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Sf Cdc > Volume 3 > Flashcards

Volume 3 Flashcards

0
Q

How many Range cards are prepared for each position?

A

2

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1
Q

Range card are a record of

A

Firing data

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2
Q

In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fix weapons require range card?

A

M240B, MK19 and .50 Cal

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3
Q

What acronym does FPL stand for?

A

Final protective line

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4
Q

Which of the following is primarily used to control direct fire weapons but may also be used for indirect fire weapons

A

Target reference point (TRP)

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5
Q

Where would you sketch and magnetic North data on your range card?

A

Marginal data area

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6
Q

What information should you include on a rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position

A

Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets

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7
Q

The space I cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

A

Dead space

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8
Q

When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

A

100

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9
Q

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is what?

A

Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

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10
Q

What is the function of the forward assist?

A

Mockable forward during immediate action procedure

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11
Q

Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

A

A stoppage

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12
Q

The acronym SPORTS stands for?

A

Slap, pool, observe, release,, and shoot

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13
Q

The primary purpose of Preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

A

Clean and properly lubricated

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14
Q

How many different types of ammunition other for the M4 carbine?

A

10

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15
Q

What cartridge, using M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

A

M856

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16
Q

What is The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

A

50 m

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17
Q

What is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

A

1800 m

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18
Q

If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

A

Adjusted aiming point method

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19
Q

On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

A

Loaded chamber indicator

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20
Q

Applying immediate actions to remedy and M9 malfunctioning stoppage should be

A

Instinctive

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21
Q

Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

A

Steel

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22
Q

How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

A

4

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23
Q

What is a standard cartridge used with the M9?

A

M882

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24
Q

Which M9 ammunition round is only use to security forces, office of special investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operation security (anti-jacking) duties?

A

MK 243 MOD 0

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25
Q

In meters, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire team size area targets?

A

150

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26
Q

In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire team sized area targets?

A

350

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27
Q

What is the waiting period (in seconds) From the time of failure before opening the bell simply to unload the M203

A

10

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28
Q

Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

A

Ogive

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29
Q

What is the number of meters for the danger radius for that M781 practice round used in M203?

A

20

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30
Q

Which M203 Round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing?

A

Buck shot

31
Q

Under what circumstances would you use M19 ammunition in the M203

A

Under no circumstances

32
Q

What is the m249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod

A

600

33
Q

Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

A

Receiver assembly

34
Q

An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?

A

A stoppage

35
Q

How many rounds does an M249 bandolier contain?

A

200

36
Q

What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry- fire exercises, and function checks

A

M199 dummy

37
Q

How is ammunitions bed into the M240B?

A

100 rounds bandolier, split link belt

38
Q

In meters what is the effective range of the M240B for a point target with a tripod

A

800

39
Q

From what position is the M240B loaded?

A

Bolt opened or closed

40
Q

Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

A

Firing

41
Q

What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B

A

Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire

42
Q

At a minimum, you cleaned M240V after firing a basic load of how many rounds?

A

900 to 1200 rounds

43
Q

What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly armored targets?

A

M61

44
Q

What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) Stand for?

A

Blank firing adapter

45
Q

Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

A

MK19

46
Q

What is the standard around for Mk19?

A

M430

47
Q

Which of the following tripods is most often used gun mount for the MK19?

A

M4

48
Q

Searching fire is most often used on

A

Level or evenly sloping ground

49
Q

What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?

A

2000 yards

50
Q

the maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters

A

700

51
Q

When selecting Kruser weapons positions, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?

A

Predetermined

52
Q

Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data and able to gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target

A

Quickly and accurately

53
Q

Which of the following is an immediately available, pre-Rainsbury a fire to stop and any movement across defensive lines or areas?

A

Final protective line

54
Q

Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?

A

Final protective line (FPL)

55
Q

Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

A

Primary sector fire

56
Q

Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and

A

Hold the enemy position

57
Q

In meters what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using “00” buck shot round?

A

68

58
Q

The shotgun is an effective weapon when used and what type of role?

A

Close quarters combat role

59
Q

Sharpshooters will be well-trained and tactical use of which of the following?

A

Terrain

60
Q

Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksman and sharpshooter teams should include?

A

Response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance

61
Q

Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior

A

Accuracy

62
Q

The M107 Sniper rifle operates by means of

A

Short recoil principle

63
Q

The snipers primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from

A

Concealed positions

64
Q

What are three common characteristics and grenades share?

A

Short employment range, small Casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing

65
Q

How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

A

5

66
Q

How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?

A

Overhand

67
Q

The Claymore mines is used primarily as a

A

Defensive weapon

68
Q

When the Claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, is considered a

A

Mine or booby-trap

69
Q

In what year was M18A, Claymore mine standardized

A

1960

70
Q

When employed in a controlled role, the Claymore is treated as a

A

One shot weapon

71
Q

The two detonator wells located on the top of the Claymore allow for

A

Single or dual priming

72
Q

Before firing the light antiarmor weapons (LAW) what should you check?

A

Backblast area

73
Q

A black and yellow band on the one M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?

A

High explosive (HE) antiarmor round

74
Q

The M136 AT4 warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal

A

After armor effects

Sf Cdc (3 decks)

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