WEEK 2 Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

Define caries

A

preventable, chronic, and biofilm mediated disease modulated by diet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes caries?

A

An imbalance of the oral flora due to the presence of fermentable dietary carbs on tooth surface overtime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the different types of caries?

A

primary, secondary, and residual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are primary caries?

A

initial or incipient caries occurs on a surface not previously affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are secondary caries?

A

adjacent to existing restoration, crown, or sealent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are residual caries?

A

Caries that remain in a completed tooth preparation, left accidentally or intentionally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are some caries risk factors?

A

Diet
Fluoride exposure
Saliva quality and quantity
Oral hygiene
Previous or active caries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the diagnostic tools and techniques used to detect caries?

A

Visual exam
Blunt probe
Wet and dry tooth
Radiographs
ICDAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the pros and cons about amalgam?

A

fit for large cavities with high chewing forces, not ideal for aesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the pros and cons about composite?

A

good for front and back teeth small to moderate fillings, less durable for high stress areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the pros and cons of glass ionomer content?

A

baby teeth, high risk, not ideal for high stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

3 phases in treatment planning

A
  1. acute/contol phase - adress pain
  2. definitive phase
  3. maintenance phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acute/Control phase

A
  • Pain control
  • OHI
  • Motivational interviewing for behavioural change
  • Recommend remineralisation products (e.g., high-strength fluoride)
  • diet analysis
  • temporisation
  • Interprofessional referrals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Definitive phase

A
  • OHI
  • Motivational interviewing
  • Definitive restorations (replace GIC restorations with permanent ones)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maintenance phase

A
  • 6-12 month radiographs
  • carries risk assessment
  • OHI
  • Diet analysis
  • motivational interviewing
  • 3-6 month review
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ICDAS CODES

A

ICDAS 0 - sound tooth surface
ICDAS 1 - white spot visible when dry
ICDAS 2 - visible when wet
ICDAS 3 - inital enamel breakdown
ICDAS 4 - shaddow from dentine
ICDAS 5 - cavity with visible dentine
ICDAS 6 - really big cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ICDAS CODE RCOMENDATIONS

A

ICDAS 0 - optional sealant, DIAGNOdent may be helpful
ICDAS 1 - sealant optional DIAGNOdent may be helpful
ICDAS 2 - sealant optional, caries biopsy if DIAGNOdent is 20-30
ICDAS 3 - sealant or minimally invasive restoration if needed
ICDAS 4 - minimally invasive restoration
ICDAS 5 - minimally invasive restoration
ICDAS 6 - minimally invasive restoration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is DIAGNOdent?

A

A device for detecting caries using laser fluorescence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ICDAS RADIOGRAPHIC SCORING SYSTEM

A

RA 0 - no radiolucnecy
RA 1 - radiolucency in the outer half of enamel
RA 2 - radiolucency in the inner half of enamel
RA 3 - radiolucency in outer 1/3 of dentin
RA 4 - radiolucency in middle 1/3 of dentin
RA 5 - radiolucency in inner 1/3 dentine
RA 6 - radiolucency in pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

access form

A
  • first step
  • establish depth
  • allows visualisation
  • initial opening prepared
  • allows access to carious tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

outline form

A
  • second step
  • preserve marginal ridge and cusp strength
  • minimise tooth loss
  • cavity margins created
  • planned and estimated
  • maintain marginal integrity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

retention form

A
  • third step
  • flat floor
  • dove tail
  • convergent walls
  • rounded internal line angles
  • avoids restoration displacement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

resistance form

A
  • fourth step
  • cusp reduction of requires
  • resist functional forces
  • Removes weakened tooth structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the concept of marginal integrity and what is its relationship to prepping teeth?

A

the tight, smooth well adapted seal between a restoration and the tooth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the importance of proper cavity preparation and finishing techniques?
refined margins and contours prevent leakage, minimize sensitivity, and enhance durability.
26
What are some ways to improve amalgam retention?
remove unsupported enamel, slightly undercut, round angles, tooth preservation
27
What are the stages of cavity design?
outline form, primary resistance, convenience form, removal of infected dentine, pulp protection, secondary resistance, finishing.
28
What is primary resistance/retention form?
box shaped prep, flat floor, rounded internal angles, removal of weakened structures, material choice, cusp reduction
29
What is a class I tooth prep?
- pits and fissures of posterior teeth - lingual surface of anterior teeth
30
What is a class II tooth prep?
carries on proximal surfaces of posterior teeth (mesial or distal surface)
31
What is a class III tooth prep?
carries on proximal surfaces of anterior teeth (mesial or distal surfaces) NOT INCISAL EDGE
32
What is a class IV 4 tooth prep?
carries on proximal surfaces of anterior teeth (mesial or distal surfaces + INCISAL EDGE)
33
What is a class V 5 tooth prep?
carries on gingival third/cervical third of any tooth
34
What is a class 6 tooth prep?
- caries on incisal edge of anteriors or occlusal tips of posteriors
35
What is the active ingredient in savacol or curasept?
chlorhexidene gluconate 0.2%
36
What are the advantages of chlorhexidene gluconate?
long antibacterial, antiviral, and antifungal activity
37
What are the disadvantages of chlorhexidene gluconate?
reversible brown staining, bitter taste, can irritate mucosa if used for too long.
38
How long should chlorhexidene gluconate be used for?
no longer than two weeks
39
How do you apply chlorhexidine gluconate?
rinse for 60 seconds with 10mL twice per day after brushing and flossing. Patients need to be advised not to rinse with water immediately after and not to brush for at least 30 mins after use.
40
What does chlorhexidine gluconate bind with?
sodium lauryl sulphate (SLS) DO NOT USE chlorhexidine mouth rinse within 30 min of using SLS-containing toothpaste
41
What is curasept?
a toothpaste with 0.5% chlorhexidene
42
What are some long term indications associated with chlorahexidene?
disabilities, ortho, high risk caries patients, aggressive gingival inflammation, after perio therapy, patients receiving radiation in their head or neck
43
What is the active ingredient in fluoride toothpastes? Which one is considered more effective?
either sodium fluoride (NaF) or sodium monofluorophosphate (MFP). NaF more effective
44
What is the fluoride amount for children?
500ppm
45
What amount of flouride is recommended for high risk caries patients aged 12+?
5000ppm
46
What fluoride mouth rinse is recommended for daily use?
colgate neutrafluor 220ppm
47
what fluoride mouth rinse is recommended for daily use of high risk patients over 6 years?
colgate neutrafluor 990ppm
48
What professionally applied fluoride gel do we use for children 10 and under?
none to prevent ingestion
49
Why do we use professionally applied fluoride? What is the preferred gel?
a booster to at home fluoride, high concentration. Neutral Fluoride gel.
50
What are the acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF) precautions?
avoid with porcelain crowns or bridges because it can etch. Not ideal for infections. Has an unpleasant taste.
51
What are the indications of fluoride varnish?
typically used for single teeth, but premier enamelpro varnish can be applied to the entire mouth of high risk patients under 10.
52
What are common fluoride varnishes?
fluor protector, duraphat, premier enamelpro varnish.
53
How do you apply fluoride varnish?
remove plaque, isolate teeth with cotton rolls, dry area, apply with microbrush.
54
What are the patient instructions after applying a fluoride varnish?
teeth may be temporarily discoloured, avoid crunchy food for 4 hours, don't brush or floss til next morning.
55
What is tooth mousse made out of?
sodium fluoride 990ppm and casein phosphopeptide-amorphous calcium phosphate (CPP-ACP)
56
What are the indications of using tooth mousse?
High caries risk patients, white spot lesions, desensitizing teeth, dry mouth, erosion, pregnancy morning sickness, orthodontics, post whitening.
57
What are the contraindications for tooth mousse?
not suitable for children under 6 years, those with milk protein allergy, but still suitable for lactose intolerant patients.
58
What are the mechanisms of tooth mousse?
provides fluoride, calcium, and phosphate ions to form acid resistant fluoroapatite
59
What is an alternative to tooth mousse that can be used on children under 6?
unfluoridated tooth mousse.
60
What are ways to improve salivary flow?
sugar free gum, biotene products which mimic the immune boosting properties of saliva.