Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Why is blood flow in capillaries slow?

A

Allow adequate time for exchange

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2
Q

What can pass through the pores of the capillary wall?

A

Small water soluble substances
Na, K, glucose, amino acids

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3
Q

What can pass through the endothelial cells of the capillary wall?

A

Lipid soluble substances
O2, CO2

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4
Q

How are exchangeable proteins transported across the capillary wall?

A

Vesicular transport

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5
Q

What law of diffusion does movement of gas and solutes follow?

A

Fick’s Law

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6
Q

What is net filtration pressure?

A

Forces favouring filtration - forces opposing filtration

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7
Q

What is Kf?

A

Filtration coefficient

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8
Q

What forces favour filtration?

A

Capillary hydrostatic pressure
Interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

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9
Q

What forces oppose filtration?

A

Capillary osmotic pressure
Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

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10
Q

What does a positive net filtration pressure favour?

A

Filtration

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11
Q

What does a negative filtration pressure favour?

A

Reabsorption

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12
Q

Would filtration or reabsorption be favoured at the arteriolar end?

A

Filtration

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13
Q

Would filtration or reabsorption be favoured at the venular end?

A

Reabsorption

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14
Q

What happens to fluid that accumulates in the interstitium?

A

Lymphatic system helps to drain

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15
Q

Is resistance higher or lower in the pulmonary circulation than systemic?

A

Lower

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16
Q

What is oedema?

A

Accumulation of fluid in interstitial space

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17
Q

Does lung compliance increase or decrease in pulmonary oedema?

A

Decrease

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18
Q

In HF is the RAAS upregulated or downregulated and what does this result in?

A

Upregulated
More fluid retention

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19
Q

What signs may be seen in R ventricular failure?

A

Peripheral oedema

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20
Q

Why is angina affected by the cold?

A

Cold causes vasoconstriction and increases afterload of the heart

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21
Q

What are the acute coronary syndromes?

A

Unstable angina
NSTEMI
STEMI

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22
Q

What immediate deadly arrhythmia may occur in a STEMI?

A

Ventricular fibrillation

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23
Q

What HF can be caused after STEMI?

A

L due to scar tissue affecting pumping

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24
Q

What features may be seen on a STEMI ecg?

A

ST elevation
T wave inversion

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25
What ecg changes are needed to diagnose a STEMI?
>1mm ST elevation in 2 adjacent limb leads or >2mm elevation in at least 2 continuous precordial leads or New onset bundle branch block with associated symptoms
26
Give examples of thrombolysis medications?
Streptokinase tpa
27
What are the absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy?
Previous haemorrhagic stroke Stroke within 6 months CNS damage or neoplasm Active internal bleeding Aortic dissection Recent major surgery or trauma Known bleeding disorder
28
What is the early treatment for STEMI patients?
Aspirin 300mg Clopidogrel 600mg Morphine Anti-emetic GTN if BP <90 Angioplasty or thrombolysis
29
What is the travel time for PCI over thrombolysis?
90 minutes
30
What structural complications can result from MI?
Cardiac rupture Ventricular septal defect Mitral valve regurgitation Left ventricular aneurysm Mural thrombus Acute pericarditis Dressler's syndrome
31
What functional complications can occur after MI?
Acute ventricular failure Cardiogenic shock HF
32
What is the KILLIP classification used in?
In hospital mortality following MI
33
What may be seen in an NSTEMI ECG?
ST depression T wave inversion May be normal
34
What troponins are specific to the heart?
Troponin I and T
35
What anti platelet therapy is used after a stent?
Dual anti platelet therapy
36
What conditions other than MI may raise troponin?
CCF HTN crisis Renal failure PE Sepsis CVA Pericarditis/ myocarditis
37
What are the 2 types of HF?
Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction
38
What is the most useful diagnostic test in HF?
Echocardiography
39
What type of echo tends to be used in HF?
Transthoracic
40
What blood test may be used in identifying HF?
BNP
41
What value would be a normal Nt-proBNP?
<400
42
What BNP value would suggest standard echo waitlist and what would suggest urgent?
Standard: 400 - 2000 Urgent: >2000
43
What conditions can lead to HF?
HTN Diabetes Coronary heart disease Tachy arrhythmias Dilated cardiomyopathy
44
What is a normal ejection fraction?
>50%
45
What is ivabradine?
SGLT2 inhibitor
46
Does ivabradine work in AF?
No
47
What impact does ivabradine have on HR?
Slows
48
What are the 4 pillars of HF treatment?
ARNI BB MRA SGLT2i
49
What does ectopy mean in relation to arrhythmia?
Single beats
50
In SVT where does the arrhythmia originate?
Above the ventricle - SAN, Atria, AVN, His
51
What may be seen in ECG of SVT?
Rapid P wave or 'f' waves of AF Narrow WRS
52
What are the common types of SVT?
Atrial - AF, atrial flutter, ectopic atrial tachycardia Bradycardia - Sinus bradycardia, sinus pauses
53
What occurs in AF?
Atrial depolarisation random and fast losing all meaningful contractions AV node blocks so ventricles much lower rate
54
Where does ventricular tachycardia originate from?
Ventricular myocardium (common) Fascicles of the conduction system (uncommon)
55
What does the QRS look like in ventricular tachycardia?
Wide QRS
56
What does the ECG look like in ventricular tachycardia?
QRS rapid, wide and distorted T waves large with deflections opposite the QRS complexes Usually regular ventricular rhythm Usually no visible P waves PR interval not measurable
57
What is the cardiothoracic ratio?
Maximum diameter of the heart divided by maximum diameter of the thorax Normal >50%
58
What type of x-ray will exaggerate the heart size?
AP
59
What are the 4H and 4T causes of cardiac arrest?
Hypoxia, hypovolaemia, hypothermia, hypokalaemia/ hyperkalaemia Tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxins, thrombus
60
What depth should chest compressions reach?
At least 5cm no more than 6cm
61
What rhythms are shockable?
Ventricular fibrillation Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
62
Is asystole a shockable rhythm?
No
63
What drugs are given in line with defibrillation?
Amiodarone after 3 shocks Adrenaline every 3-5 minutes
64
How is adrenaline given in non-shockable rhythm?
Immediately and repeated every 3-5 minutes
65
When should CPR be terminated?
Valid and relevant advanced directive Obvious mortal injury/ irreversible death Safety threat to ALS provider Persistent asystole >20 mins despite ALS without reversible cause identified
66