Volume 4

Question 1

Which item is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?
a) Production date.
b) Shipping label.
c) Obvious damage.
d) Transportation control number.

Answer 1

Production date.

Question 2

Who works with the in-checker to ensure items are correctly identified and the appropriate condition tags or labels are used on the assets?
a) Customer.
b) Inspector.
c) Item manager.
d) Commander.

Answer 2

Inspector.

Question 3

Which block of the AF Form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated the form?
a) A.
b) B.
c) C.
d) D.

Answer 3

B.

Question 4

Which operation includes verifying identity, security classification, condition, status, markings, tagging, and labeling for property?
a) Storage operations.
b) Inspection operations.
c) Receiving operations.
d) Inventory operations.

Answer 4

Inspection operations.

Question 5

Who is responsible for overseeing the Care of Supplies in Storage (COSIS) program?
a) Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.
b) Materiel management inspectors.
c) LRS deputy commander.
d) Chief inspector.

Answer 5

Chief inspector.

Question 6

What three things are used to identify an item?
a) Reference number, item number, and stock number.
b) Stock number, nomenclature, and item description.
c) Stock number, item description, and specifications.
d) Reference number, stock number, and item description.

Answer 6

Reference number, stock number, and item description.

Question 7

Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?
a) DD Form 1576, Test Modification Tag.
b) DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.
c) DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.
d) DD Form 1577–3, Unserviceable (Reparable) Label.

Answer 7

DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.

Question 8

What is the purpose of Department of Defense (DD) Form 2477, Inspection Extension?
a) Updates inspection data.
b) Identifies condemned items.
c) Identifies property forwarded to maintenance.
d) Identifies property in stock that has been suspended.

Answer 8

Updates inspection data.

Question 9

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change?
a) FCH.
b) FCU.
c) FCC.
d) FCI.

Answer 9

FCC.

Question 10

An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the
a) property was damaged.
b) customer failed to cancel the due-out.
c) property delivered was an unsuitable substitute.
d) quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered.

Answer 10

customer failed to cancel the due-out.

Question 11

Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program of all items in storage?
a) Inspector.
b) Logistics manager.
c) Accountable officer.
d) Warehouse supervisor.

Answer 11

Inspector.

Question 12

When is a supply discrepancy report (SDR) required?
a) Assets involving local base or station deliveries to or returns from internal or satellite activities.
b) Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments.
c) Logistic readiness squadron (LRS) processed an issue request.
d) LRS cancels an issue request.

Answer 12

Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments.

Question 13

Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when additional help is needed?
a) Major command (MAJCOM).
b) Stock control function.
c) Accountable officer.
d) Item manager.

Answer 13

Major command (MAJCOM).

Question 14

At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?
a) Between 50 and 60°F.
b) Between 32 and 50°F.
c) Below 32°F.
d) Below 0°F.

Answer 14

Between 32 and 50°F.

Question 15

At a minimum, how many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other facilities?
a) 25.
b) 50.
c) 75.
d) 100.

Answer 15

50.

Question 16

What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
a) Adverse weather.
b) Wet ground conditions.
c) Slipping on steel mat toppings.
d) Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE).

Answer 16

Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE).

Question 17

The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the
a) materiel handling equipment.
b) gross space available.
c) storage space.
d) storage plan.

Answer 17

storage space.

Question 18

What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible?
a) Bin rows.
b) Storage areas.
c) Item popularity.
d) Item similarity.

Answer 18

Storage areas.

Question 19

When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what storage factor?
a) Item quantity.
b) Item similarity.
c) Item popularity.
d) Item size and weight.

Answer 19

Item quantity.

Question 20

What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?
a) 045.
b) 056.
c) F.
d) D.

Answer 20

D.

Question 21

Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
a) left to right only.
b) right to left only.
c) left to right and front to rear.
d) right to left and rear to front.

Answer 21

left to right and front to rear.

Question 22

What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location?
a) R.
b) D.
c) #.
d) *.

Answer 22

*.

Question 23

What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?
a) Storage bays.
b) Corner markers.
c) Bar-coded labels.
d) Placement cards.

Answer 23

Bar-coded labels.

Question 24

Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?
a) 3.
b) 7.
c) 10.
d) 14.

Answer 24

10.

Question 25

How many days prior to the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse location parameter input prepared? a) 1. b) 3. c) 5. d) 7.

Answer 25

1.

Question 26

What action is required prior to performing a validation to ensure a warehouse is in the best condition for an inventory? a) Inventory reserve assets. b) Prepare the warehouse area. c) Move assets to reserve location. d) Move assets to alternate warehouse.

Answer 26

Prepare the warehouse area.

Question 27

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to move property to the correct location? a) ISU. b) FCS. c) SPR. d) TRM.

Answer 27

FCS.

Question 28

The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called a) honeycombing. b) cross stacking. c) mezzanine storage. d) potential vacant space.

Answer 28

honeycombing.

Question 29

Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be a) saved as historical data. b) obliterated. c) recycled. d) ignored.

Answer 29

obliterated.

Question 30

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change? a) FCD. b) FIC. c) FCH. d) 1SC.

Answer 30

FIC.

Question 31

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to manually transfer nondirected assets to the Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)? a) A2*. b) FTR. c) SHP. d) TRM.

Answer 31

TRM.

Question 32

What routing identifier code (RIC) is processed with a special requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)? a) AK1. b) B14. c) JBR. d) SMS.

Answer 32

JBR.

Question 33

What is used to identify hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product? a) Environmental Protection Agency guidance. b) The Materiel Management System. c) Safety data sheet (SDS). d) HAZMAT pharmacy.

Answer 33

Safety data sheet (SDS).

Question 34

As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception (IEX) code or health hazard flag (HHF) assigned? a) Daily. b) Weekly. c) Monthly. d) Quarterly.

Answer 34

Monthly.

Question 35

Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of a) 80 degrees Fahrenheit (°F). b) 90°F. c) 100°F. d) 110°F.

Answer 35

100°F.

Question 36

What type of material storage is best used for items such as pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries? a) High risk. b) Flammable. c) Corrosive. d) Low hazard.

Answer 36

Low hazard.

Question 37

When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue? a) FCA. b) FCB. c) FCC. d) FCD.

Answer 37

FCC.

Question 38

Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories? a) One. b) Two. c) Three. d) Four.

Answer 38

Two.

Question 39

Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes? a) Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS). b) Producing organization. c) Inspection element. d) Distribution officer.

Answer 39

Producing organization.

Question 40

Which class of storage vault is used for storing secret and confidential materiel? a) A. b) B. c) C. d) D.

Answer 40

B.

Question 41

Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP? a) Item manager. b) Maintenance supervisor. c) Materiel management flight chief inspector. d) Logistic readiness squadron (LRS) commander.

Answer 41

Materiel management flight chief inspector.

Question 42

Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to the nearest Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) facility? a) Department of Defense (DOD) activity. b) Major command (MAJCOM). c) Headquarters (HQ) USAF. d) Item manager.

Answer 42

Department of Defense (DOD) activity.

Question 43

As a minimum, how often must the combination on padlocks be changed for classified storage? a) Monthly. b) Quarterly. c) Semiannually. d) Annually.

Answer 43

Annually.

Question 44

How are electronic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record? a) Issue exception (IEX) code 3. b) IEX code 4. c) Type cargo code 3. d) Type cargo code 4.

Answer 44

Type cargo code 3.

Question 45

What transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device (ESD) item from a detail record to maintenance for testing? a) ISU, E. b) MSI, E. c) ISU, C. d) MSI, C.

Answer 45

MSI, C.

Question 46

If required, who can open an electrostatic discharge (ESD) item package? a) Item managers. b) ESD receiving personnel. c) Materiel management inspector. d) Logistics readiness squadron commander (LRS\CC).

Answer 46

Materiel management inspector.

Question 47

What markings on an item provides proof that a functional check was done? a) Base supply inspector’s stamp/signature. b) Base maintenance inspector’s stamp/signature. c) Maintenance point of contact stamp/signature. d) The words “Functional Check Performed” on the container.

Answer 47

Base maintenance inspector’s stamp/signature.

Question 48

As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing produced? a) Weekly. b) Monthly. c) Semiannually. d) Annually.

Answer 48

Semiannually.

Question 49

What type of shelf life coded item has a definite nonextendable shelf-life? a) Type A. b) Type B. c) Type I. d) Type II.

Answer 49

Type I.

Question 50

How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing? a) 10. b) 15 to 45. c) 60 to 90. d) 120.

Answer 50

15 to 45.

Question 51

What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record? a) FCC with suspect flag F. b) FCD with suspect flag F. c) FCC with suspect flag S. d) FCD with suspect flag S.

Answer 51

FCD with suspect flag S.

Question 52

What is employed to determine how counterfeit/discrepant materiel was procured to prevent reoccurrence? a) Risk-based approach. b) Safety-based approach. c) Leadership-based approach. d) Management-based approach.

Answer 52

Risk-based approach.

Question 53

Which program reviews discrepant and suspected counterfeit materiel? a) Air Force Discrepancy Reporting System. b) Air Force Damage Reporting System. c) Joint Discrepancy Reporting System. d) Joint Damage Reporting System.

Answer 53

Joint Discrepancy Reporting System.

Question 54

The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number, a) model, and manufacturer’s name. b) model, and manufacturer’s reference number. c) part number, and manufacturer’s name and address. d) part number, and manufacturer’s reference number.

Answer 54

model, and manufacturer’s name.

Question 55

At a minimum, how frequently is the unserviceable storage area reviewed by storage personnel for validation purposes? a) Daily. b) Weekly. c) Monthly. d) Quarterly.

Answer 55

Daily.

Question 56

The inventory deadline date is the Julian date the actual count a) begins. b) ends. c) is scheduled. d) is verified.

Answer 56

begins.

Question 57

Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts and issues for an unreasonable length of time and that all backlog transactions are processed upon completion of the inventory? a) Accountable officer. b) Warehouse supervisor. c) Maintenance supervisor. d) Item manager.

Answer 57

Accountable officer.

Question 58

When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the a) unit price. b) unit of issue. c) controlled item code. d) physical count quantity.

Answer 58

physical count quantity.

Question 59

When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions? a) Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14). b) Parameter inputs. c) 1GP output notice. d) Equipment listing.

Answer 59

Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14).

Question 60

What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file? a) Reverse post output document. b) Inventory count record. c) Inventory recount image (IRC) output document. d) Annotated 1GP notice.

Answer 60

Annotated 1GP notice.

Question 61

An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is less than a) $25. b) $50. c) $100. d) $1,000.

Answer 61

$100.

Question 62

To indicate that additional research is needed, the modified recount image contains a research indicator of a) AC. b) AR. c) AT. d) AZ.

Answer 62

AR.

Question 63

At a minimum, how often will an inventory analysis be performed? a) Daily. b) Monthly. c) Semi-annual. d) Annual.

Answer 63

Monthly.

Question 64

Which listing has an intermediate inventory adjustment summary of the inventory analysis? a) D04. b) D06. c) M10. d) R14.

Answer 64

M10.

Question 65

Who initiates the deficiency report process to include the deficient property at the time of turn-in? a) Materiel management personnel. b) Maintenance personnel. c) Warehouse supervisor. d) Item manager.

Answer 65

Maintenance personnel.

Question 66

Which document is an official report of facts and circumstances supporting assessment of financial liability for the loss, damage, or destruction of Air Force property? a) Report of discrepancy. b) Report of survey. c) Supply discrepancy report. d) Deficiency evaluation report.

Answer 66

Report of survey.

Question 67

Which individual is appointed by the unit commander to accept custodial responsibility for government property under their control? a) Item manager. b) Accountable officer. c) Property custodian. d) Maintenance supervisor.

Answer 67

Property custodian.

Question 68

Which concept mandates all personnel are essential to conserve, protect, and maintain available government systems, equipment and supplies for operational requirements? a) Supply discipline. b) Inventory adjustment. c) Materiel deficiency report. d) Reports of survey.

Answer 68

Supply discipline.

Question 69

The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for bench stock items must be a) XB3. b) XF3. c) ND2. d) XD2.

Answer 69

XB3.

Question 70

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the initial master bench stock details? a) 1BS. b) 2BS. c) 1F3. d) 1GP.

Answer 70

2BS.

Question 71

Once the date of last demand has exceeded how many days are bench stock items recommended for deletion? a) 120. b) 180. c) 270. d) 360.

Answer 71

270.

Question 72

Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to organizational bench stocks? a) M04. b) R26. c) R31. d) S04.

Answer 72

M04.

Question 73

How often must bench stock standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated? a) Monthly. b) Quarterly. c) Semiannually. d) Annually.

Answer 73

Annually.

Question 74

Which principle of materiel handling obtains the greatest economy in moving materiel? a) Advanced planning. b) Use straight line flow. c) Least handling is the best handling. d) Volume dictates the method of handling.

Answer 74

Least handling is the best handling.

Question 75

Which principle of materiel handling requires consideration of legal and physical restrictions concerning transportation? a) Advanced planning. b) Use straight line flow. c) Least handling is the best handling. d) Volume dictates the method of handling.

Answer 75

Advanced planning.

Question 76

What can increase productivity and utilization of warehouse space in addition to improving mission capability and enhancing safety? a) Honeycombing b) Storage aids systems. c) Support equipment. d) Packaging materials.

Answer 76

Storage aids systems.

Question 77

Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips? a) 10. b) 25. c) 50. d) 100.

Answer 77

10.

Question 78

Which action makes cargo loading and unloading as fast and easy as possible? a) Calibrate. b) Palletize. c) Refurbish. d) Demilitarize.

Answer 78

Palletize.

Question 79

Which element within the logistic readiness squadron (LRS) is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons? a) Mobility. b) Stock control. c) Storage and issue. d) Customer service.

Answer 79

Mobility.

Question 80

What is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations? a) Sensitive items. b) Classified items. c) Industrial supplies. d) General supplies.

Answer 80

Sensitive items.

Question 81

Identification of persons authorized to accept controlled material is done according to a) Air Force Instruction (AFI) 31–401, Information Security Program Management. b) Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–122, Materiel Management. c) AFI 16–1404, Air Force Information Security Program. d) AFI 23–2308, Management Program.

Answer 81

AFI 16–1404, Air Force Information Security Program.

Question 82

Who is responsible for training logistics readiness squadron (LRS) personnel who will handle controlled materiel? a) Inventory section. b) Security forces. c) Chief inspector. d) Commander.

Answer 82

Chief inspector.

Question 83

Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies involving classified items? a) Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. b) Maintenance supervisor. c) Security manager. d) Item manager.

Answer 83

Security manager.

Question 84

What color of ink is used to stamp or write “Classified Item” on copies of source documents for classified items? a) Blue. b) Red. c) Black. d) Green.

Answer 84

Red.

Question 85

Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements? a) Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team. b) Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. c) Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). d) Item manager.

Answer 85

Item manager.

Question 86

Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities? a) Item manager. b) Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). c) Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. d) Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team.

Answer 86

Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team.

Question 87

What item must be loaded in the Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES-S) system for all individuals who receive parts from the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)? a) Customer record. b) Position identifier. c) Domain name server. d) Stock control system.

Answer 87

Customer record.

Question 88

Which report provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets? a) Items Pulled. b) Items Not Pulled. c) Items Received by Customer. d) Items Not Received by Customer.

Answer 88

Items Not Received by Customer.

Question 89

The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility (EVA) component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force a) owned assets. b) sourced assets. c) asset shortages. d) repairable assets.

Answer 89

owned assets.

Question 90

What legacy systems can the Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S) query and view orders in? a) D043; LIMS-EV; Materiel Management System. b) D035A; LIMS-EV; Materiel Management System. c) Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K. d) D035A; D035K; D043.

Answer 90

Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K.

Question 91

In Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S), what are the three main areas of the Order Selection Page? a) Search Value, Selection Criteria, and Order Selection Criteria. b) Required Selection Criteria, Data Source, and Display Criteria. c) Order Selection Criteria, DODAAC, and Display Criteria. d) Data Source, Search Value, and DODAAC.

Answer 91

Data Source, Search Value, and DODAAC.

Question 92

What type of audits does the Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information for? a) Management and inventory. b) Issue and requisition. c) Internal and external. d) Single and multiple.

Answer 92

Internal and external.

Question 93

What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail materiel? a) Stock control system (SCS). b) Logistics Information Network (LINK). c) Visual Logistics Information Processing System (VLIPS). d) Standard Automated Materiel Management System (SAMMS).

Answer 93

Stock control system (SCS).

Question 94

Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flightline base level user? a) TRACKER. b) RAMPS. c) LINK. d) SCS.

Answer 94

TRACKER.

Question 95

Which supports repair execution and item distribution, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair? a) Readiness Assessment Module. b) Propulsion Requirement System. c) Requirements/Execution Availability Logistics Module. d) Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System.

Answer 95

Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System.

Question 96

The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours? a) 24. b) 36. c) 48. d) 72.

Answer 96

24.

Question 97

How long are the Supply Interface System residue images kept before they are deleted? a) 5 days. b) 7 days. c) 10 days. d) 14 days.

Answer 97

10 days.

Question 98

How can users request access to the logistics, installations & mission support-enterprise view (LIMS-EV)? a) Via the Air Force Portal. b) Through the Supply Interface System. c) Contacting the Defense Logistics Agency. d) Via the Logistics Information Network.

Answer 98

Via the Air Force Portal.