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CDC Z3P071 > Vol. 2 (URE) > Flashcards

Vol. 2 (URE) Flashcards

(98 cards)

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1
Q

Who provides the foundation of the integtated defense (ID) concept?

A

Security Forces

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2
Q

All of the following are guding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except –

A

capabilties for dominanting mass

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3
Q

Integrated defense does not requre the capability to –

A

defuse

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4
Q

The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the –

A

Defense Force Commander

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5
Q

The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project deisive combat power and wage war are identified as –

A

Power projection assets

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6
Q

What is defined as “organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compesated for”?

A

Integrated Defense Plan

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7
Q

Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units –

A

only if the installations is responsible for protectionlevel resources

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8
Q

What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?

A

Physical Barriers

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9
Q

A relatively secure area that allows for indentification of personnel and vehicles is defined as –

A

a search area

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10
Q

What area should be as far back from the search facility as possbile?

A

Staging area

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11
Q

In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattck, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and –

A

isolating objectives

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12
Q

The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are –

A

existing and reinforcing

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13
Q

“To fight and win our nation’s wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and specturm of conflicts in support of combatant commanders’ is the mission of the –

A

Army

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14
Q

What is the Navy’s largest formation?

A

Fleet

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15
Q

A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force –

A

flight

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16
Q

The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is –

A

State-supported

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17
Q

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of –

A

23 and 30

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18
Q

When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

A

Just before departing for the target

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19
Q

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is –

A

bombing

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20
Q

What term describes that stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

A

Intentions

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21
Q

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

A

Sympathizers

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22
Q

Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?

A

Terrorists

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23
Q

Which threat level of doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometer (km)?

A

III

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24
Q

Which of these is not a force protection effect?

A

Defuse

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25
The key to force protection countermeasure planning is --
protecting sensitive information
26
What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?
Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD)
27
Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?
Decoy
28
Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for --
the use of force
29
What considersation does not drive Rules of Engagement?
Civilan
30
What is defined as te threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?
Hostile Intent
31
The Air Force Unit Type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes?
6
32
When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at --
any level
33
What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 - 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit?
QFEBA
34
How many phases are there in the deployment process?
4
35
The process of Reception, staging, Onward-movement,, and Integration begins in which deployment phase?
Deployment
36
In the deployment process, what is the focal point for all base deployments?
Installation deployment readiness cell
37
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?
4
38
A summary pf a unit's mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as --
Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statements
39
What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?
Any deficiencies
40
At a minimum, how many after action reports (AAR) must be submitted?
Two
41
The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of the deployment?
15 days
42
The use of electronic control devices is included in which after action report (AAR) incident classification?
Miscellaneous
43
The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the
operational level
44
What is essential to our security?
Nuclear deterrence
45
The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with --
combatant commanders
46
What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons?
Nuclear Weapon Security Standard
47
Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standard (NWSS) under scenarios represented by --
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
48
Active and passive security measures are sued to achieve which principle --
Delay
49
Who ensures that the host instllation meets two-person concepts requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft?
Couriers
50
The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilties Assessment (NSTCA) forms the cornerstone of threat --
planning
51
How many potential adversary groups are primary concerns in nuclear security?
3
52
"A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either politically or in support of a specific issue" is the definition of --
protestors
53
The product resulting from collecting, processing, intergrating, evaluating, analyzing and interpreting of available information concerning foreign countries or areas is --
intelligence
54
The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the...
MAJCOM commander
55
Security deviations are documented on AF Form...
116
56
Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exlusion area?
Sole vouching authority
57
Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have...
a valid reason to be in the exclusion area
58
One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area?
6
59
If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of...
a stay behind threat
60
How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?
2
61
Where would you find a weapon security vault?
Weapons storage and security system (WS3)
62
What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?
Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC)
63
Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable aircraft?
B-1
64
(DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons?
Type I
65
(DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition?
Security Forces Team
66
(DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the primary Nuclear Airlife Force (PNAF)?
Courier and SF respresentative
67
Alert aricraft areas that contain nuclearweapons matedto aircraft delivery systems are designatedas --
a limited area
68
The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be...
no closer than 10 feet and no further than 60 feet
69
(DCNI) When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the generation area becomes...
an alert aircraft parking area
70
How many typesof nuclear movements are there on an installation?
Two
71
Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs?
High crawl
72
The technique that requires great patience is movement with --
stealth
73
How many categories of patrols are there?
2
74
What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal?
Raid
75
Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
Defense Force Commander (DFC)
76
In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from --
team's own weapons
77
Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed?
Traveling
78
When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is what type of technique?
Navigation
79
What type of danger area would be passed on the downwind side?
Villages
80
Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations order?
Situation
81
Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished?
Mission
82
What would not be discussed in the service amd support paragraph of the operations order?
Any type of support fire
83
Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty?
Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller
84
Due to the nature of responsibilities, a Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is considered ...
controlled area
85
Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller filter information up to?
Flight sergeant
86
Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function?
Analyzing information
87
In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?
Direct
88
Which firing element has an engagement priority of groups of five or more in the secondary sector?
Machine gun gunners
89
Range is given in which unit of measurement?
Meters
90
Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?
Cliff
91
The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire element is within...
800 meters
92
By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with security detachments effectively achieves all of the following except ...
defeat
93
What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?
M4
94
Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the capability to standoff from a target, assess the situation, and pass timely information?
Response
95
Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes which task of Close Precision Engagement (CPE)?
Screening
96
When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate training?
Between months 5 and 7
97
Which weapon carry technqiue is used when operating in tight spaces or in close proximity to other personnel?
Depressed ready
98
When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat what tactical movement is being performed?
Contact rear

CDC Z3P071 (2 decks)

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