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Sf Cdc > Volume 4 > Flashcards

Volume 4 Flashcards

0
Q

Which principal for is most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?

A

Offensive

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1
Q

Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces

A

Security

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2
Q

What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?

A

Aggressive defense

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3
Q

A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing what?

A

Key terrains

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4
Q

After the threat has been neutralize, which integrated Defense effect is implemented to consolidate reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?

A

Recovery

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5
Q

Which forces the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated base defense operations?

A

Security forces

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6
Q

Which agency will the base defense operations center up channel covered wagon report reportable incidents through?

A

Installation command post

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7
Q

The jettisoning of the nuclear weapons or nuclear component is an example of nuclear weapons what?

A

Accident

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8
Q

Personnel assigned to Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

A

24

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9
Q

What may be the most dangerous type of improvised explosive device

A

Vehicle borne

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10
Q

Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crisis either unilaterally or as part of interagency see or multinational effort?

A

President or secretary of defense

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11
Q

Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens

A

Noncombatant and evacuation

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12
Q

Which operation may be clandestine , covert, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?

A

Recovery

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13
Q

Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information?

A

HUMINT

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14
Q

Force protection measures will be planned according with

A

The risks to the force

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15
Q

Which type of attack involves an insider threat?

A

Penetration attack

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16
Q

Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the United States?

A

Department of State

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17
Q

The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is

A

Bombing

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18
Q

Active terrorist groups are organizing themselves Into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as

A

25 to 30 people

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19
Q

Which individuals/groups promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired?

A

Crusaders

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20
Q

What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty producing attacks as a preferred method of operation?

A

High

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21
Q

The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use

A

Violence to achieve political goals

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22
Q

COIN operations requiring readers to exhibit

A

Patience, persistence, and presence

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23
Q

To avoid detection by the government, How will insurgents operate

A

In small bands

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24
Q

Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments

A

Intergovernmental organization

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25
Q

Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization?

A

The United Nations

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26
Q

Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key

A

Sovereignty issues

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27
Q

Which face is austerely manned was capable of expanding into full-scale airbase operation

A

Limited base

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28
Q

What do peacetime for contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?

A

Flexibility

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29
Q

During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for

A

Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan

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30
Q

An effective tool to control integrated Defense operations is

A

Base secularization

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31
Q

What should a flight sector sketch show

A

Flight and squadron identification

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32
Q

In what year did the Geneva conventions become effective

A

1956

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33
Q

Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?

A

The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive

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34
Q

The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is

A

50 m

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35
Q

To avoid receiving electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS),

A

Remove the positive lead first

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36
Q

Which function provides transition of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators

A

Communications

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37
Q

What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and handheld display monitor?

A

TMS

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38
Q

A scanning method known as the self-preservation method of search last approximately how long?

A

30 seconds

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39
Q

When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is

A

Aiming point

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40
Q

What is the greatest limitation in using the hundred meter method of range determination

A

Accuracy is directly related to the amount of terrain visible to the observer

41
Q

How does observer use off-center vision when viewing object during Limited visibility

A

Look 10° above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at

42
Q

If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaptation within how many minutes after removing the goggles?

A

2

43
Q

When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue approach must you bury the magnetic sensor

A

6 to 8 inches

44
Q

The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are

A

Animator head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

45
Q

The ELtec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in

A

Dense fog

46
Q

What is the WSTI used for

A

To assess the alarms of a sensor activation

47
Q

How many people required to set up a wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod?

A

2

48
Q

From where do all operational command controls performed from

A

JCU

49
Q

The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to

A

Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system

50
Q

Which major component on the AN/PVS-4 is adjusted for variations in the users eyesight

A

Eyepiece assembly

51
Q

What are the components of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle

A

Facemask and goggle

52
Q

What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect

A

Glass lens

53
Q

The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of

A

Light

54
Q

On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular

A

Compass

55
Q

On the AN/PVS-14 Night vision device what adjusted distance between your eye in the monocular

A

Eye relief adjustment

56
Q

That head held thermal imager powers on what mode

A

Auto

57
Q

During offensive and defensive operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage

A

Weather and the type of material used

58
Q

Where is the best position for defensive fighting position to avoid enemy detection

A

The side of the hill

59
Q

What are the three ways of concealing yourself from enemy detection

A

Hiding, blending and deceiving

60
Q

When camouflaging your skin around the eyes, nose, and chin, use

A

Light paint colors

61
Q

Why does camouflage discipline become more important at night

A

Noises seem amplified and revealing at night

62
Q

One of the simplest ways to distort outline of weapon is

A

Rapid with burlap garnishes or strips dyed cloth

63
Q

What determines if you will build overhead cover up or down on the defensive fire position?

A

The potential for enemy observation of position

64
Q

What is the proper method of firing from a window

A

Kneeling in far back from the window

65
Q

To ensure there is no binding between the trigger trigger pay that when it triggers cock place the tripwire at

A

Right angles to the axis of the trigger

66
Q

When recovering the M49A1 trip flayer, what is the first step in using the pimple method

A

Remove the pool pan and replace the safety clip

67
Q

What movement technique do you use when speed is required and we can rush the technique

A

High crawl

68
Q

You use rolling movement technique to

A

Confuse your adversary

69
Q

The most common mistakes from moving past Windows are exposing the head and

A

Not being aware of basement windows

70
Q

Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of the corners called

A

Flagging

71
Q

Selection of tea movement techniques is based on

A

Likelihood of any contact and need for speed

72
Q

Which movement technique to use when speed is essential and any contact is not likely

A

Traveling

73
Q

In traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located

A

50 m behind the lead fire team

74
Q

You use the bounding overwatch formation when

A

Enemy contact is expected

75
Q

What are the two types of ambushes

A

Near and far

76
Q

The smallest unit to conduct an area ambush is

A

A squad

77
Q

When using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks, where does the squad leader position key weapons

A

Along likely avenues of approach

78
Q

What isn’t easily located in defendable location on the patrols route

A

Objective rally point

79
Q

Based on the terrain, vegetation and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every hundred two

A

400 m

80
Q

What are the principles of NIDD

A

Notify, impede, disable, and destroy

81
Q

Where can you find the sheet name of a map

A

In the center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin

82
Q

What terrain feature is stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?

A

Valley

83
Q

What do contour lines show you when you look at a map

A

Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map

84
Q

What are the three types of con tour lines used on a topographic map

A

Index, intermediate, and supplementary

85
Q

What types of slow or even, but close together

A

Steep

86
Q

When reading a topo graphical map to plot a great coordinate, you read from

A

Left to right; bottom to top

87
Q

What is the center of the protractor circle from which all directions are measured

A

Index Mark

88
Q

The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use

A

A ruler

89
Q

To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe separation distance from telephone wire is

A

10 m

90
Q

Which method is used almost exclusively for sighting and is the best technique for this purpose

A

Compass to cheek

91
Q

If you use the watch method to find directions on daylight savings time the north-south line is between hour hand and

A

1300 hrs.

92
Q

Which method lets you locate a position using to well-defined locations pinpointed on the map

A

Resection

93
Q

Which field expedient method is more forgiving of mistakes and less time-consuming

A

Navigation by terrain association

94
Q

What does the term METT-TC mean

A

Mission, enemy, terrain and weather, troops and time available

95
Q

Why is navigating by train association preferred over dead reckoning

A

Errors and navigation are easily correctable

96
Q

The DAGR provides to the user position

A

Velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities

97
Q

Which DAGR mode uses the most power and track satellites to produce a continuous PVT solution

A

Continuous

98
Q

What consists of a collection of position and movement data for geographic location

A

Situational awareness

99
Q

How many waypoints can be entered and stored in the AN/PSN-11

A

999

Sf Cdc (3 decks)

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