Week 6 Flashcards

Derm Drugs (69 cards)

1
Q

Which drug class/drugs INTERFERES WITH ERGOSTEROL SYNTHESIS to INHIBIT CELL MEMBRANE FORMATION?

A

Azole(s)

Fluconazole (Diflucan)
Itraconzole
Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
Clotrimazole
Miconazole
Voriconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do azoles (fluconazole, itraconzole, ketoconazole, clotrimazole, miconazole, and voriconazole) treat?

A

Fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are adverse effects of azoles (fluconazole, itraconzole, ketoconazole, clotrimazole, miconazole, and voriconazole)?

A

Common: headaches, GI upset

Rare/serious: HEPATOTOXICITY, prolonged QT, SJS/TEN/DRESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which topical azole is most commonly used to treat seborrheic dermatitis (dandruff) and tinea versicolor?

A

Ketoconazole (topical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which azole is most commonly used to treat dermatological yeast infections?

A

Fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which 2 azoles are usually reserved for more serious infections?

A

Itraconazole and Voriconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which anti fungal drugs is a synthetic allylamine derived that INHIBITS SQUALENE EPOXIDASE which results in DEFICIENCY OF ERGOSTEROL WITHIN CELL WALL MEMBRANE?

A

Terbinafine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does terbinafine treat?

A

Fungal Infection
Oral or topical
LIVER FUNCTION TEST MONITORING FOR ORAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are adverse effects of terbinafine?

A

Common: TASTE/SMELL DISTURBANCES, headaches, GI upset

Rare/serious: HEPATOTOXICITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which drug is an echinocandin that inhibits beta gluon synthesis (cell wall material)?

A

Capsofungin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Capsofungin treat?

A

Candida and invasive aspergillosis

IV only
USUALLY LAST LINE THERAPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some adverse effects of Capsofungin?

A

Common: peripheral edema, tachycardia, HTN, GI (n/v/d)

Rare/serious: HEPATOTOXICITY, infusion reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which antifungal inhibits fungal cell mitosis at metaphase (mitotic spindle)?

A

Griseofulvin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does Griseofulvin treat?

A

Tinea infections (commonly used in tinea capitis)

Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some adverse effects of griseofulvin?

A

Common: headache

Rare/serious: HEPATOTOXICITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which drugs are polyenes that form pores in fungal cell membranes?

A

Nystatin and Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does Nystatin treat?

A

Thrush and skin yeast infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does amphotericin B treat?

A

Systemic fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some adverse effects of Nystatin?

A

Minimal adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some adverse effects of Amphotericin B?

A

Rare/serious: NEPHROTOXIC, infusion reactions

Liposomal formulation is less nephrotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which drug is a selective HEDGEHOG PATHWAY INHIBITOR where it binds to and INHIBITS SMOOTHENED HOMOLOG (SMO), a transmembrane protein involved in hedgehog signal transduction?

A

Vismodegib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does Vismodegib treat?

A

Basal cell carcinoma that has metastasized, Gorlin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are adverse effects of Vismodegib?

A

Common: alopecia, amenorrhea, weight loss, taste changes, constipation, GI, arthralgia, fatigue

Rare/serious: EMBRYO-FETAL TOXICITY, SEVERE DERMATOLOGIC REACTIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which drug is a pyrimidine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis to prevent cell proliferation of fast growing cells?

A

5-Fluorouracil (topical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What does 5-Fluorouracil (topical) treat?
Actinic keratosis USED WHEN MULTIPLE LESIONS PRESENT
26
What are adverse effects of 5-Fluorouracil (topical)?
Common: skin irritation, photosensitivity
27
Which drug is a monoclonal IgG4 antibody that inhibits IL4 and IL13?
Dupilumab (Dupixent)
28
What does Dupilumab (Dupixent) treat?
Atopic Dermatitis
29
What are some adverse effects of Dupilumab (Dupixent)?
Common: injection site reaction, upper respiratory infection Rare/serious: OCULAR EFFECTS Can get neutralizing antibodies over time
30
Which drugs inhibit JAK (Janus Kinase enzymes), which regulate gene expression and cellular activity?
Tofacitinib (Xeljanz) Upadacitinib (Rinvoq) Abrocitinib (Cibinqo)
31
What does Tofacitinib, Upadacitinib, and Abrocitinib treat?
Atopic dermatitis Rheumatoid arthritis Topical formulations available (ruxolitinib)
32
What are the adverse effects of Tofacitinib, Upadacitinib, and Abrocitinib?
Common: hyperlipidemia, nasopharyngitis, GI Rare/serious: BONE MARROW SUPPRESSION Boxed warnings: CARDIOVASCULAR EVENTS, THROMBOSIS, SERIOUS INFECTION (IE. TB), MALIGNANCIES Lipid monitoring Hepatic and renal dose adjustments Some drug interactions that require dose adjustments especially in renal insufficiency
33
Which drugs selectively binds IL17a cytokine to block IL17 activity?
Secukinumab (Cosentyx) Ixekizumab (Taltz)
34
What does Secukinumab and Ixekizumab treat?
Psoriatic arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis
35
What are the adverse effects of Secukinumab and Ixekizumab?
Common: infection, nasopharyngitis Serious dermatologic reactions TEST FOR TB BEFORE STARTING CAN FLARE INFLAMMATORY BOWEL DISEASE
36
Which drugs are monoclonal antibodies to IL23?
Guselkumab (Tremfya) Risankizumab (Skyrizi) Ustekinumab (Stelara)
37
What does Guselkumab, Risankizumab, and Ustekinumab treat?
Psoriatic arthritis Plaque psoriasis Inflammatory bowel disease
38
What are the adverse effects of Guselkumab, Risankizumab, and Ustekinumab?
Infection, upper respiratory tract injection TEST FOR TB BEFORE STARTING
39
What sunscreens physically reflect UV rays?
Zinc Oxide and Titanium dioxide
40
Which sunscreens are chemical UV protection by absorbing UV rays?
Benzenes
41
What is the SPF recommendation for sunscreen?
To provide adequate sun protection a minimum of SPF 30 is recommended. Minimal additional benefit for SPF over 50.
42
What is an adverse effect of sunscreen?
Hypersensitivity
43
Which is an antibiotic that prevents skin inflammation and prevents utilization of PABA in bacteria to inhibit folic acid synthesis?
Dapsone
44
What does Dapsone treat?
Acne vulgaris Dermatitis herpetiformis
45
What are the adverse effects of Dapsone?
Common: GI Rare/serious: hepatotoxicity, hemolytic anemia, delayed hypersensitivity reaction Avoid use in G6PD deficiency Oral for dermatitis herpetiformis
46
Which drug is a topical vitamin D analog that binds to vitamin D receptors to inhibit keratinocyte proliferation and enhances keratinocyte differentation?
Calciptotriene
47
What does Calcipotriene treat?
Psoriasis
48
What are some adverse effects of Calcipotriene?
Common: derm reactions (burning, itching, rash)
49
Which drug is an immunomodulator that acts as an agonist of Toll-like receptor 7 to activate immune cells?
Imiquimod
50
What does Imiquimod treat?
Genital warts Actinic keratosis Topical only
51
What are adverse effects of Imiquimod?
Local inflammatory reactions (blisters, redness, burning sensation)
52
Which drug is an antibody against CD20 antigen on the surface of B cells to cause B cell apoptosis?
Rituximab
53
What does Rituximab treat?
Pemphigus vulgaris RA, lupus, scleroderma (Leukemias/ lymphomas, ITPAPS) IV only
54
What are some adverse effects of Rituximab?
Common: Infusion reactions, flushing, HTN, edema, bone marrow suppression Rare/serious: infections, PML Obtain all vaccines before starting treatment SCREEN FOR TB AND HEP B BEFORE STARTING
55
Which drug is a retinoid acid derivative (Vitamin A derivative) that reduces sebaceous gland size and sebum production?
Isotretinoin
56
What does Isotretinoin treat?
Acne
57
What are some adverse effects of Isotretinoin?
Common: dry skin, chapped lips (cheilitis), photosensitivity Rare/serious: pancreatitis, INCREASED TRIGLYCERIDES, INCREASED LFTS, rhabdomyolysis, ocular effects, psych effects, pseudotumor cerebri iPledge REMS program (pregnancy testing) TERATOGENIC (Craniofacial, CNS, cardiac, and thymic defects)
58
Which drug is a RETINOID LIKE compound that modulates cell differentiation, keratinization, and inflammatory processes?
Adapalene
59
What does Adapalene treat?
Acne Topical OTC
60
What are some adverse effects of Adapalene?
Common: hypersensitivity (burning, redness, itching), dryness
61
Which drug is a VITAMIN A DERIVATIVE to modify epithelial growth and differentiation?
Tretinoin (Retin-A)
62
What does Tretinoin treat?
Acne Topical
63
What are some adverse effects of Tretinoin?
Common: hypersensitivity (burning, redness, itching), dryness, hyperpigmentation
64
Which antibiotic INHIBITS PROTEIN SYNTHESIS by BINDING with the 30S and possibly the 50S RIBOSOMAL subunit(s) of susceptible bacteria (BACTERIOSTATIC)?
Doxycycline
65
What does Doxycycline treat?
Acne Rosacea Periorificial dermatitis Folliculitis
66
What are some adverse effects of Doxycycline?
Common: GI upset (abdominal pain, nausea, emesis, photosensitivity, discoloration of teeth and inhibition of bone growth in children Rare/serious: DRESS, pseudotumor cerebri Contraindicated in pregnancy Do not take tetracyclines with milk (Ca2+), antacids (eg, Ca2+ or Mg2+), or iron-containing preparations because divalent cations inhibit drugs’ absorption in the gut
67
Which antibiotic binds to bacterial isoleucyl transfer-RNA synthetase resulting in the inhibition of protein synthesis?
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
68
What does Mupirocin treat?
Impetigo Staph decolonization Topical only
69
What are some adverse effects of Mupirocin?
Well-tolerated