Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

AAW - CRAAB 1 > Week 3 > Flashcards

Week 3 Flashcards

(68 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

5 specific examples of circulatory shock

A

Cardiogenic shock
Cardiac pumping compromised -> decreased CO
Ex: severe arrhythmias, abrupt valve malfunction, MI, coronary occlusions

Hypovolemic shock
Depletion of body fluids -> decreased blood volume -> reduced cardiac filling -> reduced SV
Ex: significant hemorrhage (>20% blood volume), fluid loss from severe burns, chronic diarrhea, prolonged vomiting

Anaphylactic shock
Severe allergic reaction to antigen sensitivity -> release of histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, bradykinin -> increased arteriolar vasodilation -> increased microvascular permeability -> loss of venous tone -> decreased TPR and CO

Septic shock
Severe vasodilation due to release of substances into blood stream by infective agents.
Ex: endotoxin released from bacteria induces formation of a nitric oxide synthase in endothelial cells

Neurogenic shock
Loss of vascular tone due to inhibition of normal tonic activity of sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerves
Ex: deep general anesthesia, reflex response to deep pain associated with traumatic injury
May also be accompanied by increased vagal activity -> decreased HR; this shock is called “vasovagal syncope”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define autotransfusion

A

a reduced capillary hydrostatic pressure resulting from intense arteriolar constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why do people breath rapid and shallowly when they are in circulatory shock

A

because they are using the respiratory pump in order to get blood through the lungs more quickely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does the liver help out when the body is in circulatory shock?

A

increases glycogenolysis in order to increase blood osmolarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are your EFs like in systolic heart failure

A

lower duh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the term for autoimmune pericarditis that results a significant time after an MI (on the order of weeks to months)

A

dressler’s pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how big does the LV wall have to get in order for it to be considered hypertrophic

A

> 1.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what happens after left ventricle hypertrophy that can lead fo further failure

A

LV dilatation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

causes of isolated right sided hypertensive heart disease (cor pulmonale)

how big does the RV have to be in order for it to be hypertrophied

A

Due to chronically ↑ pulmonary artery pressure from:

  • ***chronic pulmonary parenchymal disease: COPD, interstitial fibrosing diseases (sarcoidosis)
  • chronic hypoxia with or without lung disease (e.g. sleep apnea) (causing pulmonary vasoconstriction)
  • pulmonary vascular disease: primary pulmonary hypertension and chronic recurrent thromboemboli

(RV free wall > 0.5 cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

R-sided IE usually caused by

A

I.V. drug abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

connective tissue diseases that can cause valve deformations

A

Reumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

atrioventricular valve insufficiency can be due to what give 2 examples

A
  • CHF (causing valve ring dilatation)
  • papillary muscle dysfunction (from LV ischemia due to
    coronary disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most common primary cardiac neoplasia

A

atrial myxoma (usually left atrium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tuberous sclerosis

A

bunch of tumors everywhere that are benign. caused by mutation in tumor supressor proteins. causes rhabdomyomas (benign tumor in striated muscle like cardiac muscle) in children - most common form of primary cardiac cancer in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where do most metastisies to the heart go?

A

in the pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where do catacholamines come from aka pathway from AA to epi

A

Phenylalanine —phenylalanine hydroxylase—>
tyrasine —tyrosine hydroxylase—>
dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) —-DOPA decarboxylase—>
dopamine —vitamin c & dopamine beta hydroxylase—>
NE —SAM—> Epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does the preganglionic adernergic nerve relsease

A

ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the difference between somatic nerves coming off of the spinal cord and adrenergic nerves coming off the spinal cord

A

Adrenergic - has preganglionic nerves coming off the spinal cord and ganglia in the periphery. sympathetic ganglion have nicotinic receptors that ACh binds to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what happens to the postganglionic nerve when ACh hits it?

A

sodium comes in, causes action potential propagation via calcium ion gated channels. Vesicles dock with the membrane at the end of the neuron and NE spills out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when would you want to measure vanillylmandelic acid in the urine

A

pheochromocytoma, catacholamine secreting tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

isoproterinol

A

activates beta 1 and 2 adrenergic receptors

increases heart rate and lowers resistance (can lower BP because of beta 2 action)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

phenylephrine

A

alpha 1 agonist
only one used clinically

used as a vasoconstrictor and nasal decongestant

increases BP

If given with an alpha blocker, it does nothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

alpha 1 antagonists

A

things that end in azosin

terazosin
prazosin
doxazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dobutamine

A

Selective B1 agonist
positive inotrope
increases contractility, increases SV and BP

if you wanted to boost the SV in a heart failure patient you could give this in the hospital

increases BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
B2 activators used for what which ones delay labor
Albuterol, Metaproterenol, Salmeterol, Ritodrine, Terbutaline, brochodilation for asthma (except ritodrine) lowers blood pressure, causes tachycardia, tremors Ritodrine and terbutaline delay labor.
26
propanolol
non selective beta 1 and 2 antagonist blocks the B2 activators like albuterol
27
mech of furosemide
NKCC pump inhibitor
28
"3 drugs that help with heart failure" according to trachte
``` ACE inhibitor (lisinopril, etc) Beta blocker (metoprolol, etc) Aldosterone receptor inhibitor (spironolactone) ```
29
What happens if you are an an alpha 1 antagonist and you give epi?
Their blood pressure TANKS YA DINGUS epi acts on alpha 1 and 2, and beta 1 and 2. if you aren't constricting the vessels with alpha 1, it will act on the others to collectively lower you BP
30
a few common Selective beta 1 blockers
metoprolol, atenolol
31
Why use beta 1 selective over non selective beta blockers
blocking beta-2 can cause bronchoconstriction and peripheral vasoconstriction
32
Do you ever give a aspecific aterial dilator in heart failure? Why
(Like hydralazine) No. You need a venoilator in order to decrease the preload on the heart
33
Isosorbide mononitrate vs nitro. Whats the difference
iso half life is 5hr nitro is 3 min
34
What is something other than rheumatic fever that can cause mitral valve disorders that we talked about in class
enterovirus. Can occur with pregnancy
35
Pargyline
MAOI, inhibits monoamine oxidase, causing NE to stay in the cleft longer. *blocks type b MAO*
36
Reserpine
inhibits the granular pump that accumulates catacholamines in vesicles, resulting in a depletion of catecholamines (used to be used to treat PB but has severe psychological SE)
37
cocaine effects on CNS
inhibits the axoplasmic pump (which usually uptakes the NE)
38
phenelzine
MAOI, causing NE to stay in the cleft longer
39
Guanethidine
goes into the nerve ending via the axoplasmic pump, once inside, it depletes the NE stores, reducing response to sympathetic stimulation. *inactive in the presence of inhibitors of the the axoplasmic pump
40
People on ____ should not eat cheese beer and wine, because they contain ____
people on MAOIs should not eat beer cheese and wine because they contain Tyramine, which releases catacholamines (via reversal of axoplasmic transporter) that cannot be degraded by MAO (because it is inhibited).
41
two different types of monoamine oxidases
A - in intestine and brain, blocked by perlindole B - in various organs, blocked by seligeline and *pargyline*
42
function of alpha 1 receptors and the degree to which they are sensitive to different catacholimes
epinephrine > norepinephrine >> isoproterenol mediates smooth muscle contraction (primary Cardiovascular location is blood vessels) activates phospholipase C (Gaq dependent process) To increase intracellular calcium via inositol trisphosphate
43
function of alpha 2 receptors and the degree to which they are sensitive to different catacholimes
epinephrine > norepinephrine >> isoproterenol inhibition of neural norepinephrine release prejunctional nerve terminal, platelets, gut, medulla oblongata acts to decrease cAMP or activate Na/H antiporter G protein alphai dependent process
44
function of beta 1 receptors and the degree to which they are sensitive to different catacholimes
isoproterenol > epinephrine = norepinephrine adrenergic cardiac effects (increase in rate and contractility), renin release located in heart, JG apparatus & adipose tissue acts to increase cAMP via G protein alpha subunit
45
function of beta 2 receptors and the degree to which they are sensitive to different catacholimes
isoproterenol > epinephrine >> norepinephrine relaxation of smooth muscle & metabolic (glycogenolytic) effects primary site in cardiovascular system is blood vessels (smooth muscle in general) LUNGS acts to increase cAMP via G protein alpha subunit
46
Intropin (trachte calls it inotropin)
dopamine HCL At low [], beta 1 agonist (positive inotropic effect) at high [], alpha 1 agonist use for shock to maintain renal perfusion, also can be used for hypotension
47
what does agonizing a dopaminergic receptor do
dilation of renal and mesenteric vasculature
48
drug name for NE
levophed bitartrate
49
if you gave NE after an alpha 1 blocker, what would happen to BP
it would still go up, just not as much. The NE effects on B1 are MUCH stronger than their effects on B2, so the increase in HR would outweigh the decrease in TPR.
50
Ephedrine
noncatecholamine sympathomimetic general agonist releases norepi used to treat bronchospasm, vasoconstricts and reduces mucosal congestion via alpha 1
51
Pseudoephedrine
sterioisomer of ephedrine used to treat nasal decongestion
52
things that reverse the axoplasmic transporter
Tyramine, amphetamine, ephedrine
53
imipramine
TCA! Block the axoplasmic pump
54
normal PR, QRS, and QT intervals
o PRI - P-R Interval(where P wave starts and Where QRS Complex starts) .12-.20 sec o QRS –
55
Supraventricular tachycardia
QRS
56
PACs
premature atrial contraction you can still see the p wave
57
first degree block
PR > .2sec
58
second degree block type one
PR gets longer and longer UNTIL there is a dropped QRS complex, as in it didn’t show up!
59
second degree block type two
same as type one, but the pr interval is fixed the whole time. (it doesn't get longer and longer)
60
junctional escape rhythm
atria arent contracting, ventricles take over at like 40-60 sometimes no p wave
61
Accelerated junctional rhythm
same as jucntional rhythm, but 60-100bpm inverted p waves
62
Ventricular escape beat/ ventricular bradycardia
enlarged QRS ventricles are controlling the rhythm
63
agonal rhythm
64
PVC
premature ventricular contraction early ventricular beat, it has a widened QRS
65
ACE inhibitors
lisinopril | Enalapril
66
Hydralazine
increaswes NO synthesis in endothelium, higher selevtivity for arterioles = decreased afterload
67
example of an aldosterone receptor antagonist
Spironolactone
68
Digoxin
Inhibits Na/K ATPase: • Increased Na intracellular concentration • Increased Na/Ca co-transporter activity • Increased intracellular Ca++ • INCREASED CONTRACTILIY (positive ionotrope) ALSO – prolongs nodal action potentials thus DECREASING HEART RATE VERY HIGH TOXICITY

AAW - CRAAB 1 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions