrotum (size) varies w/ position of neonate; inc's w/ dependent upright position (day) & smaller after supine (night). tx: due to communication, infant at risk for herniation of abd contents; refer to pedi urologist or surgeon

Question 64

non-communicating hydrocele

Answer 64

sealing of abd cavity during gest w/ residual trapped peritoneal fluid in scrotal sac. CP: fluid filled scrotal sac; transillum, nontender; testes nl; no change in scrotal size w/ position change, same at bedtime & when awakens. tx: reassurance, no risk of herniation; no special skin care needed. usually resolves by 2 yrs w/o intervention; refer only if size interferes w/ activity, comfort.

Question 65

9-12 mos

Answer 65

able to self-feed w/ simple finger foods

Question 66

15-20 mos

Answer 66

able to point to a body part when asked

Question 67

30-36 mos

Answer 67

walks backwards

Question 68

12-15 mos

Answer 68

recently learned to put a sm cube in a cup

Question 69

10-11 mos

Answer 69

can pull to standing position w/ ease, not walking solo, enjoys playing peek-a-boo, & recently began to respond to request 'pick up the spoon'

Question 70

12-14 mos

Answer 70

average age of starting to walk

Question 71

18-24 mos

Answer 71

appropriate age to start time outs

Question 72

16-18 mos

Answer 72

~ 25% of speech should be intelligible by ppl not in daily contact w/ child

Question 73

19-21 mos

Answer 73

~50% of speech should be intelligible by ppl not in daily contact w/ child

Question 74

2-2.5 yrs

Answer 74

~ 75% of speech should be intelligible by ppl not in daily contact w/ child

Question 75

3-4 yrs

Answer 75

almost 100% of speech should be intelligible by ppl not in daily contact w/ child. can use plurals

Question 76

~ 4/5 y/o

Answer 76

able to verbalize what to do when cold, hungry, or tired, can draw a person w/ no torso, & able to count to 4.

Question 77

5-6 y/o

Answer 77

can name a best friend

Question 78

6-7 y/o

Answer 78

can draw a person w/ >/= 12 parts & voice an intended career

Question 79

pneumococcal conjugate 13-valent vaccine (PCV 13)

Answer 79

tell 6 month old infant parents that mild fever of 1-2d is most likely to occur after baby receives ___ vaccine b/c its live.

Question 80

6 mos red flag

Answer 80

no big smiles or other warm, joyful expressions

Question 81

9 mos red flag

Answer 81

no back & forth sharing of sounds, smiles, or other facial expressions

Question 82

12 mos red flags

Answer 82

lack of response to name, no babbling or 'baby talk,' no back & forth gestures such as pointing, showing, reaching, or waving

Question 83

16 mos red flag

Answer 83

no spoken words

Question 84

24 mos red flag

Answer 84

no meaningful 2 word phrases that don't involve imitating or repeating.

Question 85

Fragile X syndrome

Answer 85

mostly males affected. lg testicles (macroorchidism) after beginning of puberty, lg body habitus, learning & behavioral differences (hyperactivity, developmental disability common), lg forehead, ears, prominent jaw, tendency to avoid eye contact.

Question 86

Klinefelter syndrome XXY male

Answer 86

only males affected w/ developmental issues, most commonly language impairment. low testicular vol, hip & breast enlgment.

Question 87

scarlet fever

Answer 87

agent- S. pyogenes (group A beta hemolytic streptococci). sandpaper-like rash w/ exudative pharyngitis, fever, HA, tender, localized anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. rash usually erupts on day 2 of pharyngitis & often peels a few days later. tx: pcn 1st line, macrolide in pcn all.

Question 88

roseola

Answer 88

agent- human herpes virus-6 (hhv-6). discrete rosy-pink macular or papular rash lasting hrs to 3 days that follows a 3-7 d period of fever, often quite high. 90% of cases in kids <2y/o. febrile seizures in 10% of kids affected. supportive tx.

Question 89

rubella; agent- rubella virus

Answer 89

mild sx's; fever, s/t, malaise, nasal dc, diffuse maculopapular rash lasting ~3d. posterior cervical & postauricular lymphadenopathy 5-10d prior to onset of rash. arthralgia in ~25% (most common in women). mild, self-limiting dz. greatest risk is effect of virus on unborn child, esp w/ 1st try exposure (~80% rate congenital rubella syndrome). prevent by immunization.

Question 90

Measles

Answer 90

agent- rubeola virus. usually acute presentation w/ fever, nasal dc, cough, generalized lymphandenopathy, conjunctivitis (copious clear dc), photophobia, koplik spots (appear ~2d prior to onset of rash as white spots w/ blue rings held w/in red spots in oral mucosa in ~1/3). pharyngitis usually mild w/o exudate. maculopapular rash onset 3-4d after onset of sx's, may coalesce to generalized erythema. CNS & resp tract complications common. permanent neuro impairment or death possible. supportive tx as well as intervention for complications. prevent by immunization.

Question 91

infectious mononucleosis; agent- epstein-barr virus (human herpes virus 4); dx- monospot test.

Answer 91

maculopapular rash in ~20%, rare petechial rash. fever, 'shaggy' purple-white exudative pharyngitis, malaise, marked diffuse lymphadenopathy, hepatic & splenic tenderness, occasionally enlarged. dx- heterophil antibody test. leukopenia w/ lymphocytosis w/ atypical lymphocytes. >90% will develop a rash if given amoxicillin or ampicillin during illness. potential for resp distress when enlarged tonsils & lymphoid tissue impinges on upper airway; corticosteroids may be helpful. splenomegaly most often occurs btwn day 6-21 after onset of illness. avoid contact sports for >/= 1 month due to risk of splenic rupture.

Question 92

hand, foot, & mouth dz; agent- coxsackie virus A16

Answer 92

fever, malaise, sore mouth, anorexia; 1-2d later, lesions; also can cause conjunctivitis, pharyngitis. duration: 2-7d. transmitted: oral-fecal or droplet route. highly contagious w/ incubation period 2-6wks supportive tx, analgesia important.

Question 93

5th's dz. agent- human parvovirus B19

Answer 93

3-4d mild flu-like illness followed by 7-10d of red rash that begins on face w/ slapped cheek appearance, spreads to trunk & extremities. rash onset corresponds w/ dz immunity w/ pt. viremic & contagious prior but not after onset of rash. droplet transmission. leukopenia common. risk of hydrops fetalis w/ resulting preg loss when contracted by woman during preg. supportive tx

Question 94

kawasaki dz

Answer 94

agent-unknown. for acute phase illness (usually lasts ~11d), fever >104 lasting >/=5d, polymorphous exanthem or trunk, flexor regions, & perineum, erythema of oral cavity (strawberry tongue) w/ very chapped lips, bilateral conjunctivitis usually w/o eye dc, cervical lymphadenopathy, edema & erythema of hands & feet w/ peeling skin (late finding, usually 1-2wks after onset of fever). no other illness accountable for findings. usually kids 1-8y/o. tx: iv immunoglobulin & po asa during acute phase assoc'd w/ reduced rate of coronary abnl such as coronary artery dilation & coronary aneurysm. expert consult & tx advice about asa use & ongoing monitoring warranted.

Question 95

croup/laryngotracheobronchitis

Answer 95

difficult getting air in. viral, all. supportive tx, perhaps systemic corticosteroid tx. upper airway obstruction, stridor.

Question 96

peritonsillar abscess

Answer 96

getting air in a problem. stridor. usually bacterial, most often older kid, often presents w/ 'hot potato' voice, difficulty swallowing, trismus. attn to airway maintenance, prompt ENT consult, sent to hospital, antimicrobial tx, perhaps surgery.

Question 97

acute epiglottitis

Answer 97

getting air in a problem. stridor. bacterial origin (most often H. influenza type B), kids 2-7y/o. abrupt onset, high-grade fever, s/t, dysphage, drooling. attn airway maintenance, prompt ENT, antimicrobial tx, inpatient, get out of mouth, call 911. profound throat pain beyond what PE shows. very bad throat pain but throat doesn't look that bad.

Question 98

acute bronchiolitis

Answer 98

'happy wheezer' 3 mo-3yrs (most <1yr), most often from RSV, less so from influenza or adenovirus, short-term acute illness w/ wheezing often persists ~3wks. usually btwn nov & april. lower airway obstruction. harder getting air out. tx: supportive, little evidence that inhaled bronchodilators or steroids helpful. Palivizumab often used to prevent RSV in premature or immunosuppressed infants.

Question 99

acute bronchitis

Answer 99

lower airway obstruction. harder getting air out. viral, usually caused by pertussis. short-term, self-limiting. tx: supportive, perhaps inhaled beta 2 agonist, po anti-inflamm tx.

Question 100

asthma

Answer 100

lower airway obstruction- getting air out a problem. cause- all, inflamm etiology, sx's recurrent, persist w/o tx. tx: per NIH guidelines, can't do spirometry in <7 y/o.

Question 101

hemangioma

Answer 101

benign tumor of endothelium; local proliferative process that affects endothelial cells; perhaps genetic mutation of epithelial regulation. often NOT present at birth, rapid growth from 1st days of life to 6 mos, slow proliferation 6-12mos. then involution phase from 12mos to 3-6yrs; 1/3 present at birth as light port wine stain. tx: dependent on location, risk of complication, scarring, ulceration; options to slow growth= po propranolol, systemic steroids. watchful waiting; will involute slowly thru early childhood.

Question 102

port wine lesion

Answer 102

d/o of dermal capillaries & post capillary venules. occasionally assoc'd w/ other congenital or genetic syndromes (sturge-weber or AV malformation syndrome). present from birth! blanch able from red to dark pink, grows proportionally w/ child. will darken & often becomes nodular as child grows & will not regress. lesions on face tend to follow branches of trigeminal nerve. tx: pulse dye laser std, lightens lesion but doesn't remove. refer to opthamology if on eyelids- assoc'd w/ glaucoma. refer to neuro if facial lesions & seizures. important to consider genetic & congenital syndrome.

Question 103

mongolian spots

Answer 103

diffuse melanocytes w/in dermis. thought to be d/t interrupted movement of melanocytes during fetal development from neural crest to epidermis. blue-black-gray macular lesions usually on lower back & buttocks, single or multiple. rarely on trunk. lighten over time & often disappear during childhood, no tx required. no malignancy potential.

Question 104

milia

Answer 104

retention of keratin & sebaceous material in pilo-sebaceous glands. raised white bumps mainly on nose & cheeks. no tx. resolve in few weeks. reassure. picking could cause scarring.

Question 105

erythema neonatorum toxicum (ETN)

Answer 105

etiology unkn. thought to be immaturity of pilosebaceous glands (hair follicles). occasionally present at birth, usually appears w/in 1st 48 hrs & resolves by day 5-7. erythematous papules that progress to pustular lesion. observe, no tx indicated. resolve spontaneously. reassure parents.

Question 106

atopic dermatitis

Answer 106

impaired epidermal layer- impaired barrier allowing irritants into dermis; dec'd water content d/t poor barrier; itch-scratch cycle worsens condition. believed genetic component. birth to 2 yrs= red, crusty, extensor, face, scalp. child (2-12) lichenification of flexor surf. adult >12 similar to child but common on hands & feet. tx 3 prongs: eliminate triggers, hydrate (thick creams or ointments, avoid lotions), control itch (sedating antihistamines).

Question 107

acne neonatorum

Answer 107

results from stim of sebaceous glands by maternal or infant androgens. face, esp forehead, nose, cheeks, acneform lesions, starting in 1st month of life, usually lasts 1-2 mos. self resolve. don't squeeze or pick. benzoyl peroxide 2.5% applied to region q day option.

Question 108

seborrhea dermatitis; infants= cradle cap

Answer 108

usually in areas of dense sebaceous glands (scalp, face, groin, underarms). thought to be overstim of sebum production; possible lipid-dependent yeast. erythematous plaque; appears greasy w/ yellow, scales. common in infants but can be present thru-out life. infant scalp tx: apply emollient (petrolatum, vegetable or mineral oil) overnight then remove plaque w/ soft brush. other parts of body: ketoconazole 2% cream once dailyx1wk or low dose hydrocortisone 1% dailyx1wk. common from 3wks-12mos.