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Volume 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

The specialty training standard (STS) is found in which part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?

A

II

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2
Q

Which publication establishes the occupational structure of the Air Force enlisted force?

A

Career field education and training plan (CFETP)

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3
Q

Which Air Force specialty code (AFSC) were you awarded when you entered your technical school?

A

1C511

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4
Q

Which skill level must you attain to be eligible for promotion to staff sergeant?

A

5

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5
Q

A 3-skill level C2BMO operator carries the title of an

A

Apprentice

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6
Q

Which AFSC suffix is given to a weapons director in the 1C5X1 career field?

A

D

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7
Q

Which classification identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified within the military personnel data system (MilPDS)?

A

Special experience identifier (SEI)

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8
Q

What is a uniform system of five progressive readiness conditions?

A

Defense readiness conditions (DEFCON)

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9
Q

Actual hands on task performance training best describes which type of training?

A

Qualification

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10
Q

Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) indicates the normal state of readiness?

A

5

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11
Q

Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) requires an increase in force readiness above that required for normal readiness?

A

3

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12
Q

Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) indicates all forces ready for a wartime situation?

A

1

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13
Q

A defense readiness condition (DEFCON) indicates

A

The state of readiness that must be achieved in various military situations

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14
Q

When an attack by hostile aircraft is considered probable, imminent, or taking place upon the continental United States or Canada, which declaration is declared?

A

Air defense emergency

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15
Q

Who is the authority for the emergency security control of air traffic plan (ESCAT) in the forty-eight contiguous states?

A

Commander, NORAD

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16
Q

How many priorities does the emergency security control of air traffic (ESCAT) air traffic priority list (EATPL) contain?

A

8

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17
Q

Which of the cardinal directions represents a bearing of 120°?

A

Southeast

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18
Q

An object at a bearing of 060° and a range of 135 miles would be reported as

A

“ZERO SIX ZERO, ONE HUNDRED THIRTY-FIVE”

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19
Q

An object at a bearing of 005° and a range of 50 miles would be reported as

A

“ZERO ZERO FIVE, FIFTY”

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20
Q

When you read a latitude and longitude, you should always read from

A

The lower to the higher numbers

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21
Q

The military grid reference system (MGRS) is read from the

A

Left to right, and then up

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22
Q

How many meters of a military grid reference system (MGRS) square is represented by the coordinates 17R DJ?

A

100,000

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23
Q

How many meters of a military grid reference system (MGRS) square is represented by the coordinates 8S AE 13

A

10,000

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24
Q

A military grid reference system (MGRS) square represented by the coordinates 13E DH 1427 totals how many meters?

A

1,000

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25
A military grid reference system (MGRS) square represented by the coordinates 16R CJ 156653 totals how many meters?
100
26
The global area reference system 15 minute by 15 minute quadrant is made up of how many characters?
6
27
Which character designates the keypad number when using the global area reference system?
7
28
The word "radar" is an acronym that means radio,
Detection and ranging
29
A radar can use the radio waves to determine the distance or range to the target by
The amount of time that it takes a radio wave to go out, strike and object, and come back
30
The radars antennas function during transmission is to
Concentrate the radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space
31
The radar antennas function during reception is to
Collect the energy contained in the echo signal and deliver it to the receiver
32
Which radar component separates wanted from unwanted radio wave signals to a level where target information can be displayed?
Receiver
33
The number of times the radar transmits per second is known as the
Pulse repetition time (PRT)
34
What is the principal used in radar to detect a target by analyzing a change in frequency of a return signal?
Doppler shift
35
Which radar component has many small antennas or slotted waveguides positioned on the face or side of a large wedge-shaped structure?
Phased-array antenna
36
Which series of identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) transponders do we use today?
Mark XII
37
The identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode that provides automatic reporting of aircraft altitude is
C
38
How many microseconds after the last framing pulse is a transmission sent out when the special position identification (SPI) feature is selected in modes 2 or 3?
4.35
39
Which identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) codes can be selected by an aircrafts pilot?
Mode 1
40
Which identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode enables operators to distinguish between friendly and potentially hostile aircraft?
4
41
What does identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode 3/A code "7500" mean?
Hijackers on board or suffering from unlawful interference
42
What does identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode 3/A code "7600" mean?
Radio communication failure
43
What does identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode 3/A code "7700" mean?
Emergency
44
What allows a pilot to transmit a response the will result in a special display at your console?
Special pilot identification (SPI)
45
Why might you receive an identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) return from a target and not a radar return?
The IFF/SIF return is stronger than the radar return
46
When used in conjunction with radar, identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) can help improve
Tracking continuity
47
Which frequency range does the air route surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) operate in?
1,215 to 1,400 MHz
48
How many 2° elevation beams does the air route surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) use?
10
49
How many vertically stacked, slotted waveguide radiators make up the TPS-75 radar antenna?
48
50
What is the range of the TPSS-75 radar antenna?
240 NM
51
The FPS-117 can frequency-hop on up to how many preset frequencies?
18
52
The FPS-124 will process and forward up to how many reportable tracks per scan?
20
53
A constant surface for weather purposes is considered a
Surface that consists of all land or all water
54
Clouds are normally found in which basic forms?
Stratus and cumulus
55
What is the area between two different air masses called?
Occluded front
56
Weather fronts are generally classified according to
Relative temperature of air masses involved
57
Which type of front is formed when warm air moves up over a wedge of colder retreating air?
Warm
58
Which type of front is characterized by a wedge of air being forced aloft?
Occluded
59
Which type of refraction causes energy to be curved upward?
Subrefraction
60
How is radar performance normally affected during normal refraction?
Performance of the radar is generally undisturbed
61
How is radar performance normally affected during superrefraction?
Radar energy is bent downward, increasing the range
62
Which form of refraction may result in radar holes or blind spots?
Trapping
63
How are calm winds reported in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)?
00000KT
64
In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), what does "M" under runway visual range (RVR) indicate?
Less than
65
In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), how is hail indicated?
GR
66
When more than one type of precipitation is present, which precipitation does the intensity element refer in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)?
First precipitation element
67
Which element description in the aviation routine weather report (METAR) gives information about clouds and obscuring phenomena?
Sky condition
68
Winds aloft which are also called upper winds are reported in which foot increment and feet?
5,000-foot increments from 5,000 to 60,000 feet
69
The defense switched network (DSN) system is basically a
Long-distance telephone system
70
Which piece of equipment is used to secure communications on secure terminal equipment (STE)?
FORTEZZA card
71
Which telephone feature is the highest precedence in the telephone priority system?
Flash
72
The best transmission method for high frequency (HF) is
Sky wave
73
The only method of communicating over long distances from one point of the earth to another without a relay, satellite, or connecting cable is by using the
High frequency (HF) band
74
Which frequencies are normally only useful for distances approximately within the line of sight?
Very high frequencies (VHF) and above
75
What are the hopping pattern and hopping rate in a HAVE QUICK system determined by?
Word of day (WOD)
76
When transmitting a message over a radio, which type of pause is greater when speaking?
Ideas
77
Approximately how far away from your lips should you hold your microphone when transmitting?
Half an inch
78
What are methods of calling used in radio communications?
Full and abbreviated
79
When are abbreviated calls authorized?
During good communications conditions and after contact has been firmly established
80
Who may cancel or modify MINIMIZE?
Imposing authority or appropriate higher authority
81
The main guideline for including a report in the Air Force Operational Reporting System (AFOREPS) is it must be
Essential to command and control of aerospace forces
82
Which operational report-3's (OPREP-3) initial voice notification is due within 5 minutes after learning of the event?
PINNACLE NUCFLASH
83
Which operational report-3 (OPREP-3) do we use to report an accident involving nuclear weapons that does not risk the outbreak of nuclear war?
PINNACLE BROKEN ARROW
84
Which report keeps the Joint Staff, services, and other national leadership apprised of existing political, military, and operational situations?
Commander's situation report (SITREP)
85
Commander's situation reports (SITREP) must be submitted no later than
0200Z
86
The unit's designed operational capability (DOC) statement is used to
summarize unit taskings and requirements
87
Which category level (C-level) indicates that a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized?
C-1
88
Which category level (C-level) indicates a unit requires additional resources to undertake its wartime mission?
C-4
89
Which measured resource area (MRA) normally drives a unit's overall category level (C-level)?
The lowest of the four MRAs
90
When a change affects a units overall category level (C-level), the database must be updated within how many hours?
24
91
What is a major US goal for the United States message text format (USMTF) system standards?
Allied adoption of USMTF standards
92
How many major structural components make up the United States message text format (USMTF) system?
3
93
What makes up a formatted United States message text format (USMTF) system messages text?
Predetermined sequence of sets
94
How is information arranged vertically in the United States message text format (USMTF) system message text?
Columnar sets
95
What does the first page of each checklist contain?
A sheet showing the date reviewed and the initials of the reviewer
96
Why do you place a mark next to each item in a checklist as it is completed?
Prevents you from missing critical steps
97
What color of ink is used for entries in the logbook?
Black or blue

CDCs (2 decks)

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