week 1 content COPY Flashcards
(87 cards)
1
Q
Labs can be taken from: SATA
- Blood
- Vein
- Finger stick
- Artery (ABG)
- Urine
- Stool
- Sputum
- Xray
- Scans
A
- Blood
- Vein
- Finger stick
- Artery (ABG)
- Urine
- Stool
- Sputum
X- Xray - dx
X- Scans - dx
2
Q
labs or diagnostic tools?
- Xray
- CT/MRI Scans
A
diagnostic tools
3
Q
Oximetry – measures the amount of __________ that is carrying ____________
_________ (and hgb and iron within it) carry oxygen
_________ = tells how many hgb within RBC are carrying oxygen
Hct = total volume of________ in ________ (%)
A
Oximetry – the amount of hemoglobin that is carrying oxygen
RBC (and hgb and iron within RBC) carry oxygen
O2 sat = tells how many hgb within RBC are carrying oxygen
Hct = total volume of RBC in blood (%)
4
Q
which of these could cause low O2 levels SATA
- Hypoventilation
- Atelectasis
- Pneumothorax
- Other lung problems
A
ALL
- Hypoventilation - lungs do not breathe in enough oxygen or breathe out enough CO2
- Atelectasis – collapsed lung
- Pneumothorax - air leaks into the space between the lung and the chest wall.
- Other lung problems
5
Q
which of these could you place Pulse ox on
- Finger – no nail polish
- Finger - nail polish
- Earlobe
- Toe
A
- Finger – no nail polish
X- Finger - nail polish - Earlobe
- Toe
6
Q
sputum studies:
- Culture and sensitivity – identifies ________
- gram stain – identifies_________
- Cytology – identifies ________
- AFB – identifies __________
A
- Culture and sensitivity – identifies bacteria
- gram stain – identifies bacteria
- Cytology – identifies cancer
- AFB – identifies TB
7
Q
When collecting sputum T/F
- Collect deep sputum, not mouth saliva
- Sterile container
- Send to lab asap
- Night sputum specimen is best
- suction sputum if pt cant cough productively
A
When collecting sputum
- Collect deep sputum, not mouth saliva
- Sterile container
- Send to lab asap
X- Morning specimen best when sputum has settled overnight
- If pt cant cough productively – suction
8
Q
radiology consists of CXR, CT, MRI, and PET scan
T/F
A
true
9
Q
CXR, CT, MRI, and PET scan?
- 3D image of lung
- Remove metal from neck to waist
- Views are posterior, anterior, lateral
A
chest xray CXR
10
Q
CXR, CT, MRI, and PET scan?
- Shows structures
- Typically preferred for lungs
- May require sedation for comfort purposes
- With or without iodine based contrast
A
CT
11
Q
CT scan with contrast: T/F
- With contrast – injected into IV, highlights internal structures
- Assess liver function – BUN/creatinine if elevated let HCP know
- contrast is not iodine based - assessment of allergies is not needed
- Teach – warm flush feeling
- Force fluids afterwards to flush contrast out
A
- With contrast – injected into IV, highlights internal structures
X- Assess renal function – BUN/creatinine if elevated let HCP know
X- Assess allergy to shellfish – contrast is iodine based - Teach – warm flush feeling
- Force fluids afterwards to flush contrast out
12
Q
CXR, CT, MRI, and PET scan?
- Used to assess things that are difficult to assess by other scans – lung apex
- Used to distinguish vascular and nonvascular structures
- Uses IV contrast – not iodine based
- May require sedation for comfort purposes
- Remove anything metal
A
MRI
13
Q
CXR, CT, MRI, and PET scan?
- Uses radioactive substance – tracer, to look for lung disease/cancer
- Looks at body function (CT/MRI looks at structure)
- Blood flow
- Use of O2
- Uptake of sugar
A
PET scan
14
Q
CXR, CT, MRI, and PET scan?
remove metal =
iodine based contrast =
not iodine based contrast =
with or without contrast =
with contrast =
looks at structures =
looks at body function =
A
remove metal = MRI, Xray
iodine based contrast = CT
not iodine based contrast = MRI
with or without contrast = CT
with contrast = MRI
looks at structures = CT, MRI
looks at body function = PET
15
Q
tb test
__________ = intradermal skin test
__________ = interferon gamma release assay
blood test
mantoux
A
- Skin - TB skin test/Mantoux – intradermally
- Blood - Interferon-gamma release assay blood test (IGRA)
16
Q
___________oscopy
- Scope bronchi via mouth
- Visualize bronchi
- Can obtain biopsy specimen or provide treatment (remove secretions)
- Nasopharynx or oropharynx is anesthetized
A
Bronchoscopy
17
Q
Pre nursing care or Post nursing care: bronchoscopy
- Consent – invasive procedure
- Sedative
- NPO until gag reflex returns
- Blood tinged mucus – expected finding
- monitor for Hemorrhage (increased HR) (if biopsy)
- monitor for Pneumothorax (SOA) (if biopsy)
- NPO 6-12 hours
A
Pre nursing care
- Consent – invasive procedure
- NPO 6-12 hours
- Sedative
Post nursing care
- NPO until gag reflex returns
- Blood tinged mucus – expected finding
- If biopsy done – monitor for
- Hemorrhage – increased HR
- Pneumothorax – SOA
18
Q
Lung biopsy can be done: T/F
- Bronchoscope – uses scope to perform biopsy
- Transthoracic needle aspiration - needle to lung
- Open lung biopsy – incision over site, lung tissue removed
- Video assisted thoracic surgery/VATS – uses camera and forceps
A
true
19
Q
Thoracentesis - Large bore needle into pleural space
T/F
- Obtain fluid for dx
- Remove pleural fluid
- Instill medication
- pulmonary function test
A
- Obtain fluid for dx
- Remove pleural fluid
- Instill medication
X- pulmonary function test
20
Q
Pre nursing care or Post nursing care: Thoracentesis - Large bore needle into pleural space
- Consent
- Sit upright with legs off side of bed and elbows on overhead table
- Pt should not talk/move
- CXR
- Assess for hypoxia and pneumothorax
A
Pre nursing care
- Consent
- Sit upright with legs off side of bed and elbows on overhead table
- Pt should not talk during procedure
Post nursing care
- CXR
- Assess for hypoxia and pneumothorax
21
Q
Pulmonary function test - Measures ________________ in seconds
Forced expiratory volume - Max amount of air__________ in 1 sec
Low FEV seen in pts with __________
A
Pulmonary function test
Measures lung function in seconds
Forced expiratory volume
FEV
Max amount of air expired forcefully in 1 sec
Low FEV seen in pts with COPD – difficult to push air out
22
Q
Treatment - Posterior or Anterior epistaxis?
- Position upright/lean forward
- Pressure/pinch nose
- Ice
- Nasal tampons
- Avoid blowing nose
A
anterior
23
Q
Treatment - Posterior or Anterior epistaxis?
- Emergency
- Balloon cath
- Assess resp status
- Saline spray/Humidification
- Oxygen
- Bed rest
- Pain control – avoid ASA/NSAIDS
- Oral care
- Avoid strenuous activity
A
posterior
- Emergency bc location makes it hard to pinch to stop bleeding
24
Q
- nose Irritation
- nose Trauma
- nose Infection
- Foreign bodies in nose
- Tumors in nose
- Systemic disease – hypertension
- Systemic treatment – chemo, anticoagulants
all causes of _________
A
Epistaxis
nose bleed
25
Risk factors for OSA
- Increased age
- Female
- Obese
- Nasopharyngeal structural abnormalities
- Smoking
- Increased age
X- Male
- Obese
- Nasopharyngeal structural abnormalities
- Smoking
26
OSA
potentially 3 issues during sleep caused by collapse of upper airway
1.
2.
3.
1. Obstructive apnea - blocked airway
2. hypopnea - slow breathing
3. respiratory effort related arousals - brain wakes person up to restore breathing
27
s/s
- Daytime sleepiness
- Morning headache
- Obese
- Large neck/waist circumference
- partner c/o patient is Snoring, choking, gasping during sleep
OSA
28
Possible associated complications of what upper respiratory issue?
- MVA
- Neuropsychiatric dysfunction
- HTN
- Heart failure
- Metabolic syndrome
OSA
29
the gold standard Diagnostic test for ___________ is polysomnography
OSA
30
treatment for _________ includes
- CPAP
- Bipap
- Weight reduction and exercise
- Avoid alcohol and smoking
- Sleep on side
- Improve sleep routine
- Oral appliances – for mild to moderate cases
- Surgery - Tissue removal, Jaw reposition, Implant, Tracheostomy
OSA
31
CPAP or bipap
- Most common treatment for OSA
- Simple
- Cheap
- Doesn’t augment ventilation other than to maintain upper airway patency
- No supplemental o2 involved
- Inhalation only pressure
CPAP
32
CPAP or bipap
- Inhalation and exhalation pressure
- Kind of like last step to prevent intubation
- Used in more than just treatment for OSA pts – neuromuscular disease, chest wall deformity, COPD
bipap
33
Shiley or jackson trach
- Disposable
- Cuff
- Obturator
- Short term
Shiley
34
Shiley or jackson trach
- Reusable
- No cuff
- Obturator
- Long term
jackson
35
Trach tube dislodgement and accidental decannulation: put in order
1. Keep obturator at bedside at all times
2. Secure trach
3. Insert obturator into outer cannula
4. Insert outer cannula+obturator
5. Extend neck and open tissue/ostomy
6. Check bilateral lung sounds
7. Remove obturator asap
1- Keep obturator at bedside at all times
3- Insert obturator into outer cannula
5- Extend neck and open tissue/ostomy
4- Insert outer cannula+obturator
7- Remove obturator asap
6- Check bilateral lung sounds
2- Secure trach
36
Acute pharyngitis
Inflammation of _____________
pharynx or tonsils
37
Pharyngitis types
- __________ – most common
- __________– caused by group a strep
- __________ – caused candida albicans
Bacterial, Viral, Fungal
Pharyngitis types
- Viral – most common
- Bacterial – caused by group a strep
- Fungal – caused candida albicans
38
Treatment pharyngitis: viral, bacterial, fungal
- __________ – antibiotics
- __________– treat symptoms – warm/cool fluids, analgesics, antipyretics
- ___________– nystatin swish and swallow
- Bacterial – antibiotics
- Viral – treat symptoms – warm/cool fluids, analgesics, antipyretics
- Fungal – nystatin swish and swallow
39
Differentiate Pharyngitis type via:
- rapid streptococcal antigen testing
- based on s/s
- no test exists
- rapid streptococcal antigen testing
40
Head and neck cancers
Treatment
- Surgery
- Radiation therapy
- Chemotherapy
which one is first line?
surgery
41
Laryngectomy - removal of ___________
- No longer a connection for air to get from __________ to _____________
- Air must be breathed in through __________________
- Difficulty orally communicating
Laryngectomy
removal of larynx (voice box)
- No longer a connection for air to get from mouth/nose to trachea
- Air must be breathed in through tracheostomy
- Difficulty orally communicating
42
Restoring oral communication:
- Artificial larynx (electolarynx) =
- Tracheoesophageal (TE) voice restoration =
- Esophageal speech =
uses burp speaking, have to learn this technique, low quality
uses vibration speaking
uses a valve
Restoring oral communication
- Artificial larynx – electolarynx – vibration speaking
- Tracheoesophageal (TE) voice restoration – valve
- Esophageal speech – burp speaking, have to learn this technique, low quality
43
Radial neck distention
Removal of all tissue on ___________
From mandible to clavicle
Includes muscles, nerve, salivary gland, major blood vessels
Radial neck distention
Removal of all tissue on side of neck
From mandible to clavicle
Includes muscles, nerve, salivary gland, major blood vessels
44
Post op care: radial neck distention
- Airway maintenance
- Trach collar w o2 and humidification
- Pulmonary toilet
- Secretions – oral and tracheal – suction
- 1-2 days expected blood tinged sputum
- Stoma care
- Pain mgt
- Nutrition – feeding tube
- PT
- ST
which is priority?
airway maintenance
45
Lower respiratory: Pneumonia, TB, Obstructive pulmonary disease, COPD?
_______________ = contagious bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs.
_________________ = Acute infection of the lung parenchyma (alveoli)
_____________ = includes Asthma, Emphysema, Chronic bronchitis
_____________ = includes Emphysema and Chronic bronchitis
TB = contagious bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs.
PNU = Acute infection of the lung parenchyma (alveoli)
OPD = includes Asthma, Emphysema, Chronic bronchitis
COPD = includes Emphysema and Chronic bronchitis
46
these Risk factors would put a pt at high risk for developing what lower respiratory issue?
- 65 +
- Altered LOC = weakened cough
- Bed rest/prolonged immobility
- Debilitating illness
- Malnutrition
- Smoking
- Tracheal intubation
PNU
47
PNU Classifications: Community acquired (CAP) or Hospital acquired (HAP)
- Happens to people that haven’t been in a hospital or LTC facility within 14 days of s/s onset
- Non-intubated patients - Happens to people that were admitted to hospital without PNU and begins 48 hours or more after admission
- Intubated patients – ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)
Community acquired (CAP)
- Happens to people that haven’t been in a hospital or LTC facility within 14 days of s/s onset
Hospital acquired (HAP)
- Non-intubated patients - Happens to people that were admitted to hospital without PNU and begins 48 hours or more after admission
- Intubated patients – ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP
48
PNU Types - viral or bacterial?
_________________ =
- Most common
- Mild or self limiting, life threatening
- Usually resolves 3-4 days
________________ =
- May require hospitalization
Viral
- Most common
- Mild or self limiting, life threatening
- Usually resolves 3-4 days
Bacterial
- May require hospitalization
49
PNU Types
_______________=
- Abnormal entry of material from mouth or stomach into trachea/lungs
- Risk factors – loss of consciousness, dysphagia, NG tubes
- May be silent (not always gagging, throwing up)
_______________=
- In immunocompromised pts
Aspiration
- Abnormal entry of material from mouth or stomach into trachea/lungs
- Risk factors – loss of consciousness, dysphagia, HG tubes
- May be silently aspirating (not always gagging, throwing up)
Opportunistic
- In immunocompromised pts
50
s/s
- Preceded by upper respiratory infection
- Fever
- Chills
- Cough
- Malaise
- Chest pain with inspiration and coughing
- Dyspnea
- Fatigue
- Myalgia
- Confusion in elderly
- Respiratory distress/failure
PNU
51
PNU - bacterial or viral?
- Cough productive (purulent – green, rusty, red currant jelly)
- cough nonproductive/scant
- Bacterial = productive (purulent – green, rusty, red currant jelly)
- Viral = nonproductive/scant cough
52
what would a diagnosis of pneumonia look like on CXR?
infiltrate (hazy) seen in lungs on CXR = infection
53
what would a diagnosis of pneumonia look like on WBC with diff?
- Elevated _____________ with bacterial
- Shift to the __________ = indicates bacterial, acute, increased, immature neutrophils
- Elevated WBC (leukocytosis) with bacterial
- Shift to the left = indicates bacterial, acute, increased, immature neutrophils
54
what would a diagnosis of pneumonia look like on Sputum for culture and sensitivity test?
- Positive = infection
- Test will identify specific bacteria and antibiotics that will kill the bacteria
- Negative = could mean viral
55
PNU nursing care: illness prevention
- Education
- Pneumococcal vaccine
- Stop smoking
- Sleep and diet
- Know who is at risk
- Pulmonary toilet
- Early ambulation
- Standard precautions
- Hand hygiene
getting an incentive spirometer for my patient that has
- Altered LOC = weakened cough
- Bed rest/prolonged immobility
- Debilitating illness
- Malnutrition
is an example of which PNU prevention tactic?
- Know who is at risk
- Pulmonary toilet
56
PNU nursing care: acute interventions
- Monitor VS and pulse ox
- Lung auscultation
- Oxygen therapy
- Pulmonary toilet and CPT = Turn, cough, deep breath, ISO
- Increase fluids
- Ambulation
- Conserve energy
- Drug therapy
- Analgesics for ________
- Antibiotics for _________
- Antipyretics for ___________
- Education
- PNU Drug therapy =
- Analgesics – pleuritic pain
- Antibiotics – bacterial PNU
- Antipyretics - fever
57
TB resistant to INH and rifampin is called
- Multi-drug resistant tb =
58
Risk factors for TB - T/F?
- Poor
- overweight
- Underserved
- Minorities
- IV drug users
- Poor sanitation and overcrowded living conditions
- Immunosuppression
- Poor
X- overweight
- Underserved
- Minorities
- IV drug users
- Poor sanitation and overcrowded living conditions
- Immunosuppression
59
Classifications of TB - latent, primary, Reactived/active?
- Bacteria inhaled
- Inflammatory reaction
- Effective immune response which encapsulates organisms for life
- Asymptomatic
- Persistent immune response
- Asymptomatic
- Noncontagious
- Positive skin test
- Can be reactivated at any point
- High risk groups – elderly, immunosuppressed
- Contagious
Primary
- Bacteria inhaled
- Inflammatory reaction
- Effective immune response which encapsulates organisms for life
- Asymptomatic
Latent
- Persistent immune response
- Asymptomatic
- Noncontagious
- Positive skin test
- Can be reactivated at any point
Reactived/active
- High risk groups – elderly, immunosuppressed
- Contagious
60
TB latent or active?
- Asymptomatic
- Positive tb skin test
- CXR may have ghon nodule
latent
active = symptoms
61
TB latent or active?
- Sputum C&S test positive
- Fever
- Night sweats
- Weight loss
- Productive cough with purulent or bloody sputum for longer than 3 weeks
active
latent = asymptomatic
62
TB diagnosis - Tb skin test/Mantoux test, CXR, Interferon gamma release assay blood test, Sputum?
- ___________ – evaluate cell mediated immunity
- ___________ – evaluate cell mediated immunity
- __________ – looking for nodule
- ___________ – looking for acid fast bacillus
- Tb skin test/Mantoux test – evaluate cell mediated immunity
- Interferon gamma release assay blood test – evaluate cell mediated immunity
- CXR – looking for nodule
- Sputum – looking for acid fast bacillus
63
TB Skin test reaction - positive or negative?
patient with no known risk factors
- reaction size is 15 mm or bigger
positive
64
TB Skin test reaction - positive or negative?
patient with no known risk factors
reaction size is 15 mm or bigger
positive
65
TB Skin test reaction - positive or negative?
patient is an
- Immigrant
- IV drug users
- High risk work/living conditions
- Children <4
reaction size is 10 mm or bigger
positive
66
TB Skin test reaction - positive or negative?
patient is
- HIV +
- had Recent TB contact
- had Organ transplant
- Immunosuppressed
reaction size is 5 mm or bigger
positive
67
Positive skin test: next steps
1. Positive skin test or blood test
2. Obtain _____
2a. if Negative _____ = _______
2b. if Positive ______ = _______ and further testing required to confirm tb
Positive skin test: next steps
1. Positive skin test or blood test
2. Obtain CXR
2a. Negative CXR = latent
2b. Positive CXR = active and further testing required to confirm tb
68
Nursing care for ________ includes
- Health promotion
- Interpret dx study results
- Identify contacts
- Drug therapy
TB
69
s/e of antimicrobials - Rifampin (rifadin), Isoniazid (INH), Ethambutol (myambutol)?
- ___________ – hepatoxicity (liver), peripheral neuropathy (numb fingers)
- ___________ – red/orange colored excretions
- ____________ – visual acuity, color blind to red and green
- Isoniazid (INH) – hepatoxicity (liver), peripheral neuropathy (numb fingers)
- Rifampin (rifadin) – red/orange colored excretions
- Ethambutol (myambutol) – visual acuity, color blind to red and green
70
TB Transmission prevention in hospital
- ____________ precautions
- Private room with __________ pressure ventilation
- ___________ mask
- Monitor HC workers TB status – annual
- Preventative drug therapy to high risk contacts
Transmission prevention in hospital
- Airborne precautions
- Private room with negative pressure ventilation
- HEPA mask – high efficiency particulate air
- Monitor HC workers TB status – annual
- Preventative drug therapy to high risk contacts
71
TB Transmission prevention at home
- Preventative drug therapy to high risk contacts
- Cover mouth/nose
- Wear mask in crowd
- Sputum for _______ every 2 weeks
how many negative cultures until they are considered not contagious?
Transmission prevention at home
- Preventative drug therapy to high risk contacts
- Cover mouth/nose
- Wear mask in crowd
- Sputum for AFB every 2 weeks and after 3 negative cultures = not contagious
72
Obstructive pulmonary disease is an umbrella term for which 3 conditions?
- Asthma
- Emphysema – alveolar damage
- Chronic bronchitis - excessive secretion production
73
Chronic Obstructive pulmonary disease is when which 2 conditions occur together?
- Emphysema – alveolar damage
- Chronic bronchitis - excessive secretion production
74
chronic bronchitis or emphysema?
- _____________ – alveolar damage
- ______________ - excessive secretion production
- Emphysema – alveolar damage
- Chronic bronchitis - excessive secretion production
75
COPD = emphysema + chronic bronchitis
is it Preventable and treatable?
is Chronic CPOD hospitalized?
is COPD exacerbations hospitalized?
what is the Most common cause of COPD exacerbations?
COPD = emphysema + chronic bronchitis
- Preventable and treatable
- Chronic CPOD = non hospitalized
- COPD exacerbations = hospitalized
- Most common cause is Respiratory infections
76
s/s of COPD exacerbations
- __________ chest – from hyperinflation, problem with getting air out of body
- ___________ Breath sounds
- adventitious lung sounds = _______, _______, ________
- __________ respiration
Late signs
- ________ lip breathing
- Neck vein ________/_________ edema (may indicate pulmonary hypertension)
- Cachexia – excessive ___________
s/s
- Barrell chest – from hyperinflation, problem with getting air out of body
- Decreased Breath sounds
- Wheezing, rales, rhonchi
- Prolonged respiration
- Late signs
- Pursed lip breathing
- Neck vein distention/peripheral edema (may indicate pulmonary hypertension)
- Cachexia – excessive malnourished
77
COPD nursing problems
- Activity intolerance
- Poor nutritional status
- Anxiety r/t ineffective breathing pattern
- Ineffective breathing pattern =
- Ineffective airway clearance =
- Impaired gas exchange =
COPD nursing problems
- Activity intolerance
- Poor nutritional status
- Anxiety r/t ineffective breathing pattern
- Ineffective breathing pattern = too fast, slow, shallow, deep
- Ineffective airway clearance = cant clear congestion
- Impaired gas exchange = damaged alveoli
78
Nursing care: COPD
- Stop smoking
- Influenza and PNU vaccine
- Early detection of respiratory infection
- Inhaler therapy
- Long acting beta agonist – main
- Long acting muscarinic antagonist
- Inhaled corticosteroids
- O2 therapy – target o2 sat 88-92%
- Tripod position and pursed lip breathing
- Cough techniques
- Energy conservation
- Extra calories bc of increased work of breathing
- Support
why is Early detection of respiratory infection important for COPD patients?
Most common cause of COPD exacerbations
79
COPD patient reports
- Worsening of dyspnea
- Cough or sputum beyond pts normal
- Requires change in treatment
this is considered __________ and requires treatment/hospitalization
Acute exacerbation
80
COPD Acute exacerbation treatment
give Oxygen if ________
Keep above ____%
T/F - since COPD people are CO2 retainers, Low O2 is their bodies stimulus to keep breathing. So if you give them supplemental oxygen, their body may give up breathing. This is why orders may say to withhold O2 therapy.
If COPD patient quits breathing what would we do next?
Noninvasive/positive pressure ventilation if _____________
Metered dose inhaler or nebulizer = ______________
would CPT be effective for these patients?
would antibiotics?
give Oxygen if hypoxemia
- Keep above 90%
FALSE
Never withhold O2!!!
- COPD people are CO2 retainers. Low O2 is their bodies stimulus to keep breathing. So if you give them supplemental oxygen, their body may give up breathing, this is not a reason to withhold O2!!!
If they quit breathing = intubation
Noninvasive/positive pressure ventilation – with hypercapnic (elevated CO2)
Bronchodilators
- Metered dose inhaler
- nebulizer
yes - CPT
Maybe - antibiotics
81
s/s
- see mass on CXR
- Asymptomatic early
- Nonspecific s/s late
- Masked by chronic underlying cough
- Persistent productive cough
lung cancer
82
diagnosis for lung cancer with CXR would be –
sees a mass or infiltrate in lungs
83
diagnosis for lung cancer with CT/MRI would be used for
– looks for metastasis (spread)
84
diagnosis for lung cancer with
Sputum would be used for
– looks for cancer cell in sputum
85
diagnosis for lung cancer with Biopsy would be used for
- Percutaneous fine needle biopsy – takes tissue from nodule cancer cell
- bronchoscopy biopsy – scope through mouth
- video assisted thoracoscopy VAT – scope through thorax incision
– looks for cancer cells in tissue (definitive dx test)
86
nursing problems: lung cancer
- Activity ?
- nutriton?
- Anxiety ?
- breathing pattern?
- airway clearance ?
- Knowledge ?
nursing problems
- Activity intolerance and fatigue
- Poor nutritional status
- Anxiety r/t ineffective breathing pattern
- Ineffective breathing pattern = too fast, slow, shallow, deep
- Ineffective airway clearance = cant clear congestion
- Knowledge deficit
87
Nursing care: lung cancer
- Stop smoking
- Reduce anxiety
- Surgery
- Pneumonectomy – remove ____
- Lobectomy – remove ____
- Segmental or wedge resection
- Radiation
- Chemo
Nursing care
- Stop smoking
- Reduce anxiety
- Surgery
- Pneumonectomy – remove lung
- Lobectomy – remove lobe
- Segmental or wedge resection
- Radiation
- Chemo
