VTNE Flashcards
(240 cards)
1
Q
What would be found in abundance in a skeletal muscle cell?
A
Mitochondria
2
Q
What uses active transport?
A
Sodium-potassium pump
3
Q
What contains hyaline cartilage?
A
Articular cartilage in a long bone
4
Q
The stomach is ___ to the heart
A
Caudal
5
Q
What houses osteocytes in compact bone?
A
Lacunae
6
Q
These striated cells are joined by intercalated disks and have a single, centrally located nucleus:
A
Cardiac muscle
7
Q
Schwamm cells:
A
Are supportive and protective only
8
Q
What vessel contains oxygenated blood?
A
Pulmonary vein
9
Q
During contractions, the electrical impulse in the heart travels through several structures. What is the correct order of transmission
A
SA node, AV node, Bundle of Hiss, Perkinje Fibers
10
Q
What part of the ECG is presented by the P wave?
A
Atrial systole
11
Q
Food travels through the stomach of the ruminant in what order?
A
Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum
12
Q
In the digestive system, which cells produce the necessary hydrochloric acid?
A
Parietal cells
13
Q
During inhalation, the diaphragm moves:
A
Caudally
14
Q
The outer cortex of the kidney contains all of the following except:
A
Loop of Henle
15
Q
What hormone is responsible for stimulating the sympatic nervous system?
A
Epinephrine
16
Q
The colored part of the eye is the:
A
Iris
17
Q
The auditory ossicles are located:
A
In the middle ear
18
Q
ADH ( vasopressin) causes water reabsorption and is released by which gland?
A
Pituitary
19
Q
What has a prostate but no bulbourethral gland?
A
Dog
20
Q
What layer of skin contains “water-proofing” cells?
A
Stratum granulosum
21
Q
In qualitative and semi-qualitative urine analysis, which type of substance is exogenous?
A
Phenolsulfonphthalein
22
Q
Urine samples should be analyzed within ___ for maximum valid information
A
30 minutes
23
Q
Normally freshly voided urine of many species is clear. Exceptions include which species?
A
Rabbits, Horses, Hamsters
24
Q
It is recommended that urine sample size be standardized. An adequate sample of fresh urine is considered to be:
A
5 mL
25
When assessing a patient's diet, which urine specimen collection time is likely to be most helpful?
3 - 6 hours postprandial
26
What is the preferred anticoagulant for conducting hematology in a parrot?
Heparin
27
To maintain proper anticoagulant to blood ratio, sample tubes should be filled to at least what capacity?
90%
28
Blood samples collected immediately post prandial may be:
Lipemic
29
What urine collecting method is optimal for bacterial culture?
Cystocentesis
30
Pollakiuria is best defined as:
Frequent urination
31
A "smudge cell" is a:
Nucleated cell that has ruptured as a result of damage to a cell
32
MCHC is calculated by multiplying:
Hb concentration by 100 and dividing by PCV
33
MCV is calculated by:
Multiplying PCV (%) by 10 and dividing by total RBC count
34
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin is:
Defined as weight of Hb contained within the average RBC
35
What is true of reticulocytes?
In cats, only the aggregate form should be counted in a reticulocyte count
36
Basophilic stippling is the presence of small, blue staining granules within:
Erthryocytes
37
What is likely the most representative method of analyzing urine solute osmolar concentration?
Osmometry
38
NRBCs are normal in which species of animal?
Avian and reptile
39
An increased WBC count is indicative of:
Leukocytosis
40
What describes an elevated platelet count caused by bone marrow dysfunction or pathology?
Thrombocythemia
41
How is Toxocara canis identified microscopically in the diagnostic stage?
Dark brown, thick-walled egg, with a pitted eggshell
42
Ancylostoma caninum can be contracted by which route?
Entry through the skin
43
The intermediate host of Diplidium caninum is the:
Flea
44
Signs that would indicate a dog has severe infection of Otodectes cynotis would include:
Head tilt, otitis media circling, seizures
45
Ixodes scapularis is the vector for:
Lyme disease
46
What parasite is zoonotic?
Dipylidium caninum
47
Which order do biting lice belong to?
Mallophaga
48
What is best diagnosed using the Baermann test?
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
49
One of the great advantages of centrifugal floatation technique is to:
Detect Giardia oocysts and Trichuris ova more efficiently than regular flotation technique
50
For which parasites is the cellophane tape method useful?
Oxyuris equi
51
What parasite is called "walking dandruff"?
Cheyletiella spp.
52
A hexacanth is the detectable, infective stage of a:
Tapeworm
53
Giardia and Leishmania are examples of:
Flagellates
54
What test is best for removing lungworm larvae from small sample of feces?
Baermann technique
55
Which subgroup do tapeworms fall under?
Cestodes
56
When diagnosing Dirofilaria immitis on a Knott's test, the microfilara must be differentiated from which nonpathogenic filarial larvae?
Acanthocheilonema
57
The life stage of the flea found on the skin of its host is the:
Adult stage
58
The prepatent period for Trichuris vulpis is:
3 months
59
Sucking lice have which characteristic?
Narrower head than the thorax
60
Hypostrongylus rubidus is the red stomach worm of:
Pig
61
Whole blood contains the protein ___ that is not found in serum
Fibrinogen
62
What is the anticoagulant of choice for venous blood samples to be used in measuring bicarbonate levels?
Lithium heparin
63
Serum creatinine levels can be influenced by:
How well the glomeruli are filtering
64
What is a nonrenal cause for an increase in serum urea nitrogen?
Bleeding into the intestinal tract
65
Renal threshold is the:
Level above which the kidneys can no longer remove glucose from the renal filtrate
66
Serum samples collected for measurement of blood glucose levels:
Should be separated from the cells ASAP to prevent artificial decreases in value
67
What is considered to be the best test for evaluating exocrine pancreatic function in dogs?
Pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity
68
Amylase breaks down:
Starches
69
Indirect bilirubin is:
Not water soluble
Lipid soluble and bound to proteins
A calculated value rather than a direct measurement
70
Calculation of the A:G ratio is:
Accomplished by dividing the serum albumin fraction by the globulin fraction
71
Globulin fractions can be separated by:
Electrophoresis
72
Which enzyme liver test is considered a specific test for liver disease in dogs, cats, and primates only?
ALT
73
What is not true regarding liver enzyme tests?
Most of these tests can be determined at room temp
74
Which serum protein fraction rarely increases in a disease state?
Albumin
75
Bile acids:
Are removed from circulating blood by the liver
Are usually found in low levels in the bloodstream
Will be increased before evidence of a rise in bilirubin
76
The intracellular electrolytes are:
Phosphate/phosphorus, magnesium, potassium
77
This is technically an electrolyte but is usually associated with acid-base balance:
Bicarbonate
78
These two electrolytes help to control water balance in the extracellular space:
Sodium/chloride
79
Which test can also be referred to as lateral flow immunoassay?
Rapid immunomigration testing
80
What fat is most responsible for lipemia in samples?
Triglycerides
81
The preferred fixative for most cytology specimen is:
Methanol
82
A refractometer may not provde accurate measurements of total solids for samples that are characterized as:
Chylous
83
The ideal sample collection device for most cytology samples of fistulated lesions is a:
Rayon swab
84
For collection of pleural fluid, patients may be placed in ___ recumbency
Ventral
85
The preferred sample preparation technique when cells are unusually fragile is:
Modified compression smear
86
The preferred sample preparation technique when samples are highly viscous is:
Starfish smear
87
Cytology samples should be placed in a fixative for a minimum of:
2 minutes
88
The stain that is best for staining of mast cell granules is:
New methylene blue
89
A fragmented neutrophil nucleus is described as:
Karyorrhexis
90
A round cell that contains a fringe border and fine nuclear chromatin is most likely a:
Mesothelial cell
91
A sample characterized by the presence of more than 70% mononuclear cells with few neutrophils is described as:
Granulomatous
92
The presence of increased numbers of homogeneous populations of the same cell type with no evidence of malignant characteristics within cells is described as:
Hyperplasia
93
Noninflammatory, nonneoplastic lesions include:
Hematoma
94
A common fungal organsim seen in ear cytology samples is:
Malassezia
95
A common organism seen i oral cytology samples and considered normal flora s:
Simonsiella
96
A lymph node sample containing 90% small lymphocytes, a few plasma cells, medium and large lymphocytes, and macrophages is characterized as:
Normal
97
the preferred stain for core bone marrow samples is:
Hematoxylin and eosin
98
A chylous effusion generally contains in creased numbers of
Mature lymphocytes
99
A sample containing a mixture of parabasal, intermediate, and superficial cells with RBCs and neutrophils likely indicates
Proestrus
100
The nonaspiration biopsy technique is preferred for samples that are
Vascular
101
Media plates are incubated with agar upside down to
Prevent condensation from dripping onto cultures
102
Veterinary practices may use outside microbiology laboratories because
They need many cultures
They do not have staff trained to perform in-house clinical microbiological tests
They are looking for difficult-to-grow microorganisms
103
A selective agar is one that
Inhibits the growth of certain bacteria
104
Sterile areas of the body are those that
Normally contain no bacteria or fungi
105
A specimen for urine culture can be obtained by
Cystocentesis
| Sterile catheterization
106
Blood cultures should be
Placed into broth first, then incubated
107
Fecal cultures
Require special media
108
Fungal culture
Are incubated in the dark at room temp
| Are held for 1 month to confirm negative results
109
When shipping samples for culture, it is:
Best to refrigerate samples to help them stay viable
110
The catalase test isused on gram-positive coccal colonies to
Determine whether the colony is a Staphylococcus spp. or a Streptococcus spp.
111
The gram stain is
Used to differentiate gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
112
Gram-positive colonies will
Grow on TSA and CNA plates
113
Beta-hemolytic Streptococci will shoe this on a TSA plate
Complete hemolysis; agar surrounding he colony is clear
114
Gram-negative cocci:
Are not often encountered in the veterinary laboratory
| Include Neisseria and Moraxella spp.
115
On a MAC plate, lactose-fermenting bacteria will appear
Pink or purple
116
Bordetella and Pasteurella spp. have there characteristics
They are gram-negative coccobacilli
They usually only grow on the TSA plate
They can be identified by the API system
117
Dermatophyte fungi
Cause ringworm in humans and animals
118
Candida infections commonly occur when
A primary bacterial infection is already present
119
Examples of places where fungi can normally be found include
Ears, throat, and the environment
120
Aspergillus spp. are fungi that
Are opportunistic pathogens that can also cause disease through feed, such as hay
121
What happens to frequency as the wavelength of x-ray increases?
It decreases
122
Which best describes ionizing electromagnetic radiation?
It is characterized by the energy contained in a photon
123
What are not properties of x-rays?
They form a homogenous beam that travels in wavy lines
124
In the diagnostic range, most x-rays are
Both bremsstrahlung and braking radiation
125
What controls the contrast on the radigraph?
kV
126
Exposure factors for a thorax are 10 mAs and 60 kV. The film density is too light, and the tech wants to double the density. What technique should be used for the second radiograph?
200 mA, 0.10 second, 60 kV
127
To minimize magnification and penumbra, a tech should___ the source image distance and ___ the source object distance:
Increase; decrease
128
The heel effect is going to be less noticeable with:
Smaller film and longer SID
129
A radiograph of a dog's pelvis measures 19 cm in diameter. The tech manually processed the film for the required time and temp, but the radiograph is too dark. What is the most likely reason for this?
Fast-speed screens were accidentally used instead of medium speed screens
130
If a safelight illumination test in the darkroom involves processing the film, house should the film look if the safelight is functioning properly?
Evenly light-colored silver-gray
131
How can a tech ensure that fresh chemistry is moved onto the film?
Agitation
132
Which best describes rare earth phorphors used today in intensifying screens?
Emit primarily in the yellow or green part of the spectrum
133
Which is the best view of the canine elbow?
Craniocaudal
134
Identify the correct peripheral borders for an elbow
One third of the radius or ulna and one third of the humerus
135
What are the main tenets of tech safety when taking radiographs?
Minimum time, maximum distance, and maximum shielding
136
Which technique will not help to obtain higher contrast on a film?
Set the collimator aperture so that the field is smaller
137
What is the main purpose of the developer?
Reduce exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver
138
What is a key difference between computed radiography and conventional radiography?
Only computed radiography converts photons to metastable electrons
139
A vet tech must perform a complete upper gastrointestinal study of a cat. the tech presents a series of rediographs taken at 0, 30, and 60 mintues and a final set at 90 minutes. This study is
Incomplete
140
In digital radiography, which factor or element takes into account the frequency of appearance of a given object characteristic?
Histogram
141
What best describes the appearance of a hyperechoic lesion on ultrasound?
Brighter than the surrounding tissue
142
What is the advantage of using a 7.5 MHz transducer over a 5-MHz transducer?
Detail is increased
143
A doppler shift is best explained as a change in ____as a result of motion
Frequency
144
What occurs when the ultrasound beam interacts with a large curvilinear interface such as the diaphragm and liver border?
Mirror image
145
A technician is preparing to do an ultrasound examination of a dog's abdomen, creating images in the transverse place. What radiographic image will this plane represent?
Ventrodorsal
146
What description most accurately fits the appearance of normal adrenal glands on ultrasound?
Hypoechoic
147
If a technician is preparing to take a sagittal ultrasound image, which way should the probe be oriented?
Cranial to caudal
148
Which organ is the most difficult to image and correlate sonographic appearance with the presence or absence of disease?
Pancreas
149
What contributes to obtaining a clear sonographic image of the liver in a deep-chested dog?
Probe angled cranially at xiphoid process
150
Identify the correct order of the five wall layers in the small intestine
Mucosal surface, mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa
151
In which suspected condition is CT preferred to MRI?
Vertebral fracture
152
Identify the most accurate description of a solid lesion on ultrasound
Contains many echos, which may be spread
153
What is the purpose of a TGC slider?
Controls the brightness in different depths of an organ
154
What artifact occurs when there is minimal attenuation of the beam as it passes through a fluid filled structure?
Through-transmission artifact
155
In abdominal ultrasonography, in what two planes are the organs usually scanned?
Sagittal and transverse
156
The normal size and shape of an adrenal gland in a cat is:
4mm, oval
157
What organ is most associated with acoustic shadow and reverberation artifact?
Colon
158
What substance creates the greatest barrier to sound transmisson?
Bone
159
What is the best term for a loss of intensity of the ultrasound beam as it travels through tissue?
Attenuation
160
Atoms with nuclei that undergo radiation decay are known as:
Radionuclides
161
What happens during the primary immune response?
Stimulated B cells secrete IgM antibody in the vascular system
162
What is the body's first line of defense for containing and halting the spread of a pathogen?
Phagocytosis of intracellular pathogens
163
What is classified as a lymphokine?
Interleukin-2
164
Which immunoglobin is found in body secretions?
IgA
165
Which immunoglobin is typically increased in allergic reactions?
IgE
166
Passive immunity refers to:
Antibodies transferred from another individual
167
What is also known as seroconversion?
Active immunity
168
What statement would be false in regard to vaccine administration?
Vaccines should be given as soon as possible to pregnant or nursing animals
169
What is an antigenic drift?
The ability of a virus to combat an immune response.
| Changes in the virus genome causing a new strain to form
170
What is not an adverse reaction to a vaccine?
Polyphagia
171
Viruses are not classified according to:
Organ affected
172
What is false about "naked" viruses?
They are more susceptible to destruction
173
What term most accurately describes the process of double-stranded DNA viral replication?
Mitosis
174
What statement is true about viral infections?
Viral infections can predispose a patient to secondary opportunistic pathogens
175
Specimens collected for viral testing should be stored at:
1 to 4 C
176
Common commercial ELISA tests are not available for which disease?
Rabies
177
When using fluorescent antibody (FA) test, how is viral infection best visualized?
Conjugation using antibodies in specimens from live animals
178
What is the basic purpose of the direct Coombs' test?
To look for antibodies on the surface of red blood cells
179
What does the radioimmoassay (RIA) test detect?
Quantity of hormones or drugs or other antigen in specific species
180
In the latex agglutination (LA) test, why is it important to run positive and negative controls simultaneously?
Because of the granular appearance of latex beads in solution
181
List microorganisms from most to least resistant
Coccidia, mycobacteria, fungi, vegetative bacteria
182
Disinfection is defined as the:
Reduction of microbial populations to levels that are considered safe
183
An agent that stops or inhibits growth of microorganisms but does not necessarily kill them contains the suffix
-static
184
What is not an example of a method of microbial control?
Replication of DNA
185
What statement is NOT true about the efficacy of microbial control methods?
Temperatures have no effect on efficacy
186
The efficacy of boiling as a method of microbial control is increased by adding ___ to the water
Sodium carbonate
187
Which physical method of sterilizing has no penetrating ability?
Ultraviolet radiation
188
What physical method of microbial control does not provide complete sterilaztion?
Cavitation
189
Which chemical agent are virucidal to both hydrophilic and lipophilic viruses, as well as sporicidal?
Aldehydes
190
To which class of disinfectant does chlorhexidine gluconate ( e.g. hibitane) belong?
Biguanides
191
Which group of chemicals are classified as sterilants?
Aldehydes, peracetic acid, ethlyene oxide
192
Which type of sterilization chamber requires periods of ventilation of up to 48 hours?
Ethylene oxides
193
Which type of sterilization chamber releases free radicals to destroy organisms?
Gas plasma
194
Which items can be reliably sterilized using gas plasma?
Electrical devices and some plastics
195
The minimum effective pressure in an autoclave is:
15 psi
196
At 250 F (121 C), microorganisms are destroyed in approximately ___ miinutes:
9
197
What is NOT an acceptable method of quality control to assess microbial control:
Dry glass bead
198
Chemical indicators should be placed:
In the interior of every pack
199
What quality control tool measures temperatures using sensors that are placed in the part of a test pack that is most inaccessible to steam penetration?
Thermocouples
200
Which test evaluates pre-vacuumed autoclaves for complete removal of air and uniform steam penetration?
Bowie-Dick test
201
What occurs when a behavior that has been previously reinforced is no longer reinforced?
Extinction
202
Negative reinforcement involves ___ when a particular behavior occurs.
Subtracting something unpleasant
203
At what age do dogs begin to develop substrate preferences for elimination?
8.5 weeks
204
What best describes a dog's vision?
Poor binocular field of view
205
The leading behavior problem of dogs is:
Aggression
206
Canines may demonstrate excessive vocalization because of:
Play, Separation anxiety, Defending territory
207
If your cat is scratching destructively because of territorial marking behavior, one of the best things to do is:
Keep other cats out of yard
208
In an attempt to control destructive scratching behavior in a cat, you should:
Place scratching posts close to where the cat sleeps
209
What is true about cats and olfactory communication?
Skin glands on the head and face are used as scent markers
210
A cat that is in its carrier and is terrified to come out would not demonstrate what body language?
Tail carried upright
211
What is the best example of a situation in which a trainer should use shaping?
The animal performs a behavior in part, but steps in the sequence are missing
212
What is a conflict signal from a dog?
Gaze is averted
213
If a cat is chirring, what is it doing?
Calling kittens or possibly expressing friendship
214
A reason to never use punishment when training any animal is:
Increased aggression or fear, Increase in undesired behaviors, Inhibition of learning
215
A cat who hides once he sees the carrier has learned that the carrier predicts vet visits through:
Classical conditioning
216
When putting together a behavioral treatment plan, ____ should be addressed first.
Medical problems
217
When teaching a cat to use appropriate scratching areas what is the least intrusive method?
Supply lots of different posts in common areas and block cat from areas of the house where it previously did damage
218
An important goal when performing prepurchase counseling is:
To set realistic expectations and avoid mismatches
219
A female cat makes a closed-mouth call. What is likely to be the message?
She is soliciting mating
220
What is NOT a reason for house soiling in dogs?
Dominance or anger
221
What behavior is normal behavior for cats?
Investigating a new room
222
What is a sign of warning from an angry cat?
Lowering the ears, hissing, batting
223
As a restraint tool, a towel is used to:
Wrap up an angry cat
224
Always muzzle an injured, conscious dog except if it has a:
Head injury
225
Horses show many emotions through body language. Which ear movement can mean concentration or anger?
Pinned back
226
Serious injury is most likely to occur from a kick if you are within this range while standing behind a horse
6 to 8 feet
227
In a horse, a chain twitch is best applied to the:
Upper muzzle
228
A nose lead or tong in cattle is applied to the:
Nasal septum
229
"Jacking" the tail is:
Lifting it straight up
230
To move a newborn calf from one spot to another:
Place your arms around the neck and rump, and guide it
231
What knot is used to tie animals to inanimate objects?
Halter tie
232
What livestock animal is allelomimetic or mimic each other when being moved or treated?
Sheep
233
What mother and offspring pair needs to be in line of site to keep the mother from injuring herself or others?
Mare and foal
234
What animal needs to be worked on at the coolest part of the day for fear of hyperthermia?
Sheep
235
Why does a hog snare work so well on pigs?
They have a contrary personality and so will lean away from the snare
236
The base position for a cephalic venipuncture on a dog is:
Sternal
237
What is the maximum amount of time that a roll gauze or rope muzzle can be left on a dog or cat?
20 minutes
238
What animal is usually examined, vaccinated or bled from a chute?
Cattle
239
For cephalic venipuncture in a cat, the most commonly used position for restraint starts with:
Sternal recumbency
240
What is the best way to approach a cow?
Use slow deliberate actions
