VOLUME 1, SET 1 - COMPREHENSION Flashcards
1
Q
Which document would you reference to see your specific AFSC responsibilities?
A
In the 3DXXX CFETP Section B, Career Field Progression and Information.
2
Q
What two groups make up the cyberspace support family?
A
- Cyberspace Operations (3D0XX)
- Cyberspace Systems (3D1XX).
3
Q
Within the cyberspace support families, what career field is responsible for maintenance and operation of cyberspace systems?
A
Cyberspace Systems
4
Q
What is the core AFSC document used to document training for enlisted personnel?
A
The CFETP is the core AFSC training document used for training enlisted personnel.
5
Q
What do duty position tasks describe?
A
The tasks assigned to an individual for the position currently held.
6
Q
What part of the CFETP includes general information about how to use it?
A
Part I includes general information about how to use the CFETP.
7
Q
How many skill levels are there?
A
5
8
Q
What AFI outlines the AF’s training program?
A
AFI 36–2201, Air Force Training Program
9
Q
With whom does the Air Force career field manager directly communicate to disseminate policies and program requirements?
A
He/she communicates directly with MFMs, AETC training managers to disseminate all Air Force and career field policies and program requirements.
10
Q
Whose duty is it to assist in gathering input and data to complete enlisted grade allocation for career progression group reviews?
A
MFM
11
Q
What type of workshop brings MFMs and SMEs together to determine the most effective and efficient way to ensure training standards and skill-level requirements of a career field are accurate?
A
A U&TW brings MFMs and subject matter experts together from across the Air Force in an effort to determine the most effective and efficient way to ensure training standards and skill level requirements of a career field are accurate.
12
Q
What is the primary purpose of a STRT?
A
For the AFCFM and functional leaders to determine and present training requirements to the AETC TPM.
13
Q
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
A
The AF OJT Program.
14
Q
What are the three components of the AF OJT program?
A
- Job knowledge.
- Job proficiency.
- Job experience.
15
Q
What are the three essential elements in a QA program?
A
- Quality system.
- Quality assessments.
- Trend Analysis.
16
Q
How is trend analysis used?
A
To collect, compile, analyze, and record data on the processes sampled by QA personnel.
17
Q
What program reports compliance with requirements listed in self-assessment checklists to the chain of command and appropriate staffs?
A
The self-assessment program.
18
Q
Who, in conjunction with the commander appointed self-assessment program manager, will oversee the units self-inspection/assessment program?
A
QA personnel
19
Q
What are automated information systems?
A
AIS are combinations of computer hardware and computer software, data, and/or telecommunications equipment that performs functions such as collecting, processing, storing, transmitting, and displaying information.
20
Q
What is the standard Air Force system for maintenance information?
A
The IMDS is the standard Air Force system for maintenance information.
21
Q
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement?
A
Remedy
22
Q
What is the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the U.S.?
A
The US Constitution
23
Q
Which title of the U.S. code spells out the general provisions and punitive articles of the UCMJ?
A
US Code Title 10, Armed Forces.
24
Q
Who has inspection responsibility over the National Guard?
A
The Secretaries of the US Army and Air Force.
25
What is cyberspace?
A global domain within the information environment consisting of the interdependent network of information technology infrastructures, including the Internet, telecommunications networks, computer systems, and embedded processors and controllers.
26
What type of cyberspace maneuverability occurs with the use of security protocols used by host systems?
Logical maneuverability
27
What are cyberspace operations?
Cyberspace operations are the employment of cyberspace capabilities where the primary purpose is to achieve military objectives or effect in or through cyberspace.
28
What are three major considerations to understand while supporting cyber operations?
* Policy.
* Authority.
* Law.
29
What document provides AF leaders a particular principle in the execution of cyber operations?
AFDD 3–12 Cyberspace Operations, Appendix B, Policy and Doctrine Related to Cyberspace Operations
30
The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is driven by three priorities, what are those priorities?
* Prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure.
* Reduce national vulnerability to cyber attacks.
* Minimize damage and recover time from cyber-attacks.
31
Gaining and maintaining the initiative to operate within adversary decision cycles outlines what strategy?
The NMS-CO.
32
Before the employment of cyberspace capabilities, what considerations must be made?
Legal considerations and international legal obligations apply to the employment of cyberspace capabilities.
33
What could prevent Air National Guard personnel from executing a cyber operation?
Guardsmen in Title 32 status may train for Title 10 missions but may not execute them.
34
In addition to the implied legal parameters, what else must individuals be clearly aware of when conducting cyber operations?
• Authority for each operation they are a part of.
35
Define prohibited use.
• Prohibited Use where use adversely reflects on DOD; where use interferes with employee or office productivity; or where use is to conduct outside commercial activity.
36
12. Match the characteristics of each unethical situation to its corresponding title.
Column A Column B
____ (1) Personal conflict of interest.
____ (2) Covered relationships.
____ (3) Misuse of position.
____ (4) Non-public information.
a. Disclosure of Privacy Act-protected records.
b. Officially endorsing or sanctioning a non-federal entity, its products, services or activities.
c. May be real or perceived and involve ethical/moral values.
d. May lead to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism.
(1) c.
(2) d.
(3) b.
(4) a.
37
What career field relies on many services provided by the Cyberspace Support Community?
1B4X1.
38
What weapons system provides continuous monitoring and defense of AF unclassified and classified networks?
The Air Force Cyberspace Defense.
39
What are the four sub-discipline areas of the ACD? Describe them.
(1) Incident Prevention: Services include the protection of Air Force networks against new and existing malicious logic. The system has the ability to assess/mitigate known software and hardware vulnerabilitilites.
(2) Incident Detection: Conducts monitoring of classified/unclassified Air Force networks, identifies and researches anomalous activity to determine problems and threats to networks, and monitors real-time alerts generated from network sensors. In addition, the system can perform in-depth research of historical traffic reported through sensors.
(3) Incident Response: Determines the extent of instrusions, develops course of action required to mitigate threat(s), and determines and executes response actions. Crew interfaces with law enforcement during malicious logic related incidents.
(4) Computer Forensics: Conducts in-depth analysis to determine threats from identified incidents and suspicsious activities, and then assesses damage. Supports incident response process capturing the full impact of various exploits and reverse engineers code to determine the impact to the network/system.
40
What resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous MAJCOM-specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three I-NOSCs?
The Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
41
What AF weapons system offers top-level boundary and entry point into the AFIN?
The Air Force Intranet Control weapon system
42
What are the four sub-discipline areas of the AFINC?
(1) Defense-in-Depth.
(2) Proactive Defense.
(3) Network Standardization.
(4) Situational Awareness.
43
. What weapon system is the single system providing overarching 24/7/365 awareness, management and control of the AF portion of the cyberspace domain?
Cyber Command and Control Mission System
44
Describe CORA.
• CORA assesses data compromised through intrusions of AF networks with the objective of determining the associated impact to operations resulting from that data loss. This sub-discipline is in the second variant.
45
What is the mission of the CVA/Hunter?
F2T2EA the APT
46
How does end-to-end performance monitoring support mission assurance?
It supports mission assurance by including the end user experience and the warfighter’s ability to access critical information.
47
Who has the responsibility for determining what network elements should be monitored?
24 AF.
48
What two things did the DOD Consent to Monitoring policy do?
(1) Established departmental guidance on the use of DODIN systems.
(2) Standardized the wording for to be included in user agreements.
49
What Air Force command is appointed as the primary for cyberspace missions?
AFSPC is the USAF major command for the cyberspace mission.
50
How do offensive operations support US cyberspace objectives?
OCO supports US cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying, or altering the adversaries ability to use cyberspace.
51
(True/False) DCOs intend to defend DOD or friendly cyberspace through proactive and reactive operations.
True
52
Besides technical vulnerabilities, how do we attempt to exploit user-friendly networks?
We attempt to exploit user-friendly networks by gaining footholds through their routine uses of cyberspace.
53
What are IRCs?
• IRCs, which are tools, techniques or activities employed within the physical, informational or cognitive dimensions of the information environment that can be used to create effects and operationally desirable conditions.
54
How does EW contribute to information operations?
EW contributes to information operations by using offensive and defensive tactics and techniques to shape, disrupt and exploit adversarial use of EMS.
55
What is the intent of MISO?
The intent of MISO is to affect the behavior of foreign governments, organizations, groups or individuals so that changes in foreign behavior or attitude favor an originator’s objectives.
56
(True/False) PA cannot provide false or misleading information to influence operations.
True
57
What is the goal of MILDEC?
The goal is to cause the adversary to take specific actions (or inactions) that contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly force mission.
58
What does OPSEC deny adversaries?
OPSEC denies adversaries critical information and observable indicators about friendly forces and actions.
59
Audience engagements are meant to mold perceptions and shape relations with whom?
The intent is to mold perceptions and shape relations with key military and civilian organizations.
60
What type of ISR support does IO require for integration?
IO requires a more concerted, tailored ISR support for IO integration.
61
Define CI
CIis information gathered and activities to identify, deceive, exploit, disrupt or protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign powers, persons or their agents, or international terrorist organizations or activities.
62
How do we influence the adversary’s decision-making while protecting our operations?
By integrating the capabilities of influence operations, electronic warfare operations and network warfare operations in concert.
63
What reaches across geopolitical boundaries and is tightly integrated into the operation of critical infrastructures and the conduct of commerce, governance, and national security?
Cyberspace.
64
What three things ensure our freedom of action and deny the same to our adversaries in relation to cyber operations?
(1) Network defense.
(2) Exploitation.
(3) Attack.
65
Describe the five elements that comprise the NMS-CO.
(1) Strategic Context provides the working definition and cyberspace characteristics.
(2) Threats and vulnerabilities create a common understanding of the context, threats, vulnerabilities, and opportunities for cyberspace operations.
(3) Strategic considerations provide additional clarity to identify priorities.
(4) Military strategic framework presents ends, way, and means.
(5) Implementation and assessment identifies areas where change is needed and establishes a mechanism to measure progress toward achieving the strategic goal.
66
What are the DOD’s three main roles regarding cyber operations?
(1) Defense of the nation.
(2) National incident response.
(3) Critical infrastructure protection
67
What items ensure critical infrastructure is protected?
Critical infrastructure protection relies on analysis, warning, information sharing, vulnerability identification and reduction, mitigation, and aiding of national recovery efforts.
68
Information superiority is a result of what abilities?
The ability to collect, process, and disseminate and uninterrupted flow of information while exploiting or denying an adversaries ability to do the same.
69
How would you define SCADA?
SCADA refers to a centralized system that monitors and controls industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas.
70
How are SCADA systems typically implemented?
SCADA systems are typically implemented as a distributed database, commonly referred to as a tag database, which contains data elements called tags or points.
71
What is the purpose of IO?
The purpose of IO is to affect adversary decision-making with the intent to modify behavior.
72
How many flights typically make up Air Force communications Squadrons?
Air Force Communications Squadrons are typically broken down into two flights with an optional third flight.
73
Which communications squadron flight provides technical and systems support for wing communications and computer systems including ground radio, voice networks, and secure communications maintenance?
Operations Flight (SCO).
74
Who authorizes the use of a Special Mission Flights within a communication squadron?
Air Staffs Manpower division (AF/A1M).
75
What is the primary mission of the AOC?
The primary mission of the AOC is to provide the Joint Forces with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war (MTW) within the scope and coordination of all land, sea and air forces.
76
How are cyberspace forces in an AOC tasked to execute cyber missions?
These cyberspace forces execute cyber missions through a cyber-tasking order (CTO).
77
What squadron is a communications support squadron that directly supports the AOC?
Air Communications Squadron
78
What type of unit provides flyaway communications packages to expeditionary air bases?
Combat communications.
79
What active duty combat communications groups are in the CONUS?
There is presently one active duty combat communications group in the CONUSthe 5th Combat Communications Group (5 CCG) located at Robins AFB, Georgia.
80
How are expeditionary communication units established to operate in a deployed environment?
Expeditionary units are established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).
81
Who is the major force provider for the 386th AEW?
The 86th Airlift Wing (Ramstein Air Base).
82
Which EIS unit, currently part of the Air Combat Command, is an indispensable part of the USAF war-fighting community?
85th EIS
83
What unit installs, reconstitutes and tests critical C4 systems for COCOMs, anywhere and anytime?
85th EIS
84
What term replaced Global Information Grid (GIG)?
DOD Information Network.
85
What AF unit interfaces with theater and functional Air Operations Centers to establish, plan, direct, coordinate, assess, and command & control cyber operations in support of Air Force (AF) and Joint warfighting requirements.
624th OC.
86
Who provides around the clock situational awareness of the AFN?
624th OC.
87
How does the 624th OC translate CDR USCYBERCOM and theatre JFCs objectives, priorities and intent into a coherent plan for AF cyberspace forces?
By using a cyber-tasking cycle
88
What unit prepares Airmen to execute computer network exploitation and attack?
67th Cyberspace Wing
89
What is the mission focus of the NOSC?
To provide continuous operational and mission capable systems.
90
What entity performs security and operations functions and is the focal point for Tier-2 (regional) execution of network enterprise security?
I-NOSC
91
Regional computing and data centers that provide enterprise services are called?
Area Processing Centers (APC).
92
What is the mission of the ESD?
The ESD mission is to provide help desk network support to all personnel at CONUS and OCONUS US Air Force bases.
93
From whom does the communications focal point collect data?
Communications squadron itself, depot, AFNetOps, DISA, and others in the areas of assembly, collation, and assessment of logistics information and sustainment requirements.
94
Who creates JTFs? (Joint Task Force)
• Secretary of Defense, a combatant commander, a sub unified commander, or an existing joint force commander
95
Whom is a CCDR responsible to?
To the President and the SecDef
96
What responsibility does the CNAF commander assumes when joint military operations are in his or her respective AO?
JFACC
97
If air asse JFACC. ts from more than one service are present within a joint force, what will the JFC normally designate?
A JFACC.
98
Who is designated by the JFC to be responsible for operating and supporting all Air Force forces assigned or attached?
The COMAFFOR
99
What does the five-character alphanumeric code UTC identifier represent?
Combination of equipment and personnel
100
What is the name of the process in which AF units use to present their capabilities?
UTC posturing (positioning) and coding.
101
What is the core of the ITIL Framework?
The ITIL Service Life Cycle
102
What does the ITIL Service Life Cycle provide?
A structure that enables you to organize information and processes into an interconnected framework.
103
Match the ITIL Service Life Cycle Stage in Column B with the description in Column A. Items in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Column A Column B
____ (1) Ensures that the framework developed in the Service Transition Stage is implemented.
____ (2) This stage includes determining risks, constraints, and whether the service will meet requirements.
____ (3) An overarching stage for maintaining service quality.
____ (4) The stage in which the required service is designed and developed.
____ (5) A critical stage of the Service Life Cycle because the decisions made in this stage impact all subsequent stages.
a. Service Strategy.
b. Service Design.
c. Service Transition.
d. Service Station.
e. Service Operation.
f. CSI.
(1) e.
(2) c
(3) f
(4) b
(5) a
104
How does Air Force EIM enable mission capabilities?
Through seamless integrated access to the right information anytime or anywhere.
105
What is the primary purpose of a chat room?
To share information via text with a group of individuals.
106
What services are provided by DCS?
Web conferencing and IM
107
What is the Air Force goal concerning Internet resources?
Within acceptable risks, provide maximum accessibility to personnel requiring access for official business.
108
May government provided hardware and software be authorized for personal use?
Yes, only if approved by appropriate officials.
109
Define inappropriate use of the Internet.
Using the Internet for other than official or authorized purposes is the definition of inappropriate use.
110
Is it appropriate or inappropriate to view another user’s files or communications without permission?
Inappropriate.
111
What are the two types of Air Force Web pages/sites?
Public and private.
112
What is the difference between the public and private Air Force Web pages/sites?
Public webpages/sites are intended for viewing by the general public; private webpages/sites are intended for a limited audience.
113
Who will appoint Air Force portal content managers and content publishers for public and private websites?
Wing commander.
114
What do properly written email summaries provide?
They sum up a lengthy e-mail or re-emphasize topics of significant importance.
115
How many distinct EIM capabilities does SharePoint offer?
Four
116
Which SharePoint workflow requests agreement from all involved parties?
Approval workflow
117
What capabilities does SharePoint offer you for managing documents?
* Store, organize, and locate documents.
* ensure the consistency of documents.
* manage metadata for documents.
* Help protect documents for unauthorized access or use.
* Ensure consistent business process in document handling.
118
What plays a vital role in managing and operating Air Force activities?
Records
119
Whose rights must be protected through the proper implementation of the records management programs?
US government and persons directly affected by Air Force actions
120
What are draft records?
Unsigned or unreleased records that may be altered.
121
What are final records?
Records that have been officially signed, released and cannot be altered
122
How must Air Force units at all levels manage records?
Air Force units at all levels must manage records systematically to make sure they are complete, accurate, trustworthy, and easily accessible.
123
What records relate solely to an individuals private affairs?
Personal records
124
Match the responsibility in column A with the position in column B. Items in column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Column A Column B
____ (1) Manages the base staging area.
____ (2) Ensures offices of records receive a SAV a least every 24 months.
____ (3) Ensures records custodians attend record management training.
____ (4) Maintains the office files plan and accountability for active and inactive records.
____ (5) Ensures all personnel who create, maintain, and dispose of records, attend records management training.
____ (6) Trains all personnel within three months of assignment, whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of records.
a. RM.
b. FARM.
c. COR.
d. RC.
(1) a. (4) d
(2) b. (5) c
(3) c. (6) a
125
What is the purpose of a staging area?
Temporary storage of records pending destruction of transfer to a federal records center.
126
Who ensures installation offices of record conduct periodical unit self-inspections and receive a SAV at least every 24 months?
RM ensures offices of record receive a SAV at least every 24 months.
127
Who is the principal defense policy advisor to the President?
The Secretary of Defense
128
What are all published DOD policies called?
Issuances
129
What are the four major types of DOD issuances?
(1) Directives.
(2) Instructions.
(3) Manuals.
(4) Directive-type memorandums
130
What are the two types of DODD?
Direct oversight and chartering.
131
What DODD authorized the publication of DODM 8570.1-M?
DODD 8570.01 Information Assurance (IA) Training, Certification, and Workforce Management
132
What do non-policy instructions not do?
Establish policy
133
If a DODM exceeds 100 pages in length, what action must be taken?
Must be broken down into multiple volumes
134
What DOD issuance is only used for a time-sensitive action that affects a current DOD issuance or that will become a DOD issuance?
Directive-type memorandums
135
Who governs preparation of JP?
CJCS
136
What Joint Doctrine Document provides a doctrine for information operations planning, preparation, execution, and assessment in support of joint operations?
Joint Publication 3–13, Joint Doctrine for Information Operations
137
What website would you visit for more information on CJCS Publications?
www.jcs.mil
138
What are DISA issuances?
DISA issuances are official Agency policy that establish, delegate, or implement specific policies; assign and delineate responsibilities; and in some cases provide procedures for DISA employees and mission partners who use any DISA managed system.
139
What type of AF publication is a “how-to” guide?
Nondirective publication
140
Why are AFPAMs written in an informal style?
To maintain the readers interest.
141
Define doctrine.
Fundamental principles by which the military forces or elements thereof guide their action in support of national objectives
142
(True/False) Permanent visual aids must be attributable to guidance or information in a directive publication.
True
143
What statement must be printed in the header on directive publications?
Compliance with this publication is mandatory
144
What purpose do AFPDs serve?
Directive policy statement to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities.
145
When would it be appropriate to issue a new AFPM?
When there is insufficient time to process a new AFPD or to rewrite and existing AFPD.
146
What do AFIs provide?
Essential procedural guidance on implementing DoD, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws.
147
What do AFNOIs provide?
Provide operating procedures and checklists for network operations. AFNOIs are used to document standard processes as well as operate, maintain, or troubleshoot network software and equipment and are generated for technical subjects not covered by Air Force publications or technical orders.
148
How are OIs different from AFIs?
OIs differ from AFIs in that they are written at a much lower organizational level such as a squadron or flight level.
149
AFMAN 33–326, Preparing Official Communications, implements which AFPD?
AFPD 33–3, Information Management
150
Installation publications are issued by whom?
Installation commanders
151
(True/False) All publications must be at least as restrictive as the higher headquarters publication they implement and must not contradict the higher headquarters publication.
True
152
What organization manages AF publications?
AFDPO.
153
What form would you use to recommend changes and improvements to Air Force publications?
AF Form 847
154
What information does the TO system include as outlined in TO 00–5–1?
The TOs, infrastructure, training, and resources to manage and use TOs
155
What POC oversees TO requirements and distribution within an organization?
The TODO
156
What are the Technical Order Distribution Office’s (TODO) duties?
• Establish and maintain a TO Account in ETIMS, establish and maintain organization TODA for organization subaccounts, and maintain records of TOs required and on hand in organization physical distribution media TO libraries
157
What do TODA POCs oversee?
• Physical distribution media TO/e-TO requirements and distribution activities within the assigned mission area, shop or office
158
What type of TO provides information on basic electronics or installation practices?
• SIPTO
159
Match the technical order type in Column B with the description in Column A. Items in Column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Column A Column B
____ (1) Support equipment designed and manufactured for commercial use.
____ (2) Excerpts from one or more basic TOs that organize and simplify instructions.
____ (3) Used for modifying military systems and end items or performing one-time inspections.
____ (4) Category 00 and are general in content and are not issued against specific military systems or end items.
____ (5) Developed for other services or government departments and authorized for use by Air Force personnel.
____ (6) Used in lieu of specific equipment TOs, and are categorized into three types: Category, System, and Equipment-series.
____ (7) Contain instructions for use in conjunction with data contained in their parent TOs, and are not stand-alone publications.
____ (8) Covers installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, removing, calibration, servicing or handling of Air Force military systems and end items.
____ (9) Include facility, system, subsystem, installation engineering and installation manuals, general engineering and planning manuals, and standard installation practices .
a. TCTO.
b. MPTO.
c. SIPTO.
d. O&M TO.
e. General TO.
f. COTS Manual.
g. Abbreviated TO.
h. Supplemental TO.
i. Joint use publication.
(1) f.
(2) g.
(3) a.
(4) b.
(5) i.
(6) e.
(7) h.
(8) d.
(9) c.
160
What business sectors does the ANSI influence?
Nearly every sector of business.
161
Where does the Telecommunications Industry Association obtain its accreditation?
ANSI
162
What standards does the ECIA develop?
IP&E electronic components under the ANSI-designation of EIA standards.
163
What specifications do MIL-STDs contain?
Specifications in which commercial vendors would have to meet or exceed when providing equipment or services.
