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Sf Cdc > Volume 3 > Flashcards

Volume 3 Flashcards

(75 cards)

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0
Q

How many Range cards are prepared for each position?

A

2

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1
Q

Range card are a record of

A

Firing data

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2
Q

In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fix weapons require range card?

A

M240B, MK19 and .50 Cal

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3
Q

What acronym does FPL stand for?

A

Final protective line

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4
Q

Which of the following is primarily used to control direct fire weapons but may also be used for indirect fire weapons

A

Target reference point (TRP)

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5
Q

Where would you sketch and magnetic North data on your range card?

A

Marginal data area

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6
Q

What information should you include on a rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position

A

Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets

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7
Q

The space I cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

A

Dead space

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8
Q

When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

A

100

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9
Q

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is what?

A

Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

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10
Q

What is the function of the forward assist?

A

Mockable forward during immediate action procedure

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11
Q

Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

A

A stoppage

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12
Q

The acronym SPORTS stands for?

A

Slap, pool, observe, release,, and shoot

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13
Q

The primary purpose of Preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

A

Clean and properly lubricated

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14
Q

How many different types of ammunition other for the M4 carbine?

A

10

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15
Q

What cartridge, using M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

A

M856

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16
Q

What is The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

A

50 m

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17
Q

What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

A

1800 m

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18
Q

If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

A

Adjusted aiming point method

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19
Q

On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

A

Loaded chamber indicator

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20
Q

Applying immediate actions to remedy and M9 malfunctioning stoppage should be

A

Instinctive

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21
Q

Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

A

Steel

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22
Q

How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

A

4

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23
Q

What is a standard cartridge used with the M9?

A

M882

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24
Which M9 ammunition round is only use to security forces, office of special investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operation security (anti-jacking) duties?
MK 243 MOD 0
25
In meters, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire team size area targets?
150
26
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire team sized area targets?
350
27
What is the waiting period (in seconds) From the time of failure before opening the bell simply to unload the M203
10
28
Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
Ogive
29
What is the number of meters for the danger radius for that M781 practice round used in M203?
20
30
Which M203 Round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing?
Buck shot
31
Under what circumstances would you use M19 ammunition in the M203
Under no circumstances
32
What is the m249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod
600
33
Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
Receiver assembly
34
An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
A stoppage
35
How many rounds does an M249 bandolier contain?
200
36
What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry- fire exercises, and function checks
M199 dummy
37
How is ammunitions bed into the M240B?
100 rounds bandolier, split link belt
38
In meters what is the effective range of the M240B for a point target with a tripod
800
39
From what position is the M240B loaded?
Bolt opened or closed
40
Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
Firing
41
What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B
Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire
42
At a minimum, you cleaned M240V after firing a basic load of how many rounds?
900 to 1200 rounds
43
What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly armored targets?
M61
44
What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) Stand for?
Blank firing adapter
45
Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
MK19
46
What is the standard around for Mk19?
M430
47
Which of the following tripods is most often used gun mount for the MK19?
M4
48
Searching fire is most often used on
Level or evenly sloping ground
49
What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
2000 yards
50
the maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters
700
51
When selecting Kruser weapons positions, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
Predetermined
52
Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data and able to gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
Quickly and accurately
53
Which of the following is an immediately available, pre-Rainsbury a fire to stop and any movement across defensive lines or areas?
Final protective line
54
Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
Final protective line (FPL)
55
Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?
Primary sector fire
56
Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and
Hold the enemy position
57
In meters what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buck shot round?
68
58
The shotgun is an effective weapon when used and what type of role?
Close quarters combat role
59
Sharpshooters will be well-trained and tactical use of which of the following?
Terrain
60
Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksman and sharpshooter teams should include?
Response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance
61
Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
Accuracy
62
The M107 Sniper rifle operates by means of
Short recoil principle
63
The snipers primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from
Concealed positions
64
What are three common characteristics and grenades share?
Short employment range, small Casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing
65
How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
5
66
How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?
Overhand
67
The Claymore mines is used primarily as a
Defensive weapon
68
When the Claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, is considered a
Mine or booby-trap
69
In what year was M18A, Claymore mine standardized
1960
70
When employed in a controlled role, the Claymore is treated as a
One shot weapon
71
The two detonator wells located on the top of the Claymore allow for
Single or dual priming
72
Before firing the light antiarmor weapons (LAW) what should you check?
Backblast area
73
A black and yellow band on the one M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?
High explosive (HE) antiarmor round
74
The M136 AT4 warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal
After armor effects

Sf Cdc (3 decks)

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