Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

commonest benign bone tumour

A

osteochondroma

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2
Q

what do osteochondroma consist of

A

bony outgrowth on the external surface with a cartilaginous cap

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3
Q

sign/symptoms of osteochondroma

A

local pain

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4
Q

what is an enchondroma

A

intramedullary and usually metaphyseal cartilaginous tumour caused by failure of normal enchondral ossification at the growth plate.

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5
Q

how does an enchondroma appear

A

lesion usually lucent
can undergo mineralisation with a patchy sclerotic appearance
weaken the bone resulting in fracture

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6
Q

features of enchondroma

A

many are indcidental findings

can occur on femur, humerus, tibia and small bones of hand and feet

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7
Q

what is a simple bony cyst

A

single cavity benign fluid filled cyst in bone

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8
Q

where a simple bony cysts seen

A

in long bones and in talus or calcaneus

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9
Q

features of simple bony cyst

A

asymptomatic
incidental finding
weakness can lead to fracture

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10
Q

how are simple bony cysts and enchondroma treated

A

curettage

bone grafting

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11
Q

what is an aneurysmal bone cyst

A

lots of chambers which are filled with blood or serum

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12
Q

where can aneurysmal bony cysts occurs

A

metaphyses of many different long bones, flat bones (ribs, skull) and vertebral bodies

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13
Q

signs/symptoms of aneurysmal bony cysts

A

locally aggressive causing cortical expansion and destruction
painful

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14
Q

where do giant cell tumours affect

A

epiphysis and can extend to the subchondral bone

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15
Q

where are GCTs commonly found

A

knee
distal radius
pelvis
spine

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16
Q

signs/symptoms of GCT

A

painful
can cause pathological fracture
consists of multi-nucleate giant cells
x-ray ‘soap bubble’ sign

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17
Q

what is fibrous dysplasia

A

disease of bone where a genetic mutation results in lesions of fibrous tissue and immature bone.

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18
Q

features of fibrous dysplasia

A

can be mono or polyostotic
causes angular deformities
affected bone is wider with thinner cortices
stress fractures can occur

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19
Q

what does Extensive involvement of the proximal femur in fibrous dysplasia cause

A

shepherd’s crook deformity

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20
Q

what is an osteoid osteoma

A

small nidus of immature bone surrounded by an intense sclerotic halo.
occur in teens

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21
Q

where do osteoid osteoma occur

A

proximal femur, the diaphysis of long bones and the vertebrae

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22
Q

symptoms/signs of osteoid osteoma

A

intense constant pain, worse at night due to the intense inflammatory response

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23
Q

what is the most common malignant bone tumour, who and where does it most commonly affect

A

osteosarcoma
younger age groups
knee

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24
Q

what can prolonged survival in osteosarcomas

A

radiotherapy then chemotherapy

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25
what is a chondrosarcoma
cartilage producing primary bone tumour | tends to occur in older age groups
26
features of chondrosarcoma
very large, slow to metastasise | found in pelvis or proximal femur
27
what is Ewing's sarcoma
tumour of primative cells in the marrow poorest prognosis occur between 10-20 y/o
28
what is Ewing's sarcoma associated with and what is it sensitive to
associated with fever, raised inflammatory markers and a warm swelling radio and chemo sensitive
29
treatment of ES
surgery to remove the tumour and surrounding tissue to reduce the risk of recurrence amputations common
30
what do breast cancer mets appear as
blastic (sclerotic) or lytic
31
what do prostate cancer mets appear as
sclerotic
32
what do lung cancer mets appear as
lytic bony metastases
33
what do renal cancer mets appear as
large and very vascular lytic “blow out” bony metastases
34
what are features that suggest benign soft tissue neoplasm
smaller size, fluctuation in size (malignant tumours don’t regress in size), cystic lesions, well‐defined lesions, fluid filled lesions and soft / fatty lesions
35
what are features that suggest malignant soft tissue neoplasm
larger lesions (>5cm), rapid growth in size, a solid lesion, an ill‐defined lesion, an irregular surface, associated lymphadenopathy and systemic upset (weight loss, loss of apetite, fatigue).
36
first line investigation for suspicious swelling
MRI
37
what is the commonest benign soft tissue swelling
lipoma - neoplastic proliferation of fat | large but may not be well defines
38
where do ganglion cysts occur
around a synovial joint or a synovial tendon sheath | may form as a result of herniation or out‐pouching of a weak portion of joint capsule or tendon sheath
39
features of ganglion cysts
well‐defined, may be quite firm and readily transilluminate | can be excised but don't need to be
40
what is bursitis
inflammation of bursa around a joint
41
what causes bursitis
repeated pressure or trauma | may present as a soft tissue swelling
42
what causes a burial abscess
bacterial infection
43
what is AVN
ischaemic necrosis of bone
44
what are causes of AVN
``` idiopathic alcohol/steroid abuse thrombophilia sickle cell disease antiphospholipid deficiency in SLE ```
45
AVN can cause secondary osteoarthritis - true or false
true
46
what is osteoporosis characterised by
reduced bone mineral density and increased porosity | i.e. bone is of normal quality there is just not enough of it
47
what does WHO define osteoporosis as
bone mineral density less than 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak value of young adults of the same race and sex
48
what is osteopenia
intermediate stage where bone mineral density is between 1 to 2.5 standard deviations below mean peak value
49
risk factors for osteoporosis
``` menopause smoking alcohol abuse lack of exercise poor diet ```
50
how is bone disease diagnosed
DEXA scan
51
what are the serum calcium and phosphate levels in osteoporosis
normal
52
Tx for osteoporosis
Calcium and vitamin D supplements Bisphosphonates HRT - last line
53
what is osteomalacia
abnormal softening of the bone due to deficient mineralization of osteoid (immature bone) secondary to inadequate amounts of calcium and phosphorus
54
what is osteomalacia called in children
Rickets
55
what is the two primary causes of osteomalacia/rickets (biochemistry)
1 - insufficient calcium absorption from the intestine because of lack of dietary calcium or a deficiency of or resistance to the action of vitamin D 2 - or phosphate deficiency caused by increased renal losses.
56
what are diseases/conditions that cause osteomalacia/rickets
``` malnutrition malabsorption lack of sunlight exposure hypophosphateamia (alcohol abuse) CKD ```
57
Sx of osteomalacia/rickets
Bone pain Deformities of soft bones Sustain fractures easily Sx of hypocalcaemia (e.g. paraesthesiae, muscle cramps, irritability, fatigue, seizures, brittle nails)
58
what is seen on x-rays of osteomalacia
pseudofractures e.g. Looser's zones
59
biochemistry results of osteomalacia
low calcium low serum phosphate high serum alkaline phosphatase.
60
Tx of osteomalacia
vitamin D therapy with calcium and phosphate supplementation
61
biochemistry of primary hyperparathyroidism
Serum PTH is usually elevated Calcium is high. | Phosphate is normal or low
62
what is secondary hyperparathyroidism
overproduction of PTH secondary to hypocalcaemia usually caused by vitamin D deficiency or CKD