Week 3 Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
What is cholecystitis?
A
Inflammation of the gallbladder, often flares up after a meal of fatty foods. Presents w/ RUQ pain that can radiate to the R shoulder.
More common in middle-aged, white, overweight females. Remember 5 F’s - Fair, Fat, Female, Fertile, 40-50YO.
2
Q
What symptoms are associated with cholecystitis?
A
Severe pain in RUQ that may radiate to shoulder if blockage (cholecystiasis, gallstones) is present. (Murphy’s sign)
RUQ stands for right upper quadrant.
3
Q
What is acute hepatitis?
A
Inflammation of the liver that can cause RUQ abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting, jaundice, dark urine, and clay-colored stools.
Can be caused by infections, alcohol, drugs, autoimmune disorders, or fat build-up.
4
Q
What disorders are indicated by pain in different abdominal quadrants?
A
RUQ - Cholecystitis, Liver disorders; RLQ - Appendicitis; LUQ - Pancreatitis, Peptic ulcers, Spleen issues; LLQ - Diverticulitis.
5
Q
What causes appendicitis?
A
Occurs when fecal matter accumulates in the appendix, when the organ can no longer flush its contents, leading to pressure build-up and potential rupture.
Most common between 10-30yo men.
6
Q
What are the typical symptoms of appendicitis?
A
Periumbilical pain, pain in RLQ (McBurney point), rebound tenderness.
7
Q
What is the time frame for administering fibrinolytic therapy?
A
3-4.5 hours. Per the book (pg 1323)
8
Q
What are the risk factors for mesenteric ischemia?
A
Obstruction of blood flow to the mesenteries due to embolisms, plaque build-up, profound vasospasm, or thrombi in the mesentery vein.
Mortality rate of 50-80%, due to sepsis.
9
Q
BREAKFAST:
What is an exaggerated response by cellular immunity to a foreign substance called?
A
allergic reaction
10
Q
What are Beta 2 agonist drugs?
A
Beta 2 agonist drugs are medications that stimulate beta-2 adrenergic receptors, commonly used to treat respiratory conditions.
11
Q
What are the phases of seizures?
A
The phases of seizures include the aura, ictal phase, and postictal phase.
12
Q
What are the signs and symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?
A
Signs and symptoms of Alzheimer’s include memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with language.
13
Q
What are the signs and symptoms of Polio?
A
Signs and symptoms of Polio include fever, fatigue, headache, vomiting, stiffness in the neck, and pain in the limbs, paralysis.
14
Q
What are the signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?
A
Gradual onset, unilateral tremors. As dopamine levels decrease, so does body function. 4 classic presentations:
Tremors
Postural Instability - Stiff posture, stooped over, unsteady gait
Rigidity - Move in fits and starts.
Bradykinesia - shuffle gait, Taking small steps to turn, until turn is complete.
15
Q
What are the signs and symptoms of Muscular Dystrophy?
A
Signs and symptoms of Muscular Dystrophy include progressive muscle weakness, difficulty walking, and muscle wasting.
16
Q
What medications are associated with Prednisone?
A
Medications associated with Prednisone include Ipratropium Bromide, Betamethasone, and Metaproterenol.
17
Q
What is the main problem for which a patient takes Prednisone and related medications?
A
The main problem is often related to inflammation or respiratory issues.
18
Q
What are renal calculi?
A
Renal calculi are commonly known as kidney stones. Buildup of uric acid.
19
Q
What is Pyelonephritis?
A
Pyelonephritis is a kidney infection.
20
Q
What does DKA stand for?
A
DKA stands for Diabetic Ketoacidosis.
21
Q
What are lower UTIs?
A
Lower UTIs refer to urinary tract infections that affect the bladder and urethra.
Signs/ symptoms: cloudy, strong smelling urine, discomfort in pelvis for F, urgent and frequent urination.
22
Q
What are the symptoms and pain locations for appendicitis, hepatitis, cholecystitis, and pancreatitis?
A
Appendicitis is in the RLQ, hepatitis in the RUQ and epigastric area, cholecystitis in the RUQ, and pancreatitis in the LUQ.
23
Q
What are the risk factors for gastrointestinal disease?
A
Risk factors for gastrointestinal disease include diet, lifestyle, and genetic predisposition, smoking, alcohol.
24
Q
Which causes of Gastroenteritis are responsive to antibiotics?
A
H. Pylori is a bacterial cause of Gastroenteritis that is responsive to antibiotics.
25
What is the importance of patient positioning?
Patient positioning is important for various disorders to optimize comfort and treatment.
26
What percentage of men over 80 years old have BPH?
Approximately 50% of men over 80 years old have Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH).
27
What is the complete dietary tract from start to finish?
The complete dietary tract includes the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus.
28
BREAKFAST:
What should you do for a young female vomiting for 3 days with low blood pressure?
Be prepared for rapid transport.
29
What does the word anaphylaxis mean?
Anaphylaxis means without protection or no protection.
30
What are hiccuping, sighing, and burping indicative of?
These are the body's way of keeping your alveoli functioning.
31
What is the result of a sinus infection that becomes a serious bacterial infection around the eye?
Orbital cellulitis
## Footnote
Orbital cellulitis is an infection of the tissues surrounding the eye, often resulting from sinus infections.
32
What would you expect the findings to be in an unresponsive patient with asthma?
Possible signs of hypoxia, increased work of breathing, or respiratory distress
33
What is the main problem that the patient takes these medications for?
Chronic respiratory issues, such as asthma or COPD.
34
What conditions does a ruptured appendix cause?
Peritonitis, sepsis, & death
35
What are the signs and symptoms of Alzheimer's?
Common signs and symptoms include memory loss, difficulty in problem-solving, confusion with time or place, and changes in mood or personality, forgetting how to preform daily tasks
36
BREAKFAST:
What is an exaggerated response by cellular immunity to a foreign substance called?
Allergic reaction.
37
What are kidney stones?
Kidney stones are hard deposits made of minerals and salts that form inside the kidneys. Can block the flow of urine
38
What causes kidney stones?
Kidney stones can be caused by various factors, including dehydration, certain diets, and medical conditions.
39
What are the symptoms of kidney stones?
Symptoms of kidney stones may include severe pain, blood in urine, and frequent urination.
40
How are kidney stones diagnosed?
Kidney stones are diagnosed through imaging tests such as X-rays, CT scans, or ultrasounds, Lloyds test, HX, and signs and symptoms
41
What are the treatment options for kidney stones?
Treatment options for kidney stones include drinking fluids, pain relievers, and in some cases, surgery.
42
What is a Mesentery? What does it do?
The membranes that connect organs to the ABD wall.
43
What is Melena?
Dark, tarry stools, bleed in upper GI tract.
44
What is Hemoptysis?
Bloody sputum, coughing up blood from respiratory tract, including lungs and throat.
45
What is Hematemesis?
Blood in vomit, mixed with food and comes back up. Has a 'coffee ground' like appearance.
## Footnote
Not to be confused with red blood in vomitus that comes straight from the mouth or esophagus, such as esophageal varices.
46
What is Hematochezia?
Blood in feces, bleed from lower GI tract.
47
What are the signs and symptoms of Influenza?
Respiratory complaints, fever, headache, malaise, loss of appetite. Lasts 3-4 days. Does not usually require fluids or ventilations.
48
What are the signs and symptoms of Peptic ulcers?
Occurs when the protective layer of the stomach has eroded, causing epigastric pain that is relieved immediately after eating but reemerges 3-4 hours later.
## Footnote
Can be caused by H. Pylori bacteria or overuse of NSAIDs. If the ulcer completely erodes through the stomach, it can lead to peritonitis.
49
What are the signs and symptoms of Acute Gastroenteritis?
Acute onset of nausea/vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever, usually due to contaminated food/water.
50
What are the signs and symptoms of Chronic Gastroenteritis?
Same symptoms as acute gastroenteritis but lasts more than 30 days.
## Footnote
Can be caused by the same factors as acute gastroenteritis, but may also include autoimmune disorders such as Crohn's or Ulcerative Colitis.
51
What is Diverticulitis?
Weak area in the colon that creates 'pouches' over time. When fecal matter becomes trapped, it causes localized inflammation and pain.
## Footnote
Typically presents with left side pain, fever, nausea, malaise, and can lead to diarrhea or constipation, with constipation potentially causing bowel obstruction.
52
What are S/S of Esophageal Varices?
Associated with liver disease. HappMost people do not have symptoms until they rupture and bleed, making it a life-threatening emergency.
53
What is Cullen Sign?
Bruising around the umbilicus, indicating intraperitoneal hemorrhage.
## Footnote
Can be caused by compromised blood vessels near the pancreas.
54
What is Grey Turner Sign?
Bruising in the retroperitoneal area, seen in severe cases of pancreatitis. Happens when blood vessels rupture
55
What is Babinski Reflex?
A response in infants where the big toe extends upward and other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stroked.
56
What is Murphy’s Sign?
A clinical test indicating inflammation of the gallbladder, positive when tenderness is felt in the RUQ during inhalation.
57
What is McBurney’s Sign?
Tenderness at McBurney’s point in the abdomen (1/3 of the distance from the iliac crest to the umbilicus), key indicator of appendicitis.
58
What is Brudzinski Sign?
When the patient is supine, flexing the head towards the chest causes involuntary flexion of the knees, caused by meningeal irritation, indicating meningitis
59
What is Lloyd’s Sign?
Pain elicited by deep percussion in the back between the 12th rib and spine, indicating renal calculi or pyelonephritis.
60
What are the clinical signs of a brain abscess?
High temperature, headache, and nuchal rigidity, often mimicking meningitis.
61
What does AEIOU-TIPS stand for?
Alcohol/Acidosis, Endocrine/Epilepsy/Electrolytes, Infection/Insulin, Opiates/Other Drugs, Uremia/UTI, Trauma/Temp, Poisoning/Psych, Shock/Stroke.
62
What is Atrovent used for?
A bronchodilator for asthma or COPD.
63
What are S/S of Cardiac Ischemia?
Chest pain/discomfort, shortness of breath, palpitations, fatigue, neck/jaw/shoulder/arm pain.
64
What does H. Pylori cause?
Chronic gastroenteritis, presenting with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea/vomiting, and can lead to peptic ulcers.
65
What does Salmonella cause?
Acute gastroenteritis, presenting with diarrhea, abdominal cramps, fever, and nausea/vomiting.
66
What type of stroke wakes you up out of a dead sleep?
A type of ischemic stroke that occurs during sleep, that wakes you up
67
What are the types of renal failure?
Pre-Renal, Renal, Post-Renal.
68
What is Pre-Renal Failure?
Occurs due to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, often caused by volume depletion or low blood pressure.
69
What is Renal Failure?
Results from direct damage to the kidney tissue.
70
What is Post-Renal Failure?
Caused by a blockage in the urinary tract, preventing urine from draining from the kidneys.
71
What is another name for Absence Seizure?
Petit Mal Seizures.
72
What is the management for acute pancreatitis?
Includes pain relief, fluids, and sometimes surgery. NSAIDs and opioids are effective for mild cases.
73
What is the leading cause of death in kidney transplant patients?
Cardiovascular Disease.
74
BREAKFAST: What condition is treated with H2 receptor antagonists?
Conditions requiring reduced gastric acid secretion, such as ulcers and GI bleeding.
## Footnote
Examples include Famotidine (Pepcid) and Cimetidine (Tagamet).
75
What is a result of a serious sinus infection?
Orbital cellulitis.
76
What are expected findings in a patient with asthma on steroids?
Signs of hypoxia, increased work of breathing, respiratory distress.
77
What are the phases of generalized seizures?
Loss of consciousness, Tonic Phase, Hypertonic Phase, Clonic Phase, Postictal Phase.
78
What are S/S of an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?
Sudden, severe abdominal/back pain, pulsating near the navel, clammy skin, dizziness/syncope, elevated heart rate, low blood pressure.
79
What is the medical name for the area where the pancreatic duct and bile duct empty into the duodenum?
Ampulla of Vater.
80
What are S/S of liver disease?
Fatigue, jaundice, abdominal swelling, and changes in urine/stool color.
81
What are S/S of a gallbladder attack?
RUQ pain radiating to shoulder or back, nausea/vomiting, indigestion, fever/chills, tachycardia, low blood pressure.
82
What are S/S of acute pancreatitis?
Dull or severe steady pain in LUQ, can radiate to the back, nausea/vomiting, fever, tachycardia, hypotension, muscle spasms. Treatment includes pain meds and IV fluids.
83
What do Beta 2 agonist drugs do?
Cause bronchodilation, used in asthma/COPD.
84
What are the phases of seizures?
Aura Phase, Ictal Phase, Postictal Phase.
85
What are S/S of Alzheimer's?
Memory loss, difficulty problem solving, confusion with time/place, mood/personality changes.
86
What are S/S of Polio?
Viral infection causing weakness and paralysis, obtained via oral/fecal route.
87
What are S/S of Parkinson’s?
Tremors, postural instability, rigidity, bradykinesia. (MICHEAL J. FOX)
88
What medications are used for chronic respiratory issues?
Prednisone, Ipratropium Bromide, Betamethasone, Metaproterenol.
89
What are renal calculi?
Kidney stones.
Hard deposits made of mineral and salts that are formed in the kidneys, range in size, causes pain and potentially block that flow of urine
90
What is pyelonephritis?
Kidney infection.
Occurs when bacteria travel from the bladder up the urinary tract into the kidney
91
What are symptoms of DKA?
High blood sugar, frequent urination, excessive thirst, nausea/vomiting, kussmal respiration.
Polydipsia,polyphasia, polyuria
92
What are risk factors for GI disease?
Diet, lifestyle, family history, and certain medications, smoking, alcohol use, and stress.
93
Which causes of gastroenteritis are responsive to antibiotics?
H. Pylori (bacteria).
94
What is the percentage of men over 80 with BPH?
50%.
95
What does the word anaphylaxis mean?
Without protection or no protection.
96
What is the body's way of keeping alveoli functioning?
Hiccuping, sighing, burping, coughing
97
What is Crohn’s disease?
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that causes inflammation of the digestive tract. Autoimmune disease. Believed to be genetic.
98
What are the signs and symptoms of Crohn’s disease?
Signs and symptoms of Crohn’s disease can include abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, and fatigue, rectal bleeding, and arthritis.
99
What causes Esophageal Varices?
Liver damage that causes blood to back up into the portal vessels that surround the esophagus and stomach.
100
Cause of brain abscess
Your body/brain erects a “wall” around an infectious agent, trying to contain it
101
What is the aura phase?
The aura phase is a perceptual disturbance experienced by some individuals before a seizure
## Footnote
It can include visual disturbances, such as seeing flashes of light or zigzag patterns, tastes, smells, Orr strange sensations
102
What is the Ictal phase?
The Ictal phase refers to the period during a seizure when the symptoms are actively occurring.
103
What is the postictal phase?
The postictal phase is the recovery period following a seizure, can cause confusion, drowsiness, headache, memory impairment, and nausea. DONT SHINE LIGHT IN THE EYES!!! BAD!!!
104
What is acute pancreatitis?
Acute pancreatitis is a sudden inflammation of the pancreas when the pathway of enzymes become blocked and the pancreas begins to auto-digest itself.
105
What is the first structure of the gastrointestinal tract?
Mouth
106
Which structure follows the mouth in the GI tract?
Pharynx
107
What is the tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach?
Esophagus
108
What is the primary function of the stomach?
Digestion of food
109
What is the name of the valve that controls the entry of food from the esophagus to the stomach?
Lower esophageal sphincter
110
What are the main regions of the stomach?
Fundus, body, and pylorus
111
Which structure follows the stomach in the GI tract?
Small intestine
112
What are the three parts of the small intestine?
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
113
What is the primary function of the small intestine?
Nutrient absorption
114
What structure connects the small intestine to the large intestine?
Cecum
115
What is the first part of the large intestine?
Cecum
116
What are the main sections of the large intestine?
Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon
117
What is the last part of the gastrointestinal tract?
Rectum
118
What structure follows the rectum?
Anus
119
What is the role of the anus in the GI tract?
Regulates the expulsion of feces
120
What accessory organ produces bile for digestion?
Liver
121
What is the function of the gallbladder?
Stores and concentrates bile
122
Which organ is responsible for detoxifying chemicals and metabolizing drugs?
Liver
123
What is the function of the pancreas in the GI tract?
Produces digestive enzymes and bicarbonate
124
What is the structure that connects the pancreas to the duodenum?
Pancreatic duct
125
What is the role of the bile duct?
Carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the duodenum
126
What is the term for the rhythmic contractions that move food through the GI tract?
Peristalsis
127
What structure is responsible for the absorption of water and electrolytes?
Large intestine
128
What is the term for the mixture of food and digestive juices in the stomach?
Chyme
129
What is the primary function of the duodenum?
Initial digestion and mixing with bile and pancreatic juices
130
What are villi and where are they located?
Finger-like projections in the small intestine that increase surface area for absorption
131
What is the most life threatening cause of anaphylaxis?
Respiratory Failure d/t airway obstruction,from swelling in the throat and mouth, leading to respiratory and cardiac arrest if left untreated.
132
What is the recommended patient positioning for respiratory disorders?
Fowler’s position.
## Footnote
Fowler’s position helps improve breathing by allowing better lung expansion.
133
What is the recommended patient positioning for a hemorrhagic stroke?
Supine with head elevated 30 degrees.
## Footnote
This position helps reduce intracranial pressure.
134
What is the recommended patient positioning for an ischemic stroke?
Supine position.
135
BREAKFAST:
Called to a F vomiting for 3 days, B/P 92/42, HR 118, RR 28, partner thinks she is just having flu like symptoms and not a big deal, what should your transport decision be?
Rapid transport
136
Atelectasis
Alveoli death
137
What is Pitosis?
Pitosis is a condition characterized by the drooping or falling of the upper eyelid.
138
What is SLUDGEM?
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
Gi issues
Emesis
Miosis
139
What is Aqueous Humor?
Aqueous Humor is the clear fluid found in the front part of the eye.
140
What is Vitreous Humor?
Vitreous Humor is the gel-like substance that fills the space between the lens and the retina of the eye.
141
What are Universal precautions?
Universal precautions are a set of guidelines to prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens.
142
What are Standard precautions?
Standard precautions are infection control practices used to prevent the spread of diseases.
143
Scleral Icterus
Yellow of sclera (whites of eyes)
144
Tonic Phase
Systematic Rigidity
145
Hypertonic Phase
Arched back and rigidity
146
Clonic Phase
Intermittent contractions, of major muscle groups, (arms, legs, and head movements, lip smacking, biting, clenching, teeth) Contrations are chaotic disorganized and small amplitude.
VFIB of the brain.
147
Cushing’s Triad
Decreased Hr, High BP, wide pulse pressure, irregular RR
148
Ped ICP
Oval eyes & Cat cries
149
ARDS
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
150
Poiseuille Law
If the diameter of the tube decreases, resistance to flow increases
151
RAAS
Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System
(For blood pressure and fluid balance)
152
Disequilibrium Syndrome
Neurologic s/s attributed to cerebral edema, post dialysis
Caused by rapid urea removal during dialysis.
The body hares rapid changes!
153
Disequilibrium Syndrome
Neurologic s/s attributed to cerebral edema, post dialysis
