Vol 3 Unit 2 Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

What is considered to be the framework in which the overall materiel storage space is developed?

A

Warehouse layout plan

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2
Q

When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the total or gross storage space is known as the

A

implementation point

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3
Q

What storage factor is used when fast-moving items of great demand are stored in easily accessible locations that requires as little handling as possible and slow moving items are stored in less convenient locations?

A

Item popularity

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4
Q

What storage factor increases the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location?

A

Item quantity

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5
Q

Which type of aisle runs the entire length of the warehouse?

A

Main

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6
Q

What is the basic resource of any supply and distribution operation?

A

Storage space

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7
Q

What is the practice of storing or withdrawing items in a way that causes a loss of storage
space called?

A

Honeycombing

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8
Q

At a minimum, how many inches of clearance space must be maintained around light or heating
fixtures in a storage space?

A

18

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9
Q

In a storage space, the total or maximum amount of weight that can be stored in a specific
amount of floor space is known as

A

Floor load limit

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10
Q

Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become
outdated?

A

First in, first out

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11
Q

When storing materiel outside, what must be used to elevate the property above ground level to
provide adequate ventilation?

A

Dunnage

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12
Q

Which class of storage vault is used to store Top Secret materiel?

A

A

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13
Q

What class of storage vault is used to store Secret and Confidential materiel?

A

B

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14
Q

Items that require a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations are designated as

A

Sensitive items

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15
Q

The combination on padlocks for classified storage must be changed at least

A

Annually

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16
Q

Which Standard Form (SF) is used to secure vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel?

A

SF 702

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17
Q

What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation for satellite
accounts?

A

Account storage personnel

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18
Q

At a minimum, how often must all warehouse locations be validated?

A

Annually

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19
Q

The ability to print warehouse location validation listings and process transactions associated
with location validation for bin rows, serviceable balances with no locations, and dead locations is
provided by

A

Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S)

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20
Q

How many days prior to the start of a warehouse validation do warehouse personnel create the
warehouse validation listing?

A

10

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21
Q

What type of items must be opened to physically verify that the item in the container matches
the stock number on the outside property tag and bin label?

A

Controlled

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22
Q

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to delete a dead location?

23
Q

Failure to identify and move property that is located in the wrong warehouse location in a
timely manner contributes to out-of-balance conditions, erroneous stock records, and

A

Warehouse refusal

24
Q

Within what period of time must items listed on the serviceable balance - no location listing
(R36) be resolved?

25
Warehouse personnel use the daily document register (D04) to verify successful processing for transactions on warehouse location deletions, indicative data changes, unit of issue changes, and
controlled item changes
26
What occurs when the warehouse location stated on an issue or shipment document is either empty or does not contain enough items to fill the request?
Warehouse refusal
27
Which freeze code is loaded to the item record due to a warehouse refusal?
I
28
What flag must be entered in the master bench stock detail if the authorized level is not based on consumption?
Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) or maximum authorized quantity (MAQ)
29
At a minimum, how often are phase I reviews for bench stock additions, changes, and deletions done?
Monthly
30
Items recommended for bench stock are based on
past issues and due-out release actions
31
At a minimum, standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels must be validated
Annually
32
After the bench stock review, who does customer support provide copies of the organization bench stock listing (S04) to?
Shop supervisor and materiel control
33
When does the S04 run an item number sequence?
After each semiannual review
34
During a closed warehouse inventory, what type of issue transactions can be removed from the warehouse?
Emergency
35
What type of inventory is conducted by line item on an as-required basis?
Special
36
What freeze code identifies a special inventory?
I
37
Which option is not an objective of inventory research?
Process requisitions when required
38
Causative research will be conducted for all adjustments greater than
$1,000
39
When researching a physical overage, how far back from the current date should you go to the last inventory adjustment?
12 months
40
The type account code for an item to be considered for an automatic adjustment is
B
41
An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is less than
$100
42
What phrase identifies automatic adjustments on the transaction register and the consolidated inventory adjustment document register (M10) for complete inventory inputs?
AUTO-COMPL
43
What type of inventory discrepancy occurs due to an accountable processing error?
Resolved discrepancy
44
What product prints and deletes internally stored inventory adjustment records?
Consolidated inventory adjustment document register (M10)
45
What function is responsible for verifying certification and approval signatures are on the original copy of the consolidated inventory adjustment document register (M10)?
Inventory
46
What tool is used to gain effective asset control by identifying areas of current and potential high loss?
Inventory analysis
47
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process a record reversal and correction transaction?
RVP
48
What freeze code is assigned to item records requiring record reversal and correction?
Q
49
What publication contains the formats for transactions and the menu screens used to process record reversal and corrections (RVP)?
Air Force Handbook (AFH) 23-123
50
Automated record reversal and correction (RVP) processing is limited to how many inputs at a time?
One
51
What asset management record is displayed in the Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) items not put away report?
STK
52
In the Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Asset Management database, to view records in more detail, click on a hyperlinked
asset management ID number
53
How many filter criteria sections are in the Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Asset Management Items Not Put Away report?
Six
54
What Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) asset management report shows all items that have not been delivered to the customer?
Items not received