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Volume 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

The joint forces commander (JFC) exercises operational control of his/her forces through the

A

service components commander

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2
Q

The main objective of air operations is to contribute to the successful completion of the theater commander’s campaign by engaging and defeating

A

hostile air, land, and sea forces

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3
Q

Who delegates battle management (BM) responsibilities to theater air control system (TACS) elements?

A

Joint forces air component commander (JFACC)

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4
Q

The theater air control system (TACS) performs key battle management (BM), surveillance, identification, airspace management, and what other functions?

A

Weapons control

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5
Q

Which element of the theater air control system (TACS) plans, directs, controls, and coordinates all air operations within its area of responsibility (AOR)?

A

Air operations center (AOC)

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6
Q

What essential characteristic of the baseline deployable air operations center (AOC) presents a well-defined and clearly understood capability to the joint forces commander (JFC)?

A

Standardized

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7
Q

Who supervises and directs the operations of the air operations center (AOC)?

A

Air operations center commander (AOCC)

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8
Q

Which division within the air operations center (AOC) produces the air tasking order (ATO)?

A

Combat plans

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9
Q

Which division is responsible for monitoring and executing the current air tasking order (ATO)?

A

Combat operations

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10
Q

Which component liaison supports integration of air, space, and cyberspace operations with ground maneuver?

A

Battlefield coordination detachment

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11
Q

Which support team element provides timely notification of meteorological and oceanographic impacts affecting launch and recovery bases?

A

Weather specialty

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12
Q

What position within the air operations center (AOC) is responsible to the chief, combat operations division for directing and supervising offensive combat operations?

A

Senior offensive duty officer

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13
Q

Within the air operations center (AOC), who facilitates the resolution of dual track designation and conflicts that are a result of system interoperability problems or operator error?

A

Track data coordinator

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14
Q

What function of the control and reporting center (CRC) is responsible for detecting, tracking, and identifying airborne tracks?

A

Surveillance

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15
Q

What function of the control and reporting center (CRC) is responsible for controlling offensive and defensive counter air missions?

A

Weapons control

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16
Q

Who is designated as the primary battle commander at the control and reporting center (CRC)?

A

Unit commander

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17
Q

Which technician’s position is located with the AN/TPS-75 radar van and is responsible for maximizing radar presentations?

A

Electronic protection technician (EPT)

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18
Q

Within the control and reporting center (CRC), who is responsible for detecting, updating, classifying, and identifying all airborne tracks within the specified area of responsibility (AOR)?

A

Surveillance technician

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19
Q

The the control and reporting center (CRC), who is responsible to the air surveillance technician (AST) for establishing data links and monitoring datalink effectiveness?

A

Interface control technician (ICT)

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20
Q

The main sensor for the modular control equipment is the

A

AN/TPS-75

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21
Q

To how many internal ultrahigh frequency (UHF) radios does the internal radio equipment provide for command and control (C2) operations?

A

4

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22
Q

The theater air control systems (TACS) unit that plans, coordinates, and directs tactical air support of ground forces is the

A

air support operations center (ASOC)

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23
Q

During what operations does the air support operations center normaly control airspace just short of the fire support coordination line?

A

Linear

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24
Q

At the air support center, what type of operations focus on creating specific effects on multiple decisive points?

A

Nonlinear

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25
What is an element of the theater air control system (TACS) that assists the land commander in planning, requesting, and coordinating close air support and suppression of enemy air defense missions?
Tactical air control party (TACP)
26
What gives the airborne warning and control system (AWACS) the ability to detect targets flying lower that the E-3 without interference from radar returns from the ground?
Pulse doppler radar
27
Which radar combination cannot be used together?
Maritime and beyond the horizon radars
28
The HAVE QUICK system makes available to airborne warning and control system (AWACS) an improved
air-to-air and air-to-ground, jam resistant ultrahigh frequency (UHF) voice communication capability
29
The joint surveillance target attack radar system (JSTARS) aircraft is an
E-8
30
The joint surveillance target attack radar system (JSTARS) radar antenna is
electronically scanned in azimuth and mechanically positioned in elevation
31
What is used by the joint surveillance target attack radar system (JSTARS) to broadcast data to Army ground station modules?
Surveillance and control data link (SCDL)
32
What type of command is North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD)?
Joint
33
Within North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD), which defense operations center uses a variety of radars, cameras, alert aircraft, and Army air defense artillery assets to protect our leaders and national infrastructures?
Joint Air Defense Operations Center (JADOC)
34
Within North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD), which position oversees all sections of operations and reports to the director of operations?
Mission crew commander (MCC)
35
What unit within the hardened theater air control center is responsible for execution surveillance, identification, and weapons control?
Master Control and Reporting Center (MCRC)
36
What unit within the hardened theater air control center (TACC) plans the day-to-day expenditure of air resources base upon the objectives set forth by the commander, Air Component Commander (ACC)?
Combat plans division (CPD)
37
What unit within the hardened theater air control center (TACC) supervises the detailed execution of air operations orders and air tasking orders (ATO)?
Combat operations division (COD)
38
What Master Control and Reporting Center (MCRC) position makes sure battle staff directives (BSD) are received, posted, disseminated, and updated as required?
Mission crew commander technician (MCCT)
39
What Master Control and Reporting Center (MCRC) position updates the recognizable air picture by dropping duplicate, local tracks, and associating local and data link tracks?
Data system technician (DST)
40
Which is an objective of command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems?
Properly positioning critical information
41
Which of these is a key to command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) system interoperability?
Standardization
42
What performance characteristic of command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems is achieved through modular designs and microelectronics?
Mobility
43
By dispersing key facilities, command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems become more
Survivable
44
What is the primary mission of the Global Command and Control System (GCCS)?
Support the command and control (C2) function of the president and the secretary of defense
45
How is connectivity between all Global Command and Control System (GCCS) sites provided?
Defense Information System Network (DISN)
46
Which is an objective of command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems?
Properly positioning critical information
47
Which of these is a key to command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) system interoperability?
Standardization
48
What performance characteristic of command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems is achieved through modular designs and microelectronics?
Mobility
49
By dispersing key facilities, command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems become more
survivable
50
What is the primary mission of the Global Command and Control System (GCCS)?
Support the command and control (C2) function of the president and the secretary of defense
51
How is connectivity between all Global Command and Control System (GCCS) sites provided?
Defense Information System Network (DISN)
52
What application of Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS) associates mission tasking with targets and creates the air tasking order (ATO)?
Theater air planning
53
What picture does the air defense systems integrator (ADSI) create?
Recognized air picture (RAP)
54
What is not one of the three separate computers that are integrated in the air defense systems integrator (ADSI)?
Data link generator
55
How many tactical situation display (TSD) workstations can be connected to each air defense systems integrator (ADSI)?
50
56
The Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) processes, integrates, displays, and distributes data from radars, data links, and other command and control agencies to maintain situational awareness and support
air interdiction (AI) operations
57
What is the primary component of the Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) operator workstation?
Situation display
58
Which unit uses the Battle Control System-Korea (BCS-K) to control all United States air assets over Korea?
Master Control and Reporting Center (MCRC)
59
Which command is responsible for developing the Battle Control Center-CENTAF (BC3) system?
Air Combat Command (ACC)
60
The Battle Control Center-CENTAF (BC3) system performs all of the following theater battle management functions except
resource management
61
How many Joint Range Extension Application Protocols (JREAP) are used to transmit and receive Link 16 messages?
3
62
For platforms connecting by long-haul communication networks the joint range extension provides
inter-zone, intra-zone, reach back, and reach forward Link 16 capabilities
63
Which unit uses the ground mobile gateway system to process information from multiple tactical data links?
Air support operations center (ASOC)
64
Who is responsible for coordinating air support and providing airspace de-confliction for tasked aircraft using the ground mobile gateway (GMG) system?
Fighter duty technicians (FDT)
65
What type of operations begin to take priority when friendly forces initiate hostilities or when the enemy's air attack is nullified?
Offensive counterair (OCA)
66
What type of missions comprises both active and passive defense measures?
Defensive counterair (DCA)
67
Which of the following is not a primary weapon for defensive counterair (DCA) operations?
Bomber aircraft
68
Dominance of a nation's airspace is crucially dependent on
timely and accurate information
69
What aircraft has proved the key to successful defensive and offensive air operations in numerous conflicts?
Airborne early warning aircraft
70
Who collects real-time intelligence information on systems posing threats to the personnel recovery mission?
Personell recovery coordination cell
71
Which aircraft provides navigation assistance, route sanitization, and armed escort for the recovery vehicle during personnel recovery operations?
Rescue escort aircraft
72
Who is responsible for initiating rescue efforts in the objective area until rescue forces arrive?
On-scene commander
73
What type of mission is a form of arial maneuver that destroys, disrupts, diverts, or delays the enemy's surface military potential before it can be used effectively against friendly force?
Air interdiction (AI)
74
Which type of target is a less-efficient use of air power during air interdiction (AI) missions?
Artillery battery
75
In what type of mission are strike aircraft employed to seek out and destroy ground-based electromagnetic emitters?
Suppression of enemy air defense (SEAD)
76
Which aircrafts were modified or have been specially designed to increase their effectiveness against enemy air defenses and are thought of as suppression of enemy air defense aircraft?
F-15 and F-16
77
Which mission is conducted against emery forces in close proximity to friendly forces?
Close air support (CAS)
78
Once aircraft are assigned to close air support, who determines which targets they are to attack?
Ground commanders
79
What type of missions are responsible for providing national and theater command authorities with timely, reliable, high quality information about an enemy or potential enemy?
Reconnaissance (RECCE)
80
Which is not considered a reconnaissance mission?
Combat
81
What is the weapons load of the F/A-22 for its primary air-to-air role?
6 AIM-120s and 2 AIM-9s
82
What are two reasons for the expansion of the seat back angle on the F-16?
Pilot comfort and gravity force tolerance
83
What was the first Air Force aircraft specially designed for close air support (CAS) of ground forces?
A-10 Thunderbolt II
84
What unique strengths of the bomber force are cornerstones of America's airpower and force projection?
Payload, range, and responsiveness couples with precision attack
85
Which aircraft have variable-geometry wings?
B-1B Lancer
86
What is the Navy's all-weather, carrier-based tactical warning and control system aircraft?
E-2C Hawkeye
87
Which of these permits surveillance and can fly a mission profile approximately eight hours without refueling?
E-3 Sentry
88
Which aircraft has a primary mission of providing dedicated support to ground and air theater commanders?
E-8C Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System (JSTARS)
89
How many aircraft make up a fully operational Predator system?
4
90
What is the minimum runway length for a C-17?
3,500 feet
91
Which is not a mission of the C-130?
Aerial bombing

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