Vol. 1 (URE) Flashcards

(89 cards)

1
Q

What is the most rigorous stage of development?

A

Amn and A1C

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2
Q

Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?

A

Squad Leader

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3
Q

Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certain locations?

A

Flight Sergeant

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4
Q

What force development level, compasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?

A

SMSgt

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5
Q

What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?

A

Tactical control

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6
Q

What commander exercises operational control?

A

Joint Force Commander

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7
Q

Supervisors must ensure their troops –

A

possess required qualifications and certifcations

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8
Q

Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?

A

Squadron Commander

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9
Q

Post amd Patrols will be manned in accordance with the –

A

Post priority listing

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10
Q

All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the –

A

Installation commander

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11
Q

Who is responsbile for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm?

A

Commander

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12
Q

How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?

A

3

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13
Q

What drives a post priority chart?

A

Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment

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14
Q

Post priority charts are used to –

A

allocate manpower

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15
Q

Who has the authority to detemine which of your posts can go unamnned?

A

Defense force commander

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16
Q

The post priority chart ensures the efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in –

A

Peacetime and wartime

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17
Q

When possible it is important to rotate persoonel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain –

A

proficiency

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18
Q

What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?

A

Post rotations

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19
Q

As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates?

A

Work ethic

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20
Q

What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?

A

Investigate to determine the cause

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21
Q

The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is –

A

Report

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22
Q

After the command “Open rank, MARCH,” which of the following action does the flight take?

A

The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succedding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress

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23
Q

After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you have advance to and execute a left facing movement?

A

3

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24
Q

When does the second element leader give the comannd, “Second Element, ATTETION”?

A

As the inspecting offical approaches to within six paces of the ight flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

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25
When do you give the command, "Close Ranks, MARCH!"?
Upon departure of the inspecting offical
26
Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments?
AFI 36-2905
27
Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?
Flight member
28
A post check generally includes all of these items except --
weapons inspection
29
What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to reivew and assess someone else's writing?
Air Force Hnadbook (AFH) 33-337
30
When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is --
irrelevant
31
The primary function of reviewing is to ensure --
ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammer; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across
32
Who is responsbile for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropritate professional military education schools?
Senior Security Forces non-commissioned offcers (NCOs)
33
Wgho is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
Air Force Security Forces Center
34
What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
Feedback
35
The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to --
measure the qualification of individuals abd certify them for performing specific duty positions
36
The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to --
deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resoucres
37
Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is --
gunfire or escape
38
When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?
A key vantage points and avenues of apporach to deny entry to unauthorized persons
39
A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous --
psychological deterrent to potential violators
40
During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team should be positioned --
in reserve, out of sight of the crowd
41
All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31-117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel, MAJCOM reuqirements, and as requested by the --
Integrated Base Defense Council
42
"All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked" means that they --
must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public system address system
43
Which radio type can talk over great distances?
Mobile two-way radio
44
The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to --
ensure an equitable distribution of the President's Budget for the next fiscal year
45
Who provides the most current security forces per-troop allocation for the fiscal year?
Headquarters Air Force
46
What is not a category for the status of funds?
End of Year
47
Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas?
Major command (MAJCOM) functional
48
What provides stadards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units?
Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP)
49
When are manpower numbers reviewed?
Annually
50
Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?
Report No Later than Date
51
Where does the installations' labor relations specialist work?
Civilan Personnel Office
52
All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except --
employees in non-dedicated positions
53
Which statue protects ab alleged violation of a right?
Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statue (5 U.S.C. Chapter 71)
54
Who controls the depth, scope and frquency of internal inspections?
Commanders
55
Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
Code 4 (Wants and Warrent)
56
Which is not a designated PL1 resource?
Aircraft designated to transport the First Lady of the United States
57
Which Protection Level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owener/users are primary responsible for security?
PL4
58
How many team configurations are there for use in a tatical situation?
3
59
What team movement allows for more converage to the front?
Three-person team movement
60
The T-formation is best suited for what evnironment?
Wider hallways
61
Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun?
Center mass of the door
62
When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the --
unknown
63
When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long security to the next bend or landing?
#2
64
When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you shoukd not --
stand directly in front of the door
65
What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute?
The responding patrol's attitude
66
Which of the following injuries is not conisdered grievous bodily harm?
Bloody nose
67
Excluding homicide what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated?
Rape
68
What is not considered an objective of the Vitctim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) progam?
Prosecute the accused
69
Who notifies the victim that the accused escaped, was relased, or died?
Defense Force Commander
70
What effect, if any would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene?
It could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime
71
What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected?
It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found
72
Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?
It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects
73
Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to --
observe and record
74
Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site?
Disaster Control Group
75
During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casulaties reported?
Notification phase
76
Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming?
Recovery phase
77
What zone established at a Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) incident site is also referred to as a resticted zone?
Hot zone
78
Once the President has declared a major disaster requesting federal emergecny assistancem the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) requests help through the --
United States Army
79
During which phase of a natural disaster, should the installation commander reassess the situation?
Sustained Emergency phase
80
Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation?
Public Affairs
81
What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
There is not time limit
82
When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner?
Seek Judge Advocate (SJA) advice
83
Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior to questioning?
Income
84
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a --
habitual offender
85
During what step of the guidelines of conudcting a follow-up investigation. should a determination be made that the intial incident scene was thoroughly processed?
Collecting physical evidence
86
The AF Form 3226 is used for apprehension --
in a private dwelling
87
To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation commander must coordinate with the --
Major command (MAJCOM) Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)
88
Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling the details of the case?
Arranging and reviewing original notes
89
Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential when testifying?
Skill, tact, poise, and self-confidence