Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Dermatology > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

(79 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the two main types of topical therapy

A

Topical steroids

emollients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the main purpose of emollient use?

A

They enhance epidermis rehydration in dry/scaly skin conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What form of therapy is used to treat severe eczema in young children?

A

Wet wrap therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Identify four possible side effects of topical steroids

A 
Rosacea
stretch marks
purpura
skin thinning
perioral dermatitis
telangectasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three modes of action of topical corticosteroids?

A

vasoconstrictive
anti-inflammatory
immunosuppressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Modrasone, Clobetasone, Butyrate, Mometasone, Betamethasone, Valerate are all examples of what type of drug?

A

Topical corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Povidone iodine , Chlorhexidine , Triclosan , Hydrogen peroxide are all examples of what type of drug? Give three uses for such drugs

A

Antiseptics

recurrent skin infections, skin cleansing, wound irrigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give three skin conditions which may be treated with antibiotics

A 
rosacea
impetigo
acne
cellulitis
folliculitis
carbuncles
Staphloccocal scalded skin syndrome
erysipelas
necrotising fasciitis
gas gangrene (clostridium)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Identify three skin infections that are treated with antiviral agents

A

herpes zoster (shingles)
herpes simplex
eczema herpeticum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify three skin conditions which require anti-fungal treatment

A

candida (thrush)
dermatophytes (ringworm)
pityriasis versicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the purpose of keratolytic drugs?

A

They soften keratin e.g. viral warts, hyperkeratotic eczema and psoriasis, corns, calluses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Identify 6 possible topical treatments of psoriasis

A 
emollients
keratolytics
Vit D analogues
coal tar
topical steroid
dithranol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is hyperkeratosis?

A

Increased thickness of the keratin layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is parakeratosis?

A

Persistence of nuclei in the keratin layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is acanthosis?

A

Increased thickness of epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is papillomatosis

A

Irregular epithelial thickening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is spongiosis?

A

Oedema between the squamous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the four main reaction patterns of inflammatory skin conditions?

A

psoriasiform- elonagtion of rete pegs
spongiotic- intraepidermal oedema
lichenoid- basal layer damage
vesiculobullous- blistering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is lichen planus? What are its main characteristics? How is it usually treated?

A

Idiopathic chronic inflammatory skin disease.
Characterised by intensely pruritic, purple papules effecting flexural aspect of wrists, forearms and lower legs. Also effects oral mucosa
responds well to corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is pemphigus? what is the most common form of pemphigus?

A

A rare autoimmune bullous disease where there is loss in keratinocyte adhesion
Pemphigus vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What process is common to all forms of pemphigus?

A

acantholysis- lysis of intercellular cell adhesion sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What auto-antibodies are evident in pemphigus vulgaris?

A

IgG auto-antibodies against desmoglein 3 (a desmosomal protein) leading to loss of keratinocyte adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis is the cutaneous manifestation of what disease?

A

Coeliac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Identify 4 possible symptoms of an allergic reaction

A

urticaria
angioedema
wheezing
anaphylactic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the two main allergy investigations?
Skin prick testing | challenge testing
26
How do you treat anaphylactic shock?
adrenaline autoinjector
27
What is the name of allergens that effect the skin? Give some examples
Haptens | tattoo ink, fragrances, latex, plants
28
Identify 4 antibiotics which could be used to treat MRSA
doxycycline clindamycin vancomycin co-trimoxazole
29
What are excoriations?
scratch marks
30
What is the alternative name for dermatitis?
exzema
31
What is pruritis?
The medical term for itch
32
Where is pruritis processed?
Forebrain and hypothalamus
33
Which nerves transmit itch?
Unmyelinated C fibres
34
Itch is associated with mediators released from ______ _____ ___________.
Mast cell degranulation
35
Identify four causes of itch
Pruritoceptive- inflammation/dryness triggers Neuropathic- due to damage to central or peripheral nerves Neurogenic- no damage but caused by e.g. opiate effects on CNS Psychogenic- psychological e.g. delusion of infestation
36
Identify some risk factors for drug eruptions
age female>males genetics concomitant diseases
37
Exanthematous drug reactions appear as a widespread ____________ rash. They are _____ mediated drug reactions (type ____ hypersensitivity) and are related to ___________ use.
maculopapular T-cell IV Antibiotic
38
What is the difference between macules and papules?
Macules are flat non-palpable lesions whereas | Papules are small <0.5cm palpable lesions
39
Uriticarial drug reactions either are a matter of ______ mediated hypersensitivity and erupt upon ________ exposure or are caused by direct release of _______ ________ from mast cells upon _________ exposure.
``` IgE secondary inflammatory mediators mast cells first ```
40
Identify four types of drug which could cause fixed drug eruptions
Tetracyclines, doxycycline NSAIDS Carbamazepine (anti-convulsant) Paracetamol
41
Identify four severe cutaneous drug eruptions
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis Stevens-Johnson syndrome Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (DRESS) Acute Generalised Exanthematous Pustulosis
42
Identify four drugs which commonly cause phototoxicity
``` Amiodarone Doxycycline Quinine Chlorpromazine Thiazide NSAIDs PPIs ```
43
Which two hormones are raised in obesity and have skin manifestations?
Androgens | Insulin
44
Why is there increased androgen production in obesity?
Increased peripheral fat where androgen production can occur
45
Identify 2 skin manifestations of hyperinsulinaemia
Acanthosis Nigricans | Skin tags- Acrochordons
46
Identify 4 skin manifestations of hyperandrogenaemia
Hirsutism- male pattern hair growth Androgenetic Alopecia- male pattern hair loss Acne- increased sebaceous gland activity Hidradenitis suppurativa
47
How come obesity causes lymphoedema? How come Lymphoedema can lead to cellulitis?
Increased subcutaneous fat mass leads to reduced lymphatic drainage leading to swelling. Persistent oedema leads to chronic inflammation and fibrosis. Reduced oxygen supply allows bacterial overgrowth leading to cellulitis
48
What vascular pathology may be exacerbated by abdominal obesity?
Chronic venous insufficiency because abdominal obesity inhibits venous return
49
Identify 5 skin diseases that are exacerbated by obesity
``` Chronic venous insufficiency lymphoedema psoriasis skin infections Intertigo- macerated skin plaques that occur in skin folds ```
50
What disease can result form Vitamin B3 deficiency (Niacin)?
Pellagra (Dermatitis, delirium, diarrhoea, death)
51
What are the characteristic clinical features of Psoriasis? Name some of the other presentations of psoriasis
Well-demarcated, red plaques with thick scale. appear on elbows, knees, scalp and elsewhere. Guttate, erythrodermic, pustular, psoriatic arthritis, enthesis, nail changes
52
What type of psoriasis is prevalent in heavy smokers?
Erythrodermic and pustular psoriasis
53
Give two examples of Vitamin D analogues
Calcitriol, tacalcitrol, calcipotriol
54
What are the characteristic features of Lichen planus
Characterised by intensely pruritic pink-purple polygonal plaques effecting flexural aspect of wrists, forearms, lower legs.
55
How is Lichen planus treated?
Potent corticosteroids
56
How does Pemphigus vulgaris present? How is it treated?
Presents as blisters which rupture leaving behind shallow erosions. Systemic corticosteroids
57
Describe the pathophysiology of Bullous pemphigoid
Autoantibodies against hemidesmosomes cause basement membrane split at the dermo-epidermal junction. Appears as large haemorrhagic/serous blisters.
58
What are comodones?
Swollen and inflamed pilosebaceous units
59
Describe the presentation of acne
Comodones, blackheads, macules and papules of the skin distributed on the face, neck, upper back, anterior chest.
60
Describe some of the treatments of acne vulgaris
``` Topical retinoids topical benzoyl peroxide oral lymecycline tetracyclines oral contraceptive pill Isotretinoin (in severe acne) ```
61
What is telangiectasia?
Dilated venules at skin surface which appear as red meshworks
62
Demodex mites are associated with what skin condition?
Rosacea
63
How is rosacea treated
Topical metronidazole azelaic acid/invermectin tetracyclines/doxycyclines
64
Describe a typical presentation of eczema
Usually in infancy dry, red, pruritic skin with excoriations and lichenification Flexures of elbows, knees, ankles, wrists Experience period where controlled and also flares
65
Describe the pathophysiology of atopic eczema
Patient has Genetic filaggrin deficiency and so the keratinocyte barrier is impaired and antigenic material can penetrate the skin easier. These antigens and microbes activate CD4 T cells resulting in raised interluikins. Mast cells degranulate releasing IgE antibodes.
66
What protein deficiency is shown in atopic eczema?
Filaggrin deficiency
67
Describe the management of eczema during 1. maintenance and 2. flares
1. Regular use of emollients, avoid environmental triggers 2. Emollients and topical steroids, treat complications with antibiotics possible zinc wet wraps, phototherapy, immunosuppressants such as methotrexate and azathioprine, topical tacrolimus
68
Name some possible environmental triggers of atopic eczema
``` change in temperature plants washing agents dietary products emotional stress ```
69
Identify the cardinal features of eczema (dermatitis)
pruritis erythema excoriations lichenification
70
What is lichenification?
Prominent lines from repeated scratching
71
Give three histological features of eczema
spongiosis, hyperkeratosis, acanthosis
72
What is the difference between allergic dermatitis and irritant contact dermatitis?
Allergic dermatitis shows type 4 hypersensitivity and is a reaction to allergens whereas irritant contact dermatitis is due to frequent contact with an irritant.
73
What is tuberous sclerosis? What characterises this condition?
It is a genetic condition that is characterised by hamartomas in various organs. Hamartomas are benign neoplastic lesions of the tissue from which they originate
74
What gene mutations are found in tuberous sclerosis?
Mutations of TSC1 (tuberin) and TSC2 (Hamartin). Hamartin and tuberin interact with one another to control the growth and size of cells
75
What are the main skin manifestations of tuberous sclerosis?
``` Cafe-au-lait spots poliosis ash leaf hyperpigmentation subungal fibroma angiofibroma Shagreen patches ```
76
Define neurofibromatosis type 1
A condition characterised by nerve tumours in the nervous system and caused by mutation of the NF1 gene on chromosome 17 which codes for neurofibromin which is a tumour suppressor gene
77
Name the 7 possible diagnostic criteria for NF1 which is shortened by the pneumonic CRABBING
``` Cafe-au-lait spots Relative with NF1 Axillary or inguinal freckles Bony dysplasia such as Bowing of a long bone or sphenoid wing dysplasia Iris Hamartomas (Lisch nodules) Neurofibromas Glioma of optic nerve ```
78
What are erysipelas?
Localised skin infection caused by Strep pyrogenes
79
What is the treatment of choice for scabies?
Permethrin cream

Dermatology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions