Volume 4 Flashcards

(100 cards)

0
Q

Which principal for is most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?

A

Offensive

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1
Q

Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces

A

Security

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2
Q

What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?

A

Aggressive defense

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3
Q

A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing what?

A

Key terrains

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4
Q

After the threat has been neutralize, which integrated Defense effect is implemented to consolidate reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?

A

Recovery

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5
Q

Which forces the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated base defense operations?

A

Security forces

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6
Q

Which agency will the base defense operations center up channel covered wagon report reportable incidents through?

A

Installation command post

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7
Q

The jettisoning of the nuclear weapons or nuclear component is an example of nuclear weapons what?

A

Accident

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8
Q

Personnel assigned to Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

A

24

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9
Q

What may be the most dangerous type of improvised explosive device

A

Vehicle borne

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10
Q

Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crisis either unilaterally or as part of interagency see or multinational effort?

A

President or secretary of defense

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11
Q

Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens

A

Noncombatant and evacuation

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12
Q

Which operation may be clandestine , covert, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?

A

Recovery

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13
Q

Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information?

A

HUMINT

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14
Q

Force protection measures will be planned according with

A

The risks to the force

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15
Q

Which type of attack involves an insider threat?

A

Penetration attack

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16
Q

Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the United States?

A

Department of State

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17
Q

The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is

A

Bombing

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18
Q

Active terrorist groups are organizing themselves Into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as

A

25 to 30 people

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19
Q

Which individuals/groups promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired?

A

Crusaders

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20
Q

What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty producing attacks as a preferred method of operation?

A

High

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21
Q

The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use

A

Violence to achieve political goals

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22
Q

COIN operations requiring readers to exhibit

A

Patience, persistence, and presence

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23
Q

To avoid detection by the government, How will insurgents operate

A

In small bands

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24
Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments
Intergovernmental organization
25
Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization?
The United Nations
26
Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key
Sovereignty issues
27
Which face is austerely manned was capable of expanding into full-scale airbase operation
Limited base
28
What do peacetime for contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?
Flexibility
29
During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for
Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan
30
An effective tool to control integrated Defense operations is
Base secularization
31
What should a flight sector sketch show
Flight and squadron identification
32
In what year did the Geneva conventions become effective
1956
33
Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?
The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive
34
The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is
50 m
35
To avoid receiving electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS),
Remove the positive lead first
36
Which function provides transition of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators
Communications
37
What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and handheld display monitor?
TMS
38
A scanning method known as the self-preservation method of search last approximately how long?
30 seconds
39
When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
Aiming point
40
What is the greatest limitation in using the hundred meter method of range determination
Accuracy is directly related to the amount of terrain visible to the observer
41
How does observer use off-center vision when viewing object during Limited visibility
Look 10° above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at
42
If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaptation within how many minutes after removing the goggles?
2
43
When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue approach must you bury the magnetic sensor
6 to 8 inches
44
The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are
Animator head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter
45
The ELtec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in
Dense fog
46
What is the WSTI used for
To assess the alarms of a sensor activation
47
How many people required to set up a wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod?
2
48
From where do all operational command controls performed from
JCU
49
The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to
Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system
50
Which major component on the AN/PVS-4 is adjusted for variations in the users eyesight
Eyepiece assembly
51
What are the components of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle
Facemask and goggle
52
What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect
Glass lens
53
The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of
Light
54
On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular
Compass
55
On the AN/PVS-14 Night vision device what adjusted distance between your eye in the monocular
Eye relief adjustment
56
That head held thermal imager powers on what mode
Auto
57
During offensive and defensive operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage
Weather and the type of material used
58
Where is the best position for defensive fighting position to avoid enemy detection
The side of the hill
59
What are the three ways of concealing yourself from enemy detection
Hiding, blending and deceiving
60
When camouflaging your skin around the eyes, nose, and chin, use
Light paint colors
61
Why does camouflage discipline become more important at night
Noises seem amplified and revealing at night
62
One of the simplest ways to distort outline of weapon is
Rapid with burlap garnishes or strips dyed cloth
63
What determines if you will build overhead cover up or down on the defensive fire position?
The potential for enemy observation of position
64
What is the proper method of firing from a window
Kneeling in far back from the window
65
To ensure there is no binding between the trigger trigger pay that when it triggers cock place the tripwire at
Right angles to the axis of the trigger
66
When recovering the M49A1 trip flayer, what is the first step in using the pimple method
Remove the pool pan and replace the safety clip
67
What movement technique do you use when speed is required and we can rush the technique
High crawl
68
You use rolling movement technique to
Confuse your adversary
69
The most common mistakes from moving past Windows are exposing the head and
Not being aware of basement windows
70
Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of the corners called
Flagging
71
Selection of tea movement techniques is based on
Likelihood of any contact and need for speed
72
Which movement technique to use when speed is essential and any contact is not likely
Traveling
73
In traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located
50 m behind the lead fire team
74
You use the bounding overwatch formation when
Enemy contact is expected
75
What are the two types of ambushes
Near and far
76
The smallest unit to conduct an area ambush is
A squad
77
When using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks, where does the squad leader position key weapons
Along likely avenues of approach
78
What isn't easily located in defendable location on the patrols route
Objective rally point
79
Based on the terrain, vegetation and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every hundred two
400 m
80
What are the principles of NIDD
Notify, impede, disable, and destroy
81
Where can you find the sheet name of a map
In the center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin
82
What terrain feature is stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?
Valley
83
What do contour lines show you when you look at a map
Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map
84
What are the three types of con tour lines used on a topographic map
Index, intermediate, and supplementary
85
What types of slow or even, but close together
Steep
86
When reading a topo graphical map to plot a great coordinate, you read from
Left to right; bottom to top
87
What is the center of the protractor circle from which all directions are measured
Index Mark
88
The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use
A ruler
89
To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe separation distance from telephone wire is
10 m
90
Which method is used almost exclusively for sighting and is the best technique for this purpose
Compass to cheek
91
If you use the watch method to find directions on daylight savings time the north-south line is between hour hand and
1300 hrs.
92
Which method lets you locate a position using to well-defined locations pinpointed on the map
Resection
93
Which field expedient method is more forgiving of mistakes and less time-consuming
Navigation by terrain association
94
What does the term METT-TC mean
Mission, enemy, terrain and weather, troops and time available
95
Why is navigating by train association preferred over dead reckoning
Errors and navigation are easily correctable
96
The DAGR provides to the user position
Velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities
97
Which DAGR mode uses the most power and track satellites to produce a continuous PVT solution
Continuous
98
What consists of a collection of position and movement data for geographic location
Situational awareness
99
How many waypoints can be entered and stored in the AN/PSN-11
999