Week 5 Flashcards

(75 cards)

1
Q

2 general approaches in immunoassays?

A

measuring specific Ag in sample

look for Ab specific for Ag of interest as evidence that the ind has been exposed to specific Ag

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2
Q

antiserum?

A

serum collected from an animal that has been exposed to Ag and thus contains Ab against that Ag

produced by immunizing the animal with the Ag of interest and collecting the serum

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3
Q

anti-species Ab?

A

produced when Ab from one species is collected and injected into another

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4
Q

ELISA?

A
enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
indirect elisa is the most common:
- coat wells with Ag
- wash away unbound Ag
- add serum 
- Ig binds Ag - wash away unbound Ab 
- enzyme conjugate 
- wash way unbound AB 
- substrate/ chemogen solution for coloraturas change
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5
Q

sanwhich ELISA?

A

2 Ab go on either side of target Ag
both Ab bind to different epitopes of Ag
substrate specific to enzyme linked Ab is added so we get coloraturas and a positive test which forms in Ag in the sample

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6
Q

SAT?

A

serum agglutination test

agglutinating Ab present in sera which react with specific Ag to form visible clumps

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7
Q

hemagglutination?

A

can chemically couple any Ag to RBC to detect Abs to that Ab

if sufficient Ab present to agglutinate and form cross links with Ag then Ab:Ag complex forms a mat at the bottom of the well

if insufficient Ab present then the cells roll down sides of well and forms a pellet down the bottom

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8
Q

direct coombs test?

A

detects Ab and complement on the surface of RBC

addition of anti-human Ig Ab to washed fetal RBC - they will agglutinate if maternal Rh-Ab were already coated on fetal RBCs

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9
Q

indirect coombs test?

A

detects Ab in serum

materna sera incubated with Rh+ Abs present in the maternal serum; if they agglutinate then anti-human Ig Ab are present

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10
Q

what immunoassay is used for syphillis testing?

A

serum agglutination test

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11
Q

what is a common test for HIV? why?

A

western blotting

AB to various HIV proteins appear at different stages post infection

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12
Q

point of care tests?

A

rapid test for Ab and Ag detection; lower specificity

drop mixture on sample pad
mixture flows on the membrane
positive signal detected as a line

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13
Q

what are the different flow cytometry tests?

A

elispot assay: for quantifying cells and producing cytokines
lymphocyte proliferation assay: for memory function and transplant matching
target cell killing assay: for measuring cellular cytotoxicity
microarrays or DNA/RNA chips: for screening large number of genes or samples

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14
Q

what does flow cytometry tell us about a cell?

A

relative size

granularity or internal complexity

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15
Q

how does flow cytometry work?

A

take blood sample and mix it with Ab that recognizes the Ag in which we are interested in
tag it with fluorescent tag so when its passed through flow cut-meter all the molecules will be counted (eg, CD4)

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16
Q

screening rules for avg risk of BrCa?

A

mammogram every 2 years from age 50-74

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17
Q

higher risk screening rules of BrCa?

A

mammogram every 2 years from age 50-74 and breast awareness (self-examination)

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18
Q

screening rules for cervical cancer?

A

HPV tests every 5 years from the age of 25 or 2 years after first sexual intercourse
end between 70-74 y/o

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19
Q

avg risk screening rules for Bowel cancer?

A

FOBT every 2 years from 50-74

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20
Q

higher risk screening rules for bowel cancer?

A

FOBT every 2 years from age 35-44

colonoscopy from 45-74 every 5 years

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21
Q

screening rules for skin cancer?

A

avg risk= primary prevention
moderate risk= primary prevention and skin exam
higher risk= preventative advice, examination of skin and advice on self-exam

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22
Q

what are some factors that come into play for primary prevention?

A
tobacco
alcohol
diet
excercise/ obesity
radiation 
chronic infections 
occupational exposure
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23
Q

whats the problem with PSA testing?

A

increased PSA is not solely specific for cancer but their is no precise way to tell
so men that undergo tx may experience side effects but don’t necessarily have PrCa = over tx and over dx

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24
Q

what are some scenarios for increased PSA/

A
carcinoma
benign prostatic hypertrophy  
prostitis 
bike riding 
recent ejaculation
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25
what is incidence?
the number of new cases of disease in a population/ the risk of contracting the disease
26
what is prevalence?
the number of existing cases in a population/ how widespread the disease is
27
what is attributable risk?
the amount of risk that is attributable to exposure
28
what is absolute risk?
probability that a specified event will occur in a specified population
29
what is relative risk?
ratio of risk to those exposed to risk factor vs those not exposed
30
what is odds ratio?
measure of association of disease in those exposed and not exposed
31
what are the 2 viral oncoprotein expressed by HIV?
E6 - binds p53 E7 binds Rb gene leads to active cell proliferation and gene transcription
32
what is stroma made up of and functions?
non-neoplastic cells, CT and BV | provides growth and support for parenchyma
33
what are the 3 ways in which malignant neoplasms spread?
blood lymphatics seeding of body cavities
34
name for benign mesenchymal tissue?
-oma
35
name for benign epithelial tissue
adenoma | papilloma
36
malignant mesenchymal tissue?
sarcoma
37
malignant epithelial tissue?
carcinoma
38
seminoma?
carcinoma of testicualr germ cells
39
teratoma?
malignant neoplasm comprising a variety of parenchymal cell types
40
common functions of photo-oncogenes?
GF and GF-R signal transduction, cell cycle and apoptotic proteins nuclear transcription factors
41
common functions of TSG?
``` DNA damage repair protein degradation cell cycle regulation apoptosis cell adhesion cell signalling ```
42
which point in the cell cycle does the Rb protein act?
transition between G1-S
43
where are the alterations in the Rb1 gene in retinoblastoma?
Q arm of Chromosome 13
44
how do some viruses stimulate proliferation of hose cell:
insertion of strong promoter in the vicinity of a host ell proto-oncogene expression of proteins that neutralize host cell TSGs expression of proteins that prevent or delay apoptosis
45
what is a histogram in flow cytometer?
single parameter histogram | distribution of cells expressing a single measured parameter (size, granularity, fluorescent intensity)
46
what is a 2D dot plot in flow cytometry?
provides more info than the histogram | 2 parameters can be displayed simultaneously in a plot (eg, IgM ad IgG)
47
what is pleomorphism?
``` present in malignant tumours - variability in size and group: large cells hyperchromic nuclei and multinucleated cells growing in disorganized pattern frequent and abnormal mitosis increased nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio ```
48
function of elispot assay?
quantifying cells producing cytokines
49
function of lymphocyte proliferation assay?
for memory function and transplant matching
50
function of target cell killing assays?
for measuring cellular cytotoxicity (eg level of function in phagocytes)
51
function of microarrays for DNA/ RNA chips?
for screening large numbers of genes or samples
52
benign stratified squamous cell?
squamous cell papilloma
53
malignant stratified squamous cell?
squamous cell carcinoma
54
benign lung?
bronchial adenoma
55
malignant lung?
bronchogenic carcinoma
56
benign kidney?
renal tubular adenoma
57
malignant kidney?
renal cell carcinoma
58
malignant liver?
hepatocellular carcinoma
59
benign liver?
liver cell adenoma
60
malignant bladdER?
urothelial carcinoma
61
benign bladder?
urothelial papilloma
62
benign and malignant bone?
osteoma | osteogenic sarcoma
63
benign blood vessel?
hemangioma
64
malignant blood vessel?
angiosarcoma
65
benign lymph vessel?
lymphangioma
66
malignant lymph vessel?
lymphangiosarcoma
67
malignant hematopoietic cells?
leukemia
68
malignant lymphoid tissue?
lymphoma
69
benign and malignant smooth muscle?
leiomyoma | leiomyosarcoma
70
benign and malignant striated muscle?
rhabdomyoma | rhabdomyosarcoma
71
histology of retinoblastoma?
small round blue tumour (basophilic) more viable cells = closer to BV core pink fuzzy cells = necrotic, they rapidly outgrow blood supply
72
functions of cyclin dependant kinases?
drive progression through phases of the cell cycle by phosphorylating and activating downstream kinases
73
function of cyclins?
activating subunits what work with CDKs | specific cyclins for different parts of the cell cycle
74
example of carcinoma in situ?
chronic smokers show dysplasia in airways | ductal carcinoma in situ
75
What types of mutational events are commonly associated with proto-oncogenes?
overexpression overamplification point mutation translocation