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Psychology and the brain > Week 1 & Week 2 lectures (The nervous system & cells and signalling) > Flashcards

Week 1 & Week 2 lectures (The nervous system & cells and signalling) Flashcards

1
Q

What are two subdivisions of the forebrain?

A

Telencephalon

Dilencephalon

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2
Q

What are the prinicple structures of the telencephalon?

A

Cerebal cortex

Basal Ganglia

Limbic System

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3
Q

What are the prinicple structures of the diencephalon?

A

Thalamus

Hypothalamus

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4
Q

What is a subdivision of the midbrain?

A

Mesencephalon

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5
Q

What are two principle structures of the mesencephalon?

A
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6
Q

What are two subdivisions of the hindbrain?

A

Metencephalon

Myelencephalon

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7
Q

What are two principle structures of the metencephalon?

A

Cerebellum

Pons

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8
Q

What is the principle structure of the meyelencephalon

A

Medulla Oblongata

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9
Q

What are the functions of the frontal lobe?

A

Motor control

Executive function

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10
Q

What are functions of the parietal lobe?

A
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11
Q

What is a function of the temporal lobe?

A
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12
Q

What is a function of the occipital lobe?

A

Vision

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13
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Movement

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14
Q

What is the function of the limbic system?

A

Motivation and emotion

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15
Q

What is the function of the thalamus

A

Relay and integration of sensory information

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16
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Controls autonomic nervous system and endocrine functions

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17
Q

What is the function of the tectum?

A

Visual and auditory processing

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18
Q

What is the functionof the tegmentum?

A

Sleep, arousal, movement

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19
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum

A

Motor coordination, muscle tone and balance

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20
Q

What is the function of the pons and medulla

A

Sleep and arousal

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21
Q

What is the function of the medulla oblongata?

A

Control of vital functions

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22
Q

What are the 12 cranial nerves?

A

Olfactory

Optic

Oculomotor

Trigeminal

Trochlear

Abducens

Facial

Vestibulocochlear

Glossopharyngeal

Hypoglossal

Vagus

Cranial accessory

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23
Q

What nervous system are the cranial nerves part of?

A

The peripheral nervous system

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24
Q

Which cranial nerves link directly to the cerebellum?

A

The olfactory and optic

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25
Q
A
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26
Q

What is 1 called?

A
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27
Q

What is 2 called?

A

optic nerve

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28
Q

What is 3 called?

A

oculomotor

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29
Q

What is 4 called?

A

The trochlear nerves

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30
Q

What is 5 called?

A

The trigeminal nerves

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31
Q

What is 6 called?

A

abducens

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32
Q

What is 7 called?

A

The facial nerves

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33
Q

What is 8 called?

A

The vestibulocochlear nerves

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34
Q

What is the 9 called?

A

The glossopharyngeal nerve

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35
Q

What is 10 called?

A
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36
Q

What is 11 called?

A

The cranial accessory

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37
Q

What is 12 called?

A

The hypoglossal nerves

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38
Q

How many cervical segments are there in the spinal chord and where are they situated?

A

8

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39
Q

How many thoracic segments are there in the spinal chord?

A

12

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40
Q

How many lumber segments are there in the spinal chord?

A

5

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41
Q

How many sacral segments are there in the spinal chord?

A
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42
Q

Where are cervial nerves?

A

Neck shoulders arms and hands

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43
Q

Where are thoracic nerves?

A

Trunk and arms

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44
Q

Where are lumber nerves?

A

Lower back and front below waist

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45
Q

Where are sacral nerves?

A

Bottom and back of legs and genitals

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46
Q

Which root does incoming sensory information travel to the spinal chord via?

A

The dorsal route

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47
Q

Which root does outgoing motor information travel to the rest of the body via?

A

The ventral root

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48
Q

What does contralateral mean?

A

The opposite side of the midline

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49
Q

What is the midline?

A

The line from the top of the middle of your head, down the centre of your body

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50
Q

What does ipsilateral mean?

A

On the same side as the midline

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51
Q

What does medial to the midline mean?

A

Close to the midline

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52
Q

What does lateral mean relative to the midline?

A

Further from the midline

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53
Q

What are the three meningeal layers called?

A

Dura Mater

Arachnoid

Pia Mater

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54
Q

What are 3 key functions of the meninges?

A

Protecting the brain and spinal chord from mechanical injury

Providing blood supply to the skull and cerebal hemisphers

Providing a space for the flow of cerebal spinal fluid

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55
Q

What are the characteristics of the dura matter?

A

Tough, inflexible

Divided into several sublayers

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56
Q

What are the characteristics of the arachnoid layer?

A

Delicate

impermeable

Avascular

Web like appearance

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57
Q

What are the characteristics of the Pia Mater?

A

Tender

Adheres closely to the brain

Fuses with the lining of the ventricles to form structures which produce cerebospinal fluid

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58
Q

What happens to the meninges in the PNS?

A

The dura Mater and the Arachnoid are fused with each other

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59
Q

What structure produces CSF?

A

The choroid plexus

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60
Q

What is the function of CSF?

A
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61
Q

What are 3 stages in the formation of the neural tube?

A
  1. Notochord forms
  2. Notochord signals ectoderm to fold
  3. Neural tube is complete
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62
Q

What are 3 of the layers in a neural tube?

A

Ectoderm

Mesoderm

Endoderm

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63
Q

Where is the endoderm and what does it go on to form?

A

On the inside

Forms many of the bodily organs

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64
Q
A
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65
Q

Where is the mesoderm and what does it go on to form?

A

In the middle of the neural tube

Goes on to form much of the skeleton and the muscles

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66
Q

Where is the ectoderm in the neural tube and what does it go on to form?

A

On the outside

Forms the nervous system and the skin

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67
Q

What is neurulation and when does it occur post gestation?

A

The development of the neural tube

Occurs 22 days post gestation

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68
Q

How does neuralation occur?

A
  1. The ectoderm layer at the top of the embryo starts to thicken into a structure called the neural plate
  2. The plate starts to fold in the middle so that a groove is created.
  3. The groove then closes then is completely seperated from the area above it.
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69
Q

What are the resulting structures of neuralation?

A

The epidermis, which is the layer above the neural tube

The Neural Tube which is the basis of the CNS

The neural Crest, Which is the topmost edge of the neural tube, and forms the PNS.

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70
Q

What disorder is caused by the failiure of the neural tube to close?

A

Spina Bifida

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71
Q

What are the 3 types of Spina Bifida?

A

Occulta

Meningocele

Myelomeningocele

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72
Q

Which is the most common and mildest type of Spina Bifida?

A

Occulta

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73
Q

What happens in meningocele spina bifida?

A

The meninges protude out through the spine but the spinal chord develops normally

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74
Q

What happens in myelommeningocele spina bifida?

A

The spinal chord and the meninges protude out the back

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75
Q
A
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76
Q

What are 3 categories of symptoms of Spina Bifida?

A

Movement problems

Bladder and Bowel problems

Associated Hydrocephalus

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77
Q

What are movement problems in Spina Bifida?

A

Weakness or paralysis in lower limbs

Deformed or dislocated bones

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78
Q

What are bladder and bowel problems in Spina Bifida?

A

Urinary continence

UTI

Kidney problems

Bowel incontinence

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79
Q

What are associated hydrocephalus in spina bifidus?

A

Short attention span

Difficulty solving problems

Difficulty reading

Difficulty understanding some spoken language

Difficulty planning

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80
Q

How does the WHO define a risk factor?

A

Any attribute, characteristic or exposure of an individual that increases the likelyhood of developing a disease or injury

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81
Q

What are 6 risk factors for spina bifida?

A

White ethnicity

If mother has diabetes

If mother was obese

Female

If mother has folate deficiency

If mother was on certain medications

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82
Q

How does the neural tube from the brain?

A
  1. The tube begins to curve slightly
  2. Some bulbous regions develop

The top bulbous region becomes the forebrain

The mid one becomes the midbrain

The bottom one becomes the hindbrain

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83
Q

When does the primary differentiation process occur?

(when the neural tube differentiates the brain and spinal chord)

A

3-4 weeks old embryo

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84
Q

At how many weeks does the secondary differentiation process occur?

A

5 weeks old embryo

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85
Q

What happens in the secondary differentiation process?

A

The forebrain splits into the telencephalon and diencephalon

The hindbrain splits into the metencephalon and the myelencephalon

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86
Q

At 5 weeks old, how many secondary brain vesciles are there and what are they?

A

5:

telencephalon

Diencephalon

Mesencephalon

Metencephalon

Myelencephalon

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87
Q

What does the telencephalon go on to form?

A

The cerebrum

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88
Q

What does the diencephalon go on to form?

A

The thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus region

The eye cup

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89
Q

What does the mesencephalon go on to form?

A

The midbrain structure

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90
Q

What does the metencephalon go on to form?

A

The pons

The cerebellum

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91
Q

What does the myelencephalon go on to form?

A

The medulla oblongata

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92
Q

What are the 3 different types of validity?

A

Face validity

Construct validity

Predictive validity

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93
Q

What is face validity?

A

Does the model look like the condition?

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94
Q

What is construct validity?

A

Do we similar changes to the biology in the model?

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95
Q

What is predictive validity?

A

Can we predict changes in the human condition based on the animal model?

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96
Q

What are the 3 R’s in animal research regulation

A

Replacement

Refinement

Reduction

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97
Q

Where is the nucleoulus?

A

In the nucleus

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98
Q

What is the nucleolus comprised of?

A

Proteins and nucleic acids

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99
Q

What are ribosomes made of?

A

Ribonucleic acids and proteins

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100
Q

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Protein snthesis

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101
Q

What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Lipid synthesis, regulation of calcium, metabolism of carbohydrates

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102
Q

What are two broad classes of cells in the nervous system?

A

Glia cells and neurons

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103
Q

What are 4 types of glia?

A

Microglia, macroglia, Epedymal cells, satellite cells

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104
Q

What are two types of macroglia?

A
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105
Q

What are two types of macroglia?

A

Schwann cells/ Oligodendrocytes

Astrocytes

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106
Q

What is the difference between oligodendrocytes and schwann cells?

A

oligodendrocytes in the CNS

Schwann cells in the PNS

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107
Q

What are 4 functions of the astrocyte? (star cells)

A

Regulating local supply of oxygen and glucose close to neurons

Providing structural support and stability to neurons

Mopping up leaked or excessive neurotransmitters

Regulating the concentration of pottasium ions

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108
Q

What is formed by the oligodendrocytes?

A

Rows of semi rigid tissue between neurons.

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109
Q

What are 3 functions of the oligodendrocyte tissue?

A

Structural support

Provide nutrients to neurons

Provide myelin Sheaths

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110
Q

What are 4 functions of microglia?

A

Acting as macrophages- engulfing bacteria and debris from dead or dying cells

Remodelling the nervous system during development

Secreting chemicals important in glial cell and blood vessel formation

Responding to immune system activation and neurodegeneration

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111
Q
A
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112
Q

What are ependymal cells and what is their function?

A

They form a layer lining the brain ventricles and the central canal of the spinal chord

They secrete CSF and may assist in its circulation

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113
Q
A
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114
Q

Where are satteliete cells found and what are 2 functions?

A

They surround sensory neurons in the PNS

They regulate the extracellular chemical environment

They protect, nourish and maintain neurons

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115
Q

What disorders are satelleite cells associated with?

A

They are associated with neuropathological states such as chronic pain

This is because they are highly sensitive to injury and inflammation

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116
Q

What is E?

A

A protein Channel

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117
Q

What is D?

A

Cholestrol

118
Q

What is I?

A

A glycolipid

119
Q

What is C?

A

A peripheral protein

120
Q

What is B?

A

A carbohydrate

121
Q

What are the Na+ and K+ concentrations of the extracellular space?

A

Na+ : 142 mM

K+ : 4 mM

122
Q

Why does the electrostatic gradient push Na+ ions into the cell?

A

Because there are more Na+ ions outside the cell. This means outside the cell is positive and they want to move into the negative space

123
Q

What are the Na+ and K+ concentrations in the intracellular space?

A

Na+ = 10mM

K+ = 140 mM

124
Q

In which direction does the electrostatic gradient push K+ ions

in which direction does the concentration gradient push K+ ions?

A

Electrostatic gradient keeps K+ ions inside of the cell

Concentration gradient pushes K+ ions outside of the cell

125
Q

In which direction does the electrostatic gradient push Na+ ions

In which direction does the concentration gradient push Na+ ions

A

Both electrostatic gradient and concentration gradient pushes Na+ ions into the cell

126
Q

Why does the electrostatic gradient keep K+ ions in the cell?

A

There are more K+ ions inside the cell

But the inside of the cell is negative, which the K+ ions are attracted to

Therefore the electrostatic gradient keeps K+ ions inside the cell

127
Q

Is the membrane more permeable to pottasium ions or sodium ions?

A

Pottasium ions

128
Q

what is the function of the membrane being more permeablet to pottasium ions?

A

It helps keep the resting potential negative

129
Q

Is the sodium pottsium pump active or passive?

A

Active

130
Q

What ratio of sodium to pottasium ions does the sodium pottasium pump in and out?

A

3 sodium ions out

for every 2 pottasium ions in

131
Q

What is the function of the sodium pottasium pump?

A

It ensures the sodium and pottasium ions stay in their correct concentrations and also ensures the cell maintains a negative charge

132
Q

In which order do the stages of hyperpolarisation polarisation repolarisation and depolarisation occur?

A

Polarisation (at rest) - depolarisation - repolarisation - hyperpolarisation

133
Q

at how many Mv does repolarisation occur?

A

+40Mv

134
Q

What Mv is the threshold for the voltage gated sodium channels?

A

-55Mv

135
Q

What opens first, the voltage gated sodium channels or the voltage gated pottasium channels?

A

the sodium channels

136
Q

At what Mv do the sodium channels shut?

A

+40 Mv (the peak)

137
Q

What stage of the process are the voltage gated pottasium channels involved in?

A

During Depolarisation they are just begining to open slowly so there is little impact

During repolarisation is when they are fully open, and pottasium leaves the cell causing the cell to become more negative (pushed out by the new electrostatic gradient caused by the influx of na+ ions, as well as the concentration gradient)

138
Q

When do the voltage gated pottasium channels close?

A

Near resting potential

139
Q

How long does the refactory period for the voltage gated sodium channels last?

A

From the peak to when the potential returns to resting state

140
Q

What is the relative refactory period?

A
  • The pottasium channels close slowly, so some k+ ions are able to escape even after the refactory period leading to a more negative external environment
  • This means that although the sodium channels could open again, they are further from the threshold than they normally are so a bigger stimulus would be required for them to fire
141
Q

What is the maximum firing rate of most neurons?

A

around 1000 per second

142
Q

Why does the hyperpolarisation stage occur?

A

Because the pottasium channels close slowly so pottasium is still leaving the cell even after it has returned to rest, making the cell more negative

143
Q

What ensures that the action potential only moves in one direction?

A

The refactory period of the sodium channels ensures the action potential cannot spread backwards

144
Q

What is amplitude?

A

The difference between resting potential and peak of action potential

145
Q

Do you determine the size of the stimulus by the amplitude or the frequency?

A

By the frequency

146
Q

What 3 factors influence the speed at which the actioin potential travels down the neuron and why?

A

Temperature- greater kinetic energy

Greater axon diameter- means less internal resistance to the movement of ions so they move quicker

Myelination - Prevents ions from leaking from the axon so the action potential spreads quicker, as it only needs to be regenerated at the nodes of ranvier

147
Q

How does the nerve impulse travel across a synapse?

A
  1. The action potential arrives at the end of the presynaptic neuron
  2. The depolarisation causes the voltage gated calcium channels to open
  3. Calcium floods into the cell
  4. Calcium reacts with snare proteins causing the vescicles to fuse to the membrane and empty their contents
  5. the nuerotransmiter diffuses and some will bind to the receptors on the post synaptic neuron
  6. The binding causes ion channels in the post synaptic neuron to open, changing the polarisation of the cell
148
Q

What is an excitatory post synaptic potential?

A

Na+ specific ion channels open

Na+ enters the cell

This brings positive charge in the cell and triggers depolarisation

149
Q

What is the difference between direct gating and indirect gating post synaptic receptors?

A

Direct gating- The place where the transmitter binds is in the same structural unit as the channel itself

Indirect gating- The transmitter binds to a receptor seperate from the channels, the binding triggers a cascade of chemical events which causes a channel elsewhere to open

Direct gating is quicker

Indirect gating can mean many channels open from one receptor binding

150
Q

42wWhat is an inhibitory post synaptic potential?

A

Ion channels selective for K+ open

Ion channels selective for Cl- open

K+ leaves the cell

Cl- enters the cell

Cell becomes more negativez- hyperpolarisation

151
Q

What is temporal summation in combining post synaptic potentials?

A
152
Q

What is spacial summation in combining post synaptic potentials?

A

Inputs arriving simultaneously in different places are added together

153
Q

What are 4 ways that the neurotransmitter signal gets turned off?

A
  1. Enzymes - break down neurotransmitter into ingredients which can be recycled
  2. Reuptake- Neurotransmitter can be taken back into pre synaptic neurons
  3. Diffusion- neurotransmitter drifts away so cannot bind

4.

154
Q

Which amino acid is glutamate produced from?

A

Glutamine

155
Q

Which receptors can glutamate bind to?

A

Ionotropic (NMDA & AMPA)

Metabotropic (mGlu)

156
Q

Does glutamate result in depolarisation or hyperpolarisation of the post synaptic neuron?

A

Depolarisation

157
Q

How is glutamate removed from the synapse?

A

taken back up by glutamate transporters into the presynaptic neuron

transporters are found in neurons and also astrocytes

Once taken up, it is broken back down by enzymes into glutamine

158
Q

What is GABA made from?

A

GABA is made from glutamate

159
Q

What receptors can GABA bind to?

A

Ionotropic receptors or Metabotropic receptors

160
Q

How is GABA removed?

A

By transporters into the pre synaptic neuron

Transporters found on neurons and astrocytes

161
Q

Does GABA result in depolarisation or hyperpolarisation?

A

Hyperpolarisation

162
Q

What is the the rate limiting step in the production of glutamate and GABA?

A

The availability of glutamine

163
Q

What is dopamine produced from?

A

Tyrosine

164
Q

What is the rate limiting step in the production of dopamine?

A

The enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase

165
Q

Does dopamine bind to metabotropic receptors or ionotropic receptors?

A

Metabotropic receptors

166
Q

What are the two classes of metabotropic receptors that dopamine binds to and are they excitary or inhibitory?

A

D1 (excitatory)

D2 (inhibitory)

167
Q

How is dopamine removed from the synapse?

A

By enzymes and reuptake channels

168
Q

What dopamine pathway is involved in attention and working memory?

A

The mesocortical pathway

From the Ventral Tegmental area to the prefrontal cortex

169
Q

What dopamine pathway is involved in goal directed behaviours?

A

The mesolimbic pathway from the ventral tegmental area to the nucleus accumbens

170
Q

What dopamine pathway is involved in voluntary movement?

A

The nigrostriatal pathway

from the substantia nigro pars compacta to the dorsal striatum

171
Q

Where does the tubero-infundibular dopamine pathway run to and from?

A
172
Q

What are 4 diseases that dopamine is involved in?

A

ADHD, parkinsons, schizophrenia, addiction

173
Q

What is this image showing?

A

Dopamine pathways

174
Q

What is noradrenaline made from?

A
175
Q

What is the rate limiting step in the production of noradrenaline?

A

The enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase

176
Q

What are the receptors that noradrenaline binds to?

A

Two classes of metabotropic receptors (a & b)

177
Q

Are noradrenaline receptors excitory or inhibitory?

A

They can be either

178
Q

Where are all noroadrenic neurons located?

A

In the midbrain in a structure called the locus coeruleus

179
Q

How is noradrenaline removed from the synapse?

A

By enzymes and reuptake channels

180
Q

what are 4 things that noradrenaline is involved in?

A

Sleep/arousal

Pain processing

ANS functioning

Attention

181
Q

What is serotonin produced from?

A

Tryptophan

182
Q

What is the rate limiting factor in the production of serotonin?

A

The enzyme tryptophan hydroxylase

183
Q

Does serotonin bind to metabotropic or ionotropic receptors

A

It can bind to both but it is mostly metabotropic receptors

184
Q

Is seratonin excitory or inhibitory?

A

It can be either

185
Q

Where are serotenergic neurons located?

A

In the hindbrain in a strucutre called the raphe nucleus

186
Q

How does serotonin get removed from the synapse?

A

Using enzymes and reuptake channels

187
Q

What are 6 things that serotonin is involved in?

A

Sleep

arousal

pain processing

Risk taking

Aggression

Mood

188
Q

What are 4 disorders that serotonin is implicated in?

A

ADHD, Schizophrenia, deppresion, OCD

189
Q

What is the rate limiting step for the production of acetylcholine?

A

The uptake of choline

190
Q

What are the two categories of receptors for acetylcholine?

A

Nicotinic (ionotropic)

Muscarinic (metabotropic)

191
Q

How is acetylcholine removed from the synapse?

A

Its removed by the enzyme acetylcholinsterase

192
Q

Where are ACh neurons found?

A

The pons and the basal forebrain

193
Q

What are 4 things ACh is involved in?

A

Sleep learning memory and attention

194
Q

What disease is ACh involved in?

A

Alzheimers

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Psychology and the brain (16 decks)

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