Week 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Which 2 major structures does the 3rd part (horizontal part) of the duodenum cross?
A
aorta and IVC
2
Q
The 3rd part (horizontal) of the duodenum passes posterior to which major branch of the abdominal aorta?
A
SMA/SMV
3
Q
The duodenojejunal flexure is supported by which suspensory ligament?
A
ligament of Treitz
4
Q
What is the order of segments of the small intestine?
A
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
5
Q
What is the name of the thickened bands of longitudinal smooth muscle fibers along the large intestine?
A
teniae coli
6
Q
What is the name of the pouches between the transverse folds of the large intestine?
A
haustra
7
Q
What is the name of the small, fat-filled projections of the large intestine?
A
epiploic appendices
8
Q
The sympathetic cell bodies which serve the abdominal and pelvic viscera are in which segments of the spinal cord?
A
thoracolumbar (T1-L4)
9
Q
The foregut receives sympathetic innervation from which nerve fibers and spinal level?
A
greater splanchnic (T5-T9)
10
Q
Where do the greater splanchnic nerve fibers synapse?
A
celiac ganglion
11
Q
The midgut receives sympathetic innervation from which nerve fibers and spinal level?
A
lesser splanchnic (T10-T11)
12
Q
The kidneys, adrenals, and gonads receives sympathetic innervation from which nerve fibers and spinal level?
A
least splanchnic (T12)
13
Q
The hindgut receives sympathetic innervation from which nerve fibers and spinal level?
A
lumbar splanchnic (L1-L2)
14
Q
The foregut, midgut, and retroperitoneal organs all receive parasympathetic innervation from which nerve?
A
vagus n.
15
Q
The hindgut receives parasympathetic innervation from which nerve fibers and spinal level?
A
pelvic splanchnic (S2-S4)
16
Q
The lesser and least splanchnic nerves synapse in which ganglion?
A
Superior mesenteric ganglion
17
Q
The lumbar splanchnic nerves synapse in which ganglion?
A
Inferior mesenteric ganglion
18
Q
The foregut structure’s lymph drains to which lymph nodes?
A
celiac lymph nodes
19
Q
The midgut structure’s lymph drains to which lymph nodes?
A
superior mesenteric lymph nodes
20
Q
The gonads and kidneys lymph drains to which lymph nodes?
A
lumbar lymph nodes
21
Q
The hindgut structure’s lymph drains to which lymph nodes?
A
inferior mesenteric lymph nodes
22
Q
The pelvic structures and parts of the rectum frain to which lymph nodes?
A
iliac lymph nodes
23
Q
Trunks draining to the thoracic duct will come across which structure which serves as a storage container for lymph?
A
cisterna chyli
24
Q
What are the fat-soluble vitamins?
A
D,E,A,K
25
Which foods contain a healthy source of vitamin A?
carrots
26
Vitamin A is important for what?
vision
27
#1 worldwide cause of preventable blindness is a deficiency in which vitamin?
A
28
What is the treatment for vitamin D deficiency?
breastfed infants 400 IU/Day
children >1 600 IU/day
29
Which foods contain a healthy source of vitamin E?
green leefy vegetables
30
Vitamin E deficiency manifests how?
aging/eging symptoms
31
Which vitamin is important for blood clotting?
vitamin K (blood Klotting)
32
Beriberi and Wernicke encephalopathy is caused by deficiency in which vitamin?
vitamin B1 thiamine
33
Vitamin B2 is also known as which vitamin?
Riboflavin
34
Vitamin B3 is also known as which vitamin?
Niacin (B 3 D Nia)
35
Pallagra (diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis, death) is caused by deficiency in which vitamin?
Vitamin B3 niacin (B 3 D Nia)
36
Vitamin B6 is also known as what?
Pyridoxine
37
Where do you find vitamin B12?
animal meats
38
Spina bifida can come about from a deficiency in which mineral?
folate
39
Keshan disease, a cardiomyopathy, is a rare but serious complication due to a deficiency in which mineral?
selenium
40
A baby will double its weight by ___ months.
5
41
A baby will triple its weight by ___ year/s.
1 year
42
How much weight will a baby lose in its first few days?
~10% of its birth weight
43
When will a baby regain its birth weight after its initial 10% loss?
2 weeks
44
How do you calculate BMI?
weight/height (in)/height (in) x 703
45
Is BMI or % of BMI on chart a better indication of obesity?
% of BMI
46
How long should a mother maintain breast feeding?
12 months
47
At which time point should you introduce other nutrients in an infants diet?
4-6 months
48
How long should you wait to give 100% juice to an infant?
6 months
49
An intake of which other mineral will attenuate the adverse effects of sodium on blood pressure?
potassium
50
Familial short stature or Constitutional growth delay? The final result is a short adult
FSS
51
Which disease results from caloric deficiency? Marasmus or Kwashiorkor?
Marasmus (it is a MASSIVE problem...no food in the fridge)
52
Which disease results from protein deficiency? Marasmus or Kwashiorkor?
Kwashiorkor (FLAMING KP NUTS)
53
What is the migrating motility complex?
it starts in the stomach and works its way through the SI, a pattern of rhythmic contractions in the stomach and small intestine. MMCs occur during fasting or between meals and are essential for clearing residual food particles, secretions, and bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract.
54
Which hormone produced by the GI tract is responsible for initiating the MMC?
motilin
55
What is Succus entericus?
its a salt and mucus secretion whose function is to lubricate the SI and help aid in catabolism of nutrients. Its secretion is stimulated by chyme
56
How are carbohydrates digested in the SI?
by brush border disaccharidases and pancreatic amylases
57
How are proteins digested in the SI?
pancreatic proteases and brush border enzymes
58
What is the role of enterokinase in the GI tract?
It is secreted by enterocytes (epithelial cells which line the GI tract).
Enterokinase is responsible for converting trypsinogen, an inactive zymase (proenzyme) secreted by the pancreas, into trypsin, an active proteolytic enzyme.
Trypsinogen is secreted into the small intestine via the pancreatic duct. Enterokinase cleaves a specific peptide bond in trypsinogen, resulting in the activation of trypsin.
59
How is fat digested in the SI?
by pancreatic lipase
60
The primary driving force for salt and water absorption in the SI is what mechanism?
the Na/K pump on the basolateral membrane
61
What is a major difference between the absorption of hexoses vs pentoses in the SI?
hexoses rely on Na+-dependent glucose transporters (SGLT1 and 2) to move into enterocyte and follow a gradient established by the Na/K pump
pentoses have their own transporters which don't rely on Na+
62
What dietary source is absorbed through the SI via passive diffusion?
fat and fat-soluble vitamins
63
Is Fe2+ or Fe3+ more readily absorbed in the SI?
Fe2+
64
Which vitamin greatly enhances the absorption of iron in the SI by reducing Fe3+?
ascorbic acid
65
Calcium absorption in the SI is enhanced by which other compounds?
vitamin D and PTH
66
What must galactose convert into in order to enter glycolysis? And in which tissues does this occur?
glucose-6-phosphate and in the liver
67
What must fructose convert into in order to enter glycolysis? And in which tissues does this occur?
G3P; various tissues
68
Which enzyme metabolizes fructose in the liver? What about other tissues?
fructokinase; hexokinase
69
Why is fructose metabolized independent of insulin?
Because it utilizes other pathways which are insulin-dependent (like GLUT5)
70
Which enzyme is deficient in essential fructosuria?
fructokinase (benign)
71
Which enzyme is deficient in hereditary fructose intolerance?
aldolase B (severe)
72
A 4-5 month old baby is weaned off breastfeeding and is given fruit for the first time. It has a severe metabolic reaction and needs medical attention. What enzyme do you suspect the baby has a deficiency in?
aldolase B and likely has hereditary fructose intolerance
73
The polyol pathway utilizes the enzyme aldose reductase to convert glucose into which compound?
sorbitol, which is a sugar alcohol
74
An accumulation of which compound can lead to osmotic stress in tissues where aldose reductase is expressed and can lead to cataracts for example?
sorbitol
75
What are the two dominant groups of microbes in the intestinal microbiota? Are they gram-negative or gram-positive?
Firmicutes (gram-positive), Bacteroidetes (gram-negative)
76
Which extrinsic factor seems to have the strongest effect on shaping the microbiome?
diet
77
What is a keystone member of the microbiome?
species which is important for maintaining an efficient functioning ecosystem and whose gain or loss may have profound influence on ecosystem structure and function
78
What's the difference between a toxigenic and an invasive pathogen?
toxigenic: releases a toxin which damages host
Invasive: friendly-fire
79
Some pathogens have dedicated virulence factors such as a polysaccharide capsule, cell wall M-protein, and cell wall protein A. How do they help the pathogen?
they help evade phagocytosis by the host
80
Some bacteria utilize dedicated proteins, ____, to enter host cells via host surface receptor interactions in order to avoid the host's immune system.
invasins
81
Which pathogen abuses the host cytoskeleton to jump from on to another cell utilizing an actin rocket?
Listeria
82
What is the function of cell wall protein A?
binds to IgG and prevents complement activation
83
What is the function of cell wall M-protein?
anti-phagocytic
84
What's the difference between an opportunistic and true pathogen?
an opportunistic pathogen causes disease in immunocompromised host while a true doesn't
85
What is the term for the ability of an organism to cause disease?
pathogenicity
86
What is the term for a quantitative measure of pathogenicity?
virulence
87
What is the name of the proteins at the tip of pili which bind to specific host receptors? Following adhesion, what usually forms?
adhesions, biofilm
88
This virulence factor accelerates fibrin clot formation and aids pathogen in protection from phagocytosis
coagulase
89
This virulence factor forms a pore in leukocytes thereby killing these cells and preventing phagocytosis
leukocidins
90
What is the difference between exotoxins and endotoxins?
Exotoxins: high toxicity, heat destroys them
Endotoxins: LPS (this is what it is), low toxicity, heat stable
91
What is conjugation?
transfer of a plasmid from one cell to another. the first cell must have the F+
92
This process of horizontal gene transfer involves the uptake of free DNA and incorporation into genome. The cell must be competent.
Transformation
93
This process involves horizontal gene transfer between bacterial cells mediated by a phage
transduction
94
What is specialized transduction?
Specialized transduction involves bacteriophages that undergo a lysogenic cycle, where the phage genome integrates into the bacterial genome (as a prophage). During this integration, the phage becomes a part of the bacterial chromosome and replicates along with the host cell's DNA.
When the phage decides to exit the lysogenic state and enter the lytic cycle, it can occasionally take adjacent segments of the bacterial genome with it.
Specialized transduction typically involves specific genes located near the integration site of the prophage in the bacterial genome. This selectivity means that the genes transferred often include those with significant functions, such as those coding for virulence factors, toxins, or antibiotic resistance.
95
What is antigenic variation?
When some bacteria change their outer antigens regularly to be a step ahead of the immune system
96
_____ stem cells determine the initial fate of adipocytes
mesenchymal
97
Which type of adipose tissue serves as an endocrine organ by releasing adipokines, lipids, chemokines, and cytokines?
white adipose tissue
98
This is a key hormone produced by white adipose tissue which acts on the hypothalamus to suppress food intake, decrease insulin sensitivity, and increases inflammation.
Leptin
99
This type of adipose tissue is responsible for thermogenesis and is anti-inflammatory. Its locations include cervical, supraclavicular, paraspinal, renal, and thoracic.
Beige adipose tissue
100
Which 4 factors influence the transition between white and beige adipose tissue?
exercise, temperature, SNS activity, and nutrition
101
What will happen to adipose tissue if it is stimulated by cold or exercise-induced SNS activity? It will go from this type to that tyoe?
white to beige
102
This type of adipose tissue is the primary source of non-
shivering thermogenesis and has a high concentration of
mitochondria
brown adipose tissue
103
Carbohydrates are how many calories/gram?
4
104
Spinach provides how many gram of fiber per cup?
8.0
104
What is the goal intake for fiber for men and women?
men 38 g, women 25 g
105
Which phase of the bacteria growth cycle is most susceptible to most antibiotics?
log phase
106
What is the tubulin homolog in bacteria that aids in the division of bacteria?
FtsZ
107
This protein aids in sidewall elongation in rod shaped bacteria only and is homologous to actin in eurkaryotes
MreB
108
Most pathogenic bacteria prefer which type of pH environment?
neutral
109
This type of bacteria requires oxygen for growth because their ATP-generating system only works with O2 as electron acceptor
obligate aerobe
110
This type of bacteria can use oxygen when present but also grow in its absence, either through fermentation or by using alternative electron acceptors
facultative anaerobe
111
This type of bacteria can’t grow in the presence of oxygen because they lack superoxide dismutase or catalase or both
obligate anaerobe
112
What is lipid II?
it is an example of a high energy precursor for bacterial cell wall which can be used as an energy source in lieu of ATP
113
What are siderophores?
metal chelators that strip host proteins of their iron
114
T/F Breastfeeding has a protective effect against obesity
true
115
What are the clinical manifestations of riboflavin deficiency?
Cheilosis
Angular stomatitis
Glossitis
Keratitis
Photophobia
Sore throat
116
Area supplied by superior rectal a. in the rectum drains to which lymph nodes?
inferior mesenteric nodes
117
Area supplied by middle rectal a. in the rectum drains to which lymph nodes?
common iliac nodes
118
Area supplied by inferior rectal a. in the rectum drains to which lymph nodes?
inguinal nodes
119
What is the 1st step in the gram-staining procedure?
application of crystal violet (purple dye)
120
After you apply crystal violet in gram-staining procedure, what do you add next?
iodine
121
What is the final step of the gram-staining procedure?
adding safranin
122
On a gram-stain, which type will look purple? pink?
gram-positive: purple bc it has thick peptidoglycan layer which will retain the crystal violet stain
gram-negative: pink bc the stain is removed with alcohol allowing red safranin stain to penetrate
123
