Week 6 Flashcards

(145 cards)

1
Q

What is MTC vertical transmission of HIV1?

A

Pathogenesis: vertical transmission of HIV via birth

Presentation: oral thrush, interstitial pneumonia, and severe lymphopenia during first year of life

Tx: triple combo therapy (2NRTIs + Protease inhibitor or NNRTI or Integrase inhibitor); ART should be continued as long as women are breastfeeding; infants generally receive several weeks of prophylaxis (zidovudine)

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2
Q

What is lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

Causative agent: chlamydia trachomatis

A-C serotype: ocular infection (trachoma) in children

D-K: urogenital STI and inclusion conjunctivitis

L1-L3: lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

Presentation: initial lesion is painless; Small and shallow ulcers. Large, painful, coalesced inguinal lymph nodes (“buboes”)

Histology: mixed granulomatous and neutrophilic inflammation with intracytoplasmic chlamydial inclusion bodies in epithelial cells and leukocytes

Complications: fibrosis, lymphatic obstruction, and anogenital strictures and fistulas

Tx: doxycycline

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3
Q

What is aortic stenosis?

A

Pathogenesis: calcific degeneration of aortic valve; most common cause of valvular AS in developed nations; congenital HD such as bicuspid aortic valve; rheumatic valve disease in developing nations (fusion of valve commissure due to repetitive inflammation)

Histology: valve leaflet thickening and calcification

Presentation: fatigue, progressiev dyspnea, presyncope with exertion, and a cardiac murmur; harsh ejection type murmur heard at R 2ICS with radiation to carotid arteries; diminished S2 and notable S4 due to decreased compliance of hypertrophic myocardium

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4
Q

What is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Pathogenesis: decrease in ADAMTS13 –>uncleaved vWF multimers –>platelet trapping and activation; acquired (autoantibody) or hereditary; uncleaved vWF multimers are prothrombotic and result in diffuse microvascular thrombosis; RBCs are sheared by platelet rich-thrombi

Presenation: classic pentad - neurologic symptoms (progressive lethargy), hemolytic anemia with schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury, fever in setting of GI illness

Histology: schistocytes

Labs: increased bleeding time (due to low platelets), normal PT and PTT

Mgmt: plasma exchange, glucocorticoids, rituximab

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5
Q

What are the effects of alpha adrenergic agonists?

A

Alpha 1: vascular smooth muscle contraction, mydriasis, increase internal urethral sphincter tone and prostate contraction

Admin of selective alpha1 adrenergic agonists causes increase in systolic and diastolic blood pressure, vasoconstriction, and a reflexive decrease in HR (slowed AV node conduction) and decrease in myocardial contractility

Alpha 2: CNS-mediated decrease in blood pressure, decrease in intraocular pressure (reduce aqueous humor production), decrease in lipolysis, decrease in presynaptic NE release, increase in platelet aggregation

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6
Q

What does the partial pressure of O2 (PaO2) represent?

A

The amount of O2 dissolved in plasma.

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7
Q

What is a pheochromocytoma?

A

Pathogenesis: tumor of chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla; leads to excess production of catecholamines (NE, E, and D); 25% inherited (VHL, RET, NF1 gene)

Presentation: severe HTN/Pressure (BP), episodic Pain (HA), Perspiration, Palpitations (tachycardia), Pallor

Increased vascular tone and HTN; episodic HA, diaphoresis, and palpitations; Rule of 10s (10% bilateral, extra-adrenal [paragangliomas]); symptoms are often episodic in nature due to fluctuations in catecholamine synthesis by the tumor

Histology: highly vascular tumor w/ nests of spindle-shaped or polygonal cells; stain positive for chromogranin, neuron-specific enolase, synaptophysin

EM: dense membrane-bound granules containing catecholamines

Dx: elevated levels of urinary and plasma catecholamines and metanephrines (catecholamine breakdown products)

Tx: phenoxybenzamine followed by Beta blockers prior to tumor resection; alpha blockade must be given before beta blockers to avoid hypertensive crisis (A before B)

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8
Q

What is acute allergic contact dermatitis?

A

A form of eczema.

Pathogenesis: type 4 (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction to antigen on skin surface; environmental factors (foods, irritants); mutations in filaggrin resulting in impairment of skin’s barrier function; associated w/ allergic rhinitis and asthma

Presentation: present by 5yo w/ many sx in 1st year of life, erythematous, papulovesicular, weeping lesions; w/ chronic exposure, lesions become less edematous, w/ thickening of the stratum spinosum (acanthosis) and stratum corneum (hyperkeratosis) –> produce raised, scaly plaques; lichenification in older children in a flexural distribution (neck, wrists, antecubital and popliteal fossae);

Histology: spongiosis, an accumulation of edema fluid in intercellular spaces of the epidermis; intercellular bridges become more distinctive in edematous background and the epidermis becomes “spongy

Serology: high serum levels of IgE, peripheral eosinophilia, high levels of cAMP PDE in leukocytes

Dx: intense pruritis, hallmark

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9
Q

What is brown adipose tissue?

A

It comprises 5% of body mass in neonates. Main function is heat production, which is necessary for neonatal survival.

They contain several intracytoplasmic fat droplets and many more mitochondria than white adipose cells. They function to produce heat by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylaton w/ the protein thermogenin, an uncoupling protein. Thus, no ATP is synthesized and the energy released by electron transport dissipates as heat.

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10
Q

What is Famililal chylomicronemia syndrome (Type I)?

A

Pathogenesis: defective lipoprotein lipase, ApoC-II;

LPL normally bound to heparan sulfate on vasc endotheliium allowing it to interact with chylomicrons and VLDL in circulation and release FFA into adjacent tissues; heparin admin releases these endothelium-bound lipases allowing LPL activity to be measured in lab; w/o sufficient LPL activity body is unable to clear dietary lipid loads due to defective hydyrolysis of serum TGs (especially chylomicrons)

Presentation: childhood, recurrent episodes of acute pancreatitis, lipemia retinalis (milky-appearing retinal vasculature), eruptive xanthomas (small yellowish papules surrounded by erythema found mainly on extensor surfaces), hepatosplenomegaly

Elevated: chylomicrons

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11
Q

What is Familial Hypercholesterolemia (Type IIA)?

A

Pathogenesis: defective LDL receptor and ApoB100

Presentation: premature coronary artery disease, corneal arcus, tendon xanthomas, xanthelasmas

Elevated: LDLs

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12
Q

What is Familial Hypertriglyceridemia (Type 4)?

A

Pathogenesis: defective ApoA5; hepatic overproduction of VLDL

Presentation: increased pancreatitis risk, associated w/ obesity and insulin resistance

Labs: hypertriglycerideia (>1000 mg/dl)

Elevated: VLDL and TG

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13
Q

What is aortic aneurysm?

A

Pathogenesis: several risk factors (age >60yo, smoking, HTN, male sex, family hx) lead to oxidative stress, vascular smooth muscle apoptosis, and chronic transmural inflammation of the aorta; inflammatory cells (macs) release matrix metalloproteinases and elastase that degrade extracellular matrix proteins (elastin, collagen) leading to weakening and progressive expansion of aortic wall

Presentation: palpable pulsatile abdominal mass; most often infrarenal

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14
Q

What is equilibrium potential?

A

Equilibrium potentials of cellular ions reflect how they affect the memrane potential if the membrane were permeable solely for that ion.

[Negative membrane potential: the membrane is permeable to an ion with a negative equilibrium potential.]

The more permeable the membrane becomes for a cellular ion, the more that ion’s equilibrium potential contributes to that total membrane potential.

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15
Q

What are the effects of corticosteroids?

A

Increases appetite, increases blood pressure

CNS: hypomania, psychosis, sleep disturbance

Respiratory: increased surfactant production

GI: peptic ulcer, GI bleed (decreased prostaglandins)

Endocrine: HPA axis suppression, hyperglycemia, hypogonadism, osteoporosis (decreased bone formation, decreased Ca/P absorption)

Skin/MSK: central obesity, buffalo hump, skin atrophy, bruisability (decreased collagen and fibroblasts), proximal muscle weakness

Immune: Neutrophilia (neutrophil demargination of those previously attached to vessel wall), decreased lymphocytes, monocytes, basophils, eosinophils; increased risk of infection

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16
Q

What is derived from the neural crest?

A

Melanocytes

Myenteric (Auerbach) plexus

Odontoblasts

Endocardial cushions, Spiral membrane (aorticopulmonary septum)

Laryngeal cartilage, Parafollicular cells

Andrenal medulla and all ganglia

PNS (dorsal root ganglia, cranial nerves, autonomic ganglia), Schwann cells

Bones of skull, Pia and arachnoid

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17
Q

What is anal cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

Pathogenesis: HPV 16 and 18

Presentation: pain, itching, and rectal bleeding, visible ulcerative mass (anal cancer are ulcerative in >50% of cases)

Risk factors: immunodeficient states (AIDS) increase host susceptibility to HPV infection and more servere infection; MSM

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18
Q

What are the complications of an MI 2w to several months later?

A

Dressler syndrome (secondary form of pericarditis), HF, arrythmias, true ventricular aneurysm (risk of mural thrombus, rarely ruptures)

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19
Q

What are the complications of an MI 1-3d later?

A

Postinfarction fibrinous necrosis.

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20
Q

What is filgrastim?

A

A granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) analog.

MOA: stimulates proliferation and differentiation of granulocytes in patients w/ neutropenia

Indication: post chemotherapy

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21
Q

What is retinoblastoma?

A

The most common ocular tumor of childhood.

Pathogenesis: 60% sporadic (usually unilateral), 40% familial (often, but not always, bilateral); germline mutation in Rb, chromosome 13; two hit hypothesis - second somatic mutation (ocuring in the retinal cells only); sporadic retinoblatomas occur due to two aquired somatic mutations affecting only the retinal cell lineage

Presentation: white pupillary reflex (leukocoria) in children <5yo

Complications: increased risk for osteosarcoma in the familal type

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22
Q

What is carnitine deficiency?

A

Pathogenesis: defect in protein responsible for carnitine transport across mitochondrial membrane; w/o sufficient carnitine, fatty acids cannot be transported from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria as acyl-carnitine (carnitine shuttle), mito therefore cannot beta oxidize fatty acids into acetyl coA, the substrate for the TCA cycle; cardiac and skeletal muscles cannot generate ATP from fatty acids and liver is unable to synthesize ketone bodies when glucose levels are low

Presentation: muscle weakness, cardiomyopathy, hypoketotic hypoglycemia, elevated muscle triglycerides

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23
Q

What is stable angina?

A

Pathogenesis: secondary to atheromatous obstruction of one or more coronary arteries with greater than 75% occlusion, no thrombus

Presentation: deep, poorly localized chest or arm discomfort (angina); reproducibly associated w/ physical exertion or emotional stress; relieved w/in 5 minutes by rest and/or sublingual nitroglycerin

Risk factors: HTN and smoking

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24
Q

What is atypical depression?

A

Characterized by mood reactivity, leaden paralysis (patient’s arms and legs feel extremely heavy), rejection sensitivity (overly sensitive to slight criticism), and the reversed vegetative signs of increased sleep and appetite.

Main distinguishing characteristic: mood reactivity (i.e., feeling better in response to positive events)

Tx: MAO inhibitor

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25
What happens in a CN 3 palsy?
1. Pathogenesis: compressive aneursym arising from junction of ipsilateral **posterior communicationg artery** w/ **internal** **carotid** **artery**; **periphery** of nerve has **autonomic** function (**visceral** efferent fibers) that mediate pupillary light and near-reflex pathways Presentation: **dilated** pupil, diminished or absent pupillary light reflex/loss of accommodation, **"blown pupil"**, "down and out gaze" (**ptosis and diplopia**) **_later_** on; 2. Pathogenesis: **ischemia**, uncal herniation, **posterior cerebral artery aneurysm**, **vascular disease** (DM/ diabetic ophthalmoplegia); Interior portion of nerve has **somatic** efferent fibers that innervate CN3 controlled **muscles** of the eye Presentation: normal sized, reactive pupil, **down and out pupil**, **ptosis**
26
What is IgA protease?
It is produced by N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhoeae, S. pneumoniae, and H. influenza. The enzyme **cleaves** secretory IgA at its **_hinge region_**, rendering it ineffective. This facilitates **bacterial adherence to mucosa**. Secretory IgA exists on **mucosal** surfaces and in secretions and acts to bind and inhibit the action of pili as well as other surface antigens that normally mediate mucosal adherence and subsequent penetration.
27
What is invasive breast carcinoma?
Presentation: irregulary shaped adherent breast mass; **upper** **outer** quadrants of the breast are the most common site of breast cancer; overlying skin retractions (e.g., dimpling) signal involvement of **suspensory ligaments** of the breast (e.g., **Cooper ligament**); malignant infiltration of these ligaments causes **fibrosis** and **shortening**, leading to **traction** on the skin w/ distortion in breast contour **Inflammatory breast carcinoma**: direct invasion of dermis; skin changes w/ erythema, and invasion of **lymphatic** spaces w/ malignant cells leads to **lymphedema** w/ finely pitted appearance known as **peau d'orange**
28
What are the specific features of cardiac circulation?
1. **The LV is perfused only during diastole**: contraction during systole leads to compression of coronary vessels and disruption of blood flow; wall tension highest near endocardium making **subendocardial** region prone to ischemia 2. **Myocardial O2 extraction is very high:** extracts 60-75% of O2 from blood; as a result, cardiac venous blood in **coronary sinus** (before reaching LA and mixing w/ blood returning from systemic circulation) is the **most** **deoxygenated** **blood** in the **body** 3. **Myocardial O2 demand and coronary blood flow are tightly coupled**: little capacity to increase myocardial O2 extraction during periods of increase O2 demand b/c it is already high at rest, so the only way to increase O2 delivery to heart is to increase coronary blood flow (adenosine and nitric oxide are important vasodilators responsible for increasing coronary blood flow)
29
What are the branchial/pharyngeal **pouch** derivatives?
1. middle **ear** cavity, eustachian tube, mastoid air cells 2. epithelial lining of palatine **tonsil** 3. dorsal wings: left and right **inferior parathyroids**; ventral wings: **thymus** 4. dorsal wings: **superior parathyroids**; ventral wings: ultimobranchial body, parafollicular cells of thyroid [Ear tonsil bottom to top]
30
What is the derivative of genital tubercle, etc in female?
Genital tubercle: glans clitoris, vestibular **bulbs** Urogenital **sinus**: greater vestibular **glands** (of **Bartholin**), urethral and paraurethral **glands** (of **Skene**) Urogenital folds: labia minora Labioscrotal **swelling**: labia **majora**
31
What are the derivates of genital tubercle, etc in male?
Genital tubercle: glans penis, corpus **cavernosum** ad **spongiosum** Urogenital sinus: bulbourethral **glands** (of **Cowper**), **prostate** gland Urogential folds: ventral **shaft** of penis (**penile** **urethra**) Labioscrotal swelling: **scrotum**
32
What are the developmental milestones for an infant (0-12mo)?
**Parents Start Observing** **Primitive** reflexes disappear; **Posture** - lifts head up prone, rolls and sits, crawls, stands, walks; **Picks** - passes toys hand to hand, **Pincer** grasp; **Points** to objects **Social** smile, **stranger** anxiety, **separation** anxiety **Orients** - first to **voice**, then to **name** and gestures; **Object** permanence; **Oratory** - says "mama" and "dada"
33
What are developmental milestones for children aged 3-5y?
**Don't Forget, they're still Learning!** **Drive**-tricyle (3 wheels at 3y; **gross** **motor**); **Drawings** - copies lines or circle (**fine** **motor**), stick figure; **Dexterity** - **hops** on one foot, uses buttons or zippers, grooms self **Freedom** - comfortably spends part of day away from mother; **Friends** - play in **parallel** but **not** **cooperatively** w/ others, has **imaginary** friends Language - **1000** words by age 3 (3 zeros), uses complete sentences and prepositions; Legends: can tell **detailed** stories; can **describe** their age and gender
34
What is status epilepticus?
Pathogenesis: structural **brain** **injury** (e.g., stroke, tumor, head trauma), infection, metabolic abnormalities (e.g., hypoglycemia) and medication noncompliance in individuals w/ known epilsepy Presentation: A single seizure lasting greater than 5 minutes or the occurrence of multiple discrete seizures with **incomplete** **recovery** of **consciousness** **between** **episodes**. Tx: **IV lorazepam** and **phenytoin** given concurrently to prevent **recurrence** of seizure activity Phenytoin: long acting anticonvulsant that inhibits neuronal high-frequency firing by reducing the ability of Na channels to recover from inactivation
35
What is an atrial septal defect?
Pathogenesis: Defect in interatrial septum; **ostium secundum** defects most common and usually an isolated finding Presentation: wide, fixed splitting of S2, may lead to **paradoxical** **emboli** (systemic venous emboli use ASD to bypass lungs and become systemic arterial emboli); hemoydnamically significant ASD can produce chronic **pulmonary** **HTN** as a result of left to right shunting Eisenmenger syndrome is the late-onset reversal of left to right shunt due to pulmonary vascular sclerosis resulting from chronic pulmonary HTN. Closure of ASD required to prevent **irreversible** **pulmonary** **vascular** **sclerosis** and a **permanent** **Eisenmenger** syndrome.
36
What is Reye syndrome?
Pathogenesis: aspirin administered to child w/ febrile illness (URI infection, influenza, measles, varicella or another **viral** disease); inborne metabolic error that renders children sensitive to toxic effects of salicylates Presentation: **hepatic failure** (vomiting, hepatomegaly); **encephalopathy** due to hepatic dysfunction and toxic effect of **hyperammonia** on CNS leading to **cerebral edema** Histology: liver - **microvesicular steatosis** (small fat **vacuoles** in cytoplasm); **no necrosis or inflammation**; **swelling**, **decreased** number of **mitochondria** and **glycogen** **depletion**
37
What is allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?
Pathogenesis: causative organism - aspergillus fumigatus, causes significant infection in immunocompromised or debilitated patients; colonized the bronchial mucosa Presentation: pts w/ **asthma** or **CF** develop an allergic hypersensitivity reaction to the fungus; intense airway inflammation and mucus plugging w/ exaceration and remissions; repeated exaceration may produce transient **pulmonary** **infiltrates** and proximal **bronchiectasis** Dx and Labs: high serum **IgE levels**, **eosinophilia**, and **IgE plus IgG serum** antibodies to Aspergillus
38
What is Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?
Pathogenesis: tears occur secondary to rapid increase of **intraabdominal** and **intraluminal** **gastric** **pressure**, during retching and vomiting Presentation: alcoholics; asymptomatic or can lead to GI hemorrhage that manifests as hematemesis Risk factors: hiatal hernias Histology: longitudinal mucosal tears at esophagogastric-squamocolumnar junction
39
What is a patella fracture?
Pathogenesis: commonly due to a direct blow to anterior aspect of the knee (e.g., fall, motor vehicle accident); indirectly - excessive force transmitted throiugh quadriceps tendon (e.g., landing on feet after falling from a height) Presentation: acute swelling, tenderness, **inability to extend** knee against gravity, **palpable** **gap** in the extensor mechanism; pts w/ intact medial and lateral retinaculum may have partially spared knee extension
40
What are the types of exocrine glands?
****_Holo_**crine**: cell **lysis** releases entire contents of the cytoplasm and cell membrane; ex: **sebaceous** glands, **meibomian** glands of the eyelid **Merocrine**: cells secrete **_watery_** secretory product via exocytosis w/ **no loss of cell membrane** (mero maintains membrane); ex: **salivary** glands, **eccrine** **sweat** glands, **aprocrine** **sweat** glands **Apocrine**: cells secrete **_secetory_** product via **_membrane-bound_** vesicles; **mammary** glands
41
What is acne vulgaris?
Pathogenesis: Keratinization of hair follicle w/ formation of keratin plug that blocks release of sebum, hypertrophy of sebaceous glands w/ excess sebum production, colonization of glands w/ **propionibacterium** acnes, bacterial hydrolysis of triglycerides in sebum and release of **inflammatory** **fatty** **acids**
42
What is myocardial hibernation?
Presence of LV systolic dysfunction due to reduced coronary blood flow at rest that is partially or completely **reversible** by coronary **revascularization**. A state of **chronic myocardial ischemia** in which both myocardial metabolism and functioni are **reduced** to match a concomitant reduction in coronary blood flow (due to moderate/severe flow-limiting stenosis) New equilibriuim **prevents myocardial necrosis**. Demonstrates decreased expression and disorganization of contractile and cytoskeletal proteins, altered adrenergic control, and reduced Ca2+ responsiveness. Coronary **revascularization** and subsequent **restoration** of blood flow to hibernation myocardium improves **contractility** and **LV function**.
43
What is lithium toxicity?
Etiology: overdose, volume depletion (decreased GFR), drug interactions (thiazide diuretics, NSAIDs (not aspirin), ACE inhibitors, tetracyclines, metronidazole Presentation: **acute** **toxicity** (GI - N/v/d, late neurologic sequelae); **chronic** **toxicity** (neurologic): confusion, agitation, ataxia, **tremors**/**fasciculations** Mgmt: hemodialysis for severe cases
44
What is acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
The most common pediatric malignancy. Pathogenesis: neoplastic cells of ALL arise from lymphocytic precursors of the pre-B or pre-T lineage (**blast** cells) Presentation: fever, fatigue, **pallor**, **petechiae**, bleeding; spread can cause **lymphadenopathy**, **hepatosplenomegaly**, and **bone** **pain** Presentation of T cell ALL: male in late childhood/young adulthood; large anterior **mediastinal** **mass** that can compress the great vessels, causing SVC syndrome; compression of esophagus causing **dysphagia**; compression of trachea causing **dyspnea** and **stridor** Markers: T cell (**TdT**, CD2-8), B cell (**TdT**, **CD10**, **19**, **20**) Blood smear: **blast** cells
45
What is primary central nervous system lymphoma?
Second most common cause of **ring**-**enhancing** lesions w/ mass effect in HIV. Pathogenesis: diffuse, large cell non-hodgkin lymphoma of **B cell origin** that usually occurs as a late complication of HIV infection; **EBV** is identified in almost all cases Presentation: pt w/ HIV and mutliple **ring**-**enhancing** lesions being treated empirically for toxoplasmosis, lack of clinical or imaging response after 1-3w of therapy; **negative** Toxo serology Histology: classically, large, solitary lesions; T cell infiltration **_not seen_** Dx: positive EBV pcr analysis in CSF; definitive dx requires **brain** **biopsy**
46
What are EPO stimulating agents?
**Erythropoietin**, **darbepoetin** **alpha**; can be used to treat anemia of chronic kidney disease Improve anemia, avoiding the need for blood transfusions in CKD and dialysis patients SEs: associated w/ increased risk for **thromboembolic** **events** (e.g., vascular graft **thrombosis**, **stroke**) due to increased blood **viscosity**, as a result of the elevation in red cell mass; **hypertension** due to activation of EPO receptors on **vascular** **endothelial** and **smooth** **muscle** **cells**
47
What are the gluconeogenic amino acids?
Alanine Methionine Histadine Valine [**Alan** **met** **his** **val**entine.]
48
What is pure red cell aplasia?
A rare form of **marrow** **failure** characterized by severe hypoplasia of marrow erythroid elements in the setting of **normal** granulopoiesis and thrombopoiesis. Pathogenesis: inhibitioni of erythropoietic precursors and progenitors by **IgG** **autoantibodies** or **cytotoxic T lymphocytes**; assoc. w. immune system diseases such as **thymomas** and **lymphocytic** **leukemias**; **parvovirus B19** infection (preferential destruction of proerythroblasts) Presentation: young patient; **pallor**, **fatigue**, **anemia** Labs: low RBC count, low percentage of reticulocytes (decreased RBC production) and low hemoglobin; WBC, platelet count, and bone marrow precursors are **normal** Dx: chest CT scan if **thymoma** is suspected; parvovirus infection: detection of **anti**-**B19** **IgM** **antibodies** in serum Tx: when **thymoma** is present, its removal can **cure** pure red cell aplasia
49
What is acute pancreatitis?
Pathogenesis: **autodigestion** of pancreas by pancreatic enzymes; high levels of circulating TGs lead to increased production of FFA w/in pancreatic capillaries by pancreatic lipase leading to **direct** **injury** to pancreatic acinar cells [TGs cause direct **tissue** **toxicity**] Causes: Idiopathic, **Gallstones\***, **Alcohol\***, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune disease, Scorpion sting, Hypercalcemia/Hypertriglyceridemia (**\>1000mg/dL**), ERCP, Drugs (sulfa drugs, NRTIs, protease inhibitors) [I GET SMASHED] \*most common Presentation: middle-aged, older adults, women; acute epigastric pain radiating to **back** Labs: if due to alcohol in the **absence** of **gallstones**, AST:ALT ration greater than 2, **macrocytosis** related to poor nutrition (folate deficiency), liver disease and/or direct toxicity of alcohol on the marrow, can occur independently of folate deficiency Dx: increase serum amylase, **lipase** (more specific) Complications: **pseudocyst**, a collection of fluid rich enzymes and inflammatory debris; walls consist of **granulation** **tissue** and **fibrosis**, **_no epithelial lining_** [true cysts: lined by epithelium]
50
What is the role of surfactant?
It counteracts alveolar collapse by **decreasing** **surface** **tension** as the alveolar radius decreases. As the inside area of the sphere decreases, surfactant becomes more concentrated and thus is able to **decrease** surface tension to a greater extent. As sphere grows larger, surfactant molecules become more spread out and do not reduce surface tension as much.
51
What is tumor lysis syndrome?
Pathogenesis: occurs when tumors w/ high cell turnover are treated w/ chemotherapy; lysis of cells causes intracellular ions, such as K and P and uric acid (metabolite of tumor nucleic acid) to be released into serum Uric acid is soluble at physiolgic pH, but can **precipitate** in normally **acidic** environment. Lowest (**acidic**) pH of nephron is found in **_distal tubules_** and _**collecting** **ducts**_. Prevention of TLS: urine alkalinization and hydration; high urine flow and high pH along nephron prevents crystallization and precipitationi of uric acid
52
What is a chest tube?
A chest tube for drainage of pleural effusion is placed through the skin and subcutaneous fat into the **4th or 5th** intercostal space in the anterior axillary or **midaxillary** **line**. The tube traverse through the **serratus** **anterior** **muscle**, **intercostal** **muscles**, and **parietal** **pleura**.
53
What is typhoid fever?
Pathogenesis: Salmonella typhi; transmission via fecal oral route following ingestion of contaminated food or water; invade M cells Presentation: fever, bradycardia, water diarrhea or constipation, abdominal pain, **salmon**-**colored** **rose** **spots** on chest/abdomen; **hepatosplenomegaly**; ulceration of Peyer's patches can result in GI bleeding; transmural necrosis can cause intestinal perforation Risk for becoming chronic carrier
54
What is the human multidrug resistance (MDR1) gene?
It codes for **p-glycoprotein**, a **transmembrane** **ATP dependent efflux pump** protein that has a broad specificity for hydrophobic compounds. It can reduce the influx of drugs into the cytosol and increase efflux from the cytosol, thereby preventing the action of chemotherapeutic drugs.
55
What is HSV 1 infection?
Pathogenesis: HSV1; **dsDNA** **virus**, **enveloped** Presentation: primary infection - gingivostomatitis (vesicles on the lips and hard palate), fever, lymphadenopathy; recurrent infection - lip lesions that are less severe due to existing cellular and humoral immunity from prior infection Histology: intranuclear inclusion bodies, multinucleated giant cells on Tzanck smear
56
What are the dsDNA viruses?
**Enveloped**: Hepadna (Hep B), Herpes, Pox **Non**-**enveloped**: Adenovirus, Papova (HPV), Polyoma (JC and BK)
57
What is neuroblastoma?
Pathogenesis: n**eural crest orgin**, involves adrenal medulla, sympathetic chain Presentation: median age \<2y, abdominal mass, periorbital (orbital metastases), spinal cord compression from epidural invasion ("dumbell tumor"), opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome: **nonrrhythmic** conjugate eye movements and involuntary jerking movements of the trunk and limbs **"dancing eyes and dancing feet"** Histology: small, round blue cells, Homer Wright rosettes Dx: elevated catecholamine metabolites (HVA, VMA); **n-myc** amplification predicts poor prognosis
58
What is cirrhosis?
Presentation: skin (telangiectasias, capt medusae), breast (gyecomastia), abdomen (ascites, firm or nodular liver, splenomegaly), GU (testicular atrophy), palmar erythemia, dupuytren contracture, clubbing Labs: **_Function_**: impaired biosynthetic capacity (**elevated PT\*\***, **hypoalbuminemia**), impaired transport and metabolic capacity (**elevated** **bilirubin**) these all are the _**greatest** **prognostic** **significance**_ Hepatocellular damage: markers of **hepatocyte injury** (elevated AST, ALT, AST\>ALT); Markers of **cholestasis/biliary injury** (elevated ALP, gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase) **Thrombocytopenia** (due to splenic sequestration of platelets)
59
What is Li-fraumeni syndrome?
Pathogenesis: **autosomal** **dominant**; inheritance of one mutated allele of **TP53** with somatic mutation of the second allele (**2-hit** **hypothesis**); p53 maintains integrity of genome by causing cells w/ mutant DNA to arrest in **G1/S stage** until damage is repaired; w/o p53 defective cells divide unchecked and become cancerous Presentation: young patient; history of **breast** cancer, **adrenal** cancer, **sarcoma** (connective tissue), **leukemia** (WBCs); **brain** tumors are also common;
60
What is matching?
It is used in case-control studies in order to **control** **confounding**. Matching variables should always be the potential confounders of the study (e.g., age, race). Cases and controls are then selected based on the matching variables to that both groups have a similar distribution in accordance w/ the variables.
61
What are the fetal effects of gestational DM?
Pathogenesis: Maternal hyperglycemia causes transplacental glucose transfer to fetus, which stimulates fetal insulin production which increases fat deposition and enhanced fetal growth; glucose freely crosses the placenta; however maternal insulin cannot Presentation: **macrosomia**; **hyperinsulinism** remains after birth due to **beta** **cell** **hyperplasia** and baby is transiently **hypoglycemic** and needs frequent feeding or parenteral glucose to prevent hypoglycemia Complications: premature delivery, congenital malformation, respiratory distress, polycythemia and hyperviscosity Tx: supportive care, beta cell hyperplasia resolves over time
62
What is biliary sludge?
Pathogenesis: Gallbladder functions to **actively absorb water** from bile; conditions that cause gallbladder hypomotility result in **excessive** dehydration of bile; promotes precipitation and accumulation of particulate material (e.g., cholesterol monohydrate crystals, calcium bilirubinate, mucus) in bile, forming viscous **biliary** **sludge** that can cause transiet bile duct obstruction (biliary colic); precursor to gallstone formation Presentation: biliary colic (RUQ pain assoc. w/ nausea); slow/incomplete gallbladder emptying in response to CCK stimulaton (this is consistent w/ **gallbladder** **hypomotility**) Risk factors: pregnancy, rapid wt loss, high spinal cord injuries, prolonged use of total parenteral nutrition or octreotide
63
What is Ménière disease?
Pathogenesis: increased pressure and volume of endolymph due to defective resorption of endolymph (**endolymphatic** **hydrops**); resultant distension of endolymphatic system causes damage to vestibular and cochlear components of inner ear Presentation: unilateral **tinnitus** w/ feeling of **fullness**, recurrent **vertigo** w/ lightheadedness, N/V, unilateral **sensorineural** **hearing** **loss**
64
What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?
Pathogenesis: otoliths in semicircular canals Presentation: brief episodes of **vertigo** brought on by head movement; no auditory symptoms
65
What is vestibular neuritis (labyrinthitis)?
Pathogenesis: **inflammation** of vestibular nerve (viral or postviral) Presentation: **single episode of vertigo** that can last for days; severe vertigo but no hearing loss
66
What is digoxin toxicity?
MOA: increases vagal tone (slows conduction through AV node - rate control effect); NaK ATPase inhibition: increased intracellular Na and Ca (increases cardiac contractility) Presentation: Cardiac: **bradycardia** and j**unctional escape beats** due to increased AV nodal block; **hypokalemia** can **precipitate** toxicity by increasing digoxin **binding** to NaK-ATPase; however, **_elevated K_** is a sign of digoxin toxicity as inhibition of NaK-ATPase pumps **increases** extracellular K GI: anorexia, n/v, abdominal pain Neurologic: fatigue, confusion, weakness, **color** **vision** **alterations**
67
What information is important to obtain prior to initiating antidepressant treatment? Why should antidepressantt monotherapy be avoided?
Patients experiencing a major depressive episode should be carefully screened for past **manic** episodes to rule out **bipolar** **disorder**. Antidepressant monotherapy should be avoided in patients w/ bipolar disorder due to risk of **precipitating** **mania**.
68
What is myotonic type 1 dystrophy?
Pathogenesis: **autosomal** **dominant** CTG trinucleotide repeat expansion in **DMPK** gene leads to abnormal expression of **myotonin** **protein** **kinase**; anticipation phenomenon Presentation: early childhood to late adulthood, **Cataracts**, **Toupee** (early balding in men), **Gonadal** **atrophy**, **myotonia** (inability to relax voluntary muscle after rigorus effort), muscle wasting, arrythmia; **classic**: **difficulty** **loosening** one's grip after a handshake or inability to release doorknob Microscopy: **type 1 fibers** are more affected
69
What is Factor 7 deficiency?
Pathogenesis: Factor 7 deficiency Presentation: **hemarthroses** and excessive bleeding following tooth extraction; coagulopathies present w/ **deep-tissue bleeding** into joints, muscles, and subcutaneous tissues Labs: normal bleeding time (adequate platelet function), normal aPiTT (intact intrinsic coag system), **prolonged PeT** [Platelet defects present w/ **mucocutaneous** bleeding (e.g., epistaxis, petechiae).]
70
What is Lesch Nyhan Syndrome?
Pathogenesis: **X-linked recessive** disorder caused bya defect in **hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)**; this results in failure of the **purine salvage pathway**, leading to increased degradation of hypoxanthine and guanine to uric acid De novo **purine** synthesis must **increase** to replace lost bases, necessitating an increase in **phosphoribosly pyrophosphate (PRPP) amidotransferase** activity to supply sufficient quantity of purine nucleotides. Presentation: dystonia, choreoathetosois, self mutilation, and hyperuricemia in first few years of life
71
What is the difference between IgE-dependent mast cell degranulation and IgE-independent mast cell degranulation?
**IgE-dependent** mast cell degranulation: assoc. w/ environmental exposure such as foods or vespid stings or meds such as beta-lactam and sulfonamid antibiotics; opiods can cause IgE-dependent degranulation (very rare), but IgE independent reactions are more common **IgE-independent** mast cell degranulation: caused by **opioids**, **radiocontrast** agents, and some **antibiotics** (e.g., vancomycin); due to activation of PKA and PI3 kinase Presentation: **acute** **pruritis** following administration of drug; pain, bronchospasm, localized swelling
72
What is imperforate hymen?
Pathogenesis: obstructive lesion caused by **incomplete** **degeneration** of the central portion of the **fibrous** **tissue** band connecting walls of vagina Presentation: **primary** **amenorrhea**, normal secondary sex characteristic w/ cycle abdominal or pelvic pain due to accumulationi of menstrual blood in vagina and uterus (e.g., **hematocolpos**); pressure from blood collection can cause back pain and difficulties w/ defecation; secondary sexual development is normal as there are no chromosomal or hormonal abnormalities
73
What is the histology for Kaposi Sarcoma?
Usually involves the skin and GI tract (bloody diarrhea); common in HIV pts not on antiretroviral therapy Colonoscopy findings: reddish/violet flat maculopapular lesions to raised hemorrhagic nodules or polypoid masses Biopsy: **spindle** cells, **neovscularization**, and extravasated RBCs w/ **hemosiderin** **deposition**
74
What are the colonic manifestations of crptosporidium?
Colonoscopy findings: non-ulcerative inflammation Biopsy: **Basophilic** **clusters** seen on surface of intestinal mucosal cells
75
What is Fragile X syndrome?
The most common inherited cause of intellectual disability. Pathogenesis: **mutation** of fragile X mental retardation 1 (FMR1) gene on long arm of X chromosome; normally 5-55 CGG repeats; full mutation characterized by **\>200 CGG** trinucleotide repeats, which causes **FMR1** **hypermethylation**; DNA methylaton **inactivates** FMR1 preventing transcription and production of FMR1 protein thereby impairing neural development Presentation: maroorchidism, dysmorphic facies (long and narrow face, prominent forehead and chin); developmental delay, ADHD, autism; delayed language acquisition and poor social skills are suggestive of autism Dx: southern blot analysis used to measure degree of **methylation** and determine the **number of CGG repeats**
76
What is produced in the ventral tegemental area, posterior rostral pons, and periaqueductal gray?
Dopamine is produced in the **ventral** **tegmental** **area** and **substantia** **nigra** **pars** **compacta**, located in the **midbrain**. NE in the brain is synthesized in the **locus** **ceruleus**, located in the posterior **rostral** **pons** near the **lateral floor of the 4th ventricle**. It projects to all parts of the CNS and helps control mood, arousal (reticular activating system), sleep wake states, cognition, and automonic function. Dynorphin is an opioid peptide that modulates pain response, produced in the **periaqueductal** gray, rostral **ventral** **medulla**, and dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
77
What is vitamin C deficiency (scurvy)?
Pathogenesis: malnourishment; vit. C is cofactor for **hydroxylation** of proline and lysine in the **RER** Presentation: alcoholics, the poor, the elderly; gingival swelling/bleeding, petechiae, ecchymoses, poor wound healing (due to impaired collagen synthesis); perifollicular hemorrhages and coiled (**corkscrew**) hairs
78
What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
A peripheral mononeuropathy caused by **compression** of the **median** nerve in the carpal tunnel. Pathogenesis: Assoc. w/ conditions that reduce carpal tunnel space - pregnancy (fluid accumulation), **hypothyroidism** (glycosaminoglycan buildup), DM (connective tissue thickening), RA (tendon inflammation), pts w/ long hx of hemodialysis through deposition of beta2 microglobulin (dialysis assoc. **amyloidosis**) Presentation: sensory impairment, pain, and/or paresthesias in the median nerve distribution (palma surface of the first 3 digits and radial half of 4th digit); sx are worse at night; motor weakness during thumb abduction/opposition and thenar **atrophy**, **Tinel** sign (**tapping** over flexor surface of the wrist reproduces sx) and **Phalen** sign (**flexion** of the wrist reproduces symptoms)
79
What is buprenorphine?
A partial opioid receptor agonist that binds w/ high affinity but has low intrinsic activity. In patients on **long**-**term** opoid therapy, buprenorphine acts as an opioid receptor **antagonist** in the presence of full opioid agonists, displaces them, **precipitates** **withdrawal** in opioid tolerant patients w/ chronic pain.
80
What is analgesic nephropathy?
Pathogenesis: NSAIDs concentrate in renal medulla along medullary osmotic gradient, w/ higher levels in the **papillae**; **uncouple** **oxidative** **phosphorylation** and cause **glutathione** **depletion** w/ subsequent lipid **peroxidation** resulting in damage to tubular and vascular endothelial cells; prolonged use results in **chronic interstitial nephritis**; decrease prostaglandin synthesis causing constriction of medullary vasa recta and **ischemic papillary necrosis** Presentation: evidence of tubular dysfunction (polyuria, nocturia); calcification Labs: elevation in serum creatinine, mild proteinuria; hematuria, **sterile** **pyuria**
81
What is immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
Pathogenesis: autoimmune destructioni of platelets by anti-platelet antibodies, likely IgG autoantibodies against the platelet membrane glycoproteins **GP2b/3a** Presentation: children - acute and self-limited; adults - insidious and chronic course in adults; epistaxis, eccymoses, mucosal bleeding, and marked **thrombocytopenia** w/ **no obvious** causes (meds, BM failure); **unremarkable** physical examination and lab findings Labs: normal hematocrit, leukocyte count and differential, fibrinogen level, and PT/INR
82
What is cancer anorexia cachexia syndrome?
Cachexia is a syndrome that encompasses **anorexia**, **malaise**, **anemia**, **weight** **loss**, and **generalized** **wasting** due to underlying systemic disease. Pathogenesis: **TNF-alpha** is produced by **macrophages** in response to infection as well as by some neoplastic cells; TNF-alpha (**cachectin**) is a main mediator of pareneoplastic cachexia (along w/ IL1Beta and IL6); it influences the **hypothalamus** leading to **appetite** **suppression**; it also **increases** **basal** **metabolic** **rate** In bacterial infections, it produces **fever** (along w/ IL1), mediates sx of septic shock, and causes hepatic release of **acute** **phase** **reactions** (c-reactive protein and fibrinogen)
83
What is observer bias?
It is also known as expectancy bias. It occurs when investigators misclassify data due to preconceived expectation or prior knowledge concerning the study or its participants. This type of bias is particularly important when outcomes are subjective (i.e., involve person interpretation of clinical, microscopic, or radiographic findings). This type of bias can be reduced by conducting a blinded study in which observers are unaware of study details and patient characteristics that could undly influence them.
84
What is maple syrup disease?
Pathogenesis: autosomal recessive disorder characterized by defective breakdown of branched chain amino acids (isoleucin, leucine, and valine); metabolized by branched chain alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase complex (BCKDC) which is mutated; BCKD requires **Thiamine**, **Lipoate**, **Coenzyme** A, **FAD**, **NAD** (Tender Loving Care For Nancy) Presentation: accumulation of branched chain amino acids in serum and peripheral tissues resulting in neurotoxicity that includes seizures, irritability, lethargy, and poor feeding; metabolite of isoleucine gives urine a **sweet** **odor** Tx: high dose **thiamine** (B1) treatment, but most still require lifelong dietary restrictions of isoleucine, leucine, and valine
85
What is diabetes mellitus?
Presentation: weight loss despite normal to increased food intake, **polyuria**, **polydipsia**, and fatigue; may present with diabetic ketoacidosis (n/v, abdominal pain, decreased mental status, fruity odor to breath) Dx: fasting glucose greater than or equal to 126mg/dL, random glucose greater than or equal to 200mg/dL, or an elevated hemoglobin A1c (greater than or equal to 6.5%) Oral glucose preferred screening method for gestational diabetes and cystic fibrosis-related diabetes; not preferred for general use b/c it is more expensive and less convenient
86
What are blood gas findings during high peak of exercise?
B/c exercising muscle **extract** additional O2, the venous blood O2 conent is **decreased**. The mixed venous blood CO2 content is increased due to increased CO2 **production**. The venous blood pH is decreased (more acidic). Hemostatic mechanism maintain arterial blood gas levels and arterial pH near the resting values.
87
What is vitiligo?
A common condition characterized by the **loss** of epidermal melanocytes. Pathogenesis: **autoimmune** activity, melanocytic self-destruction
88
What are Janeway lesions and Osler nodes?
Janeway lesion: painless/**nontender**, macular erythematous lesions typically located on the palms and soles; they are the result of **septic** **embolization** and **valvular** **vegetations**; composed of bacteria, neutrophils (microabscesses), necrotic material, and subcutaneous hemorrhage; found in pts w/ acute infective endocarditis Osler nodes: painful/**tender**, violaceous nodules typically located in the pulp of fingers and toes; due to **immune**-**complex** **deposition** in the skin
89
What is interstitial lung disease?
Presentation: progressive dyspnea, fine crackles, clubbing, diffuse reticular opacities Histology: progressive pulmonary fibrosis w/ thickening and stiffening of the pulmonary **interstitium**, this causes **increased** **lung** **elastic** **recoil**, as well as airway widening due to **increased** outward pulling (**radial** **traction**) by surrounding fibrotic tissue, this leads to increased expiratory flow rates when corrected for the low lung volume; fibrosis causes a reduction in the diffusion capacity of CO PFTs: decreased in almost everything; FVC and FEV1 are decreased as well; however FEV1/FVC ratio is typically normal or increased as FEV1 decreases less than FVC (due to airway widening relative to low lung volumes); **decreased** **lung** **compliance**
90
What is fat embolism syndrome?
Pathogenesis: traumatic event dislodges **fat** **globules** from BM and they travel to **pulmonary** **microvessels** (hypoxemia); fat emboli assoc. microvascular occlusion in the CNS and dermal capillaries; **platelets** adhere to and coat fat microglobules Presentation: acute onset **neurologic** abnormalities, **hypoxemia**, and a **petechial** **rash** in a pt w/ severe long bone and/or pelvic fractures; occurs w/in first 24-72 hours after injury, but can develop 2w later [**Red** **thrombus** lodged in pulmonary artery is consistent w/ thromboembolism from a deep venous source.]
91
What is antiphospholipid antibody syndrome?
Pathogenesis: may be a primary disorder or occur secondary to other autoimmune disease such as SLE Presentation: venous or arterial **thromboembolic** **disease** (DVT, pulmonary embolism, ischemic stroke/transient ischemic attack); **adverse** **pregnancy** **outcomes** (unexplained **pregnancy** **loss**, premature brith due to placental insufficiency or preeclampsia) Labs: **lupus anticoagulant** effect (**aPTT prolongation** in vitro, not reversed on plasma mixing studies; in vivo they produce a **hypercoaguable** **state**); presence of **anticardiolipin** antibody and **anti-beta1 glycoprotein** I antibody Antibodies cause false positive results on nontreponemal serologic syphilis tests (RPR and VDRL) by reacting w. cardiolipin (antigen used in those tests)
92
What is the major compliction of subarachnoid hemorrhage?
SAH occurs due to rupture of saccular (berry) aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation. **Severe** **vasospasm** 4-12d after the initial insult is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in patients recovering from SAH; can cause **cerebral** **ischemia** which presents as new-onset confusion and/or focal neurological deficit Tx: **Nimodipine**, a selective calcium channel blocker, is often prescribed to prevent vasospasm.
93
What are the cardiac changes assoc. w/ normal aging?
**Decreased LV chamber size** in the long axis from base to apex, which causes ventricular septum to acquire **sigmoid** **shape**; **Atrophy** of myocardium results in increased interstitial connective tissue/collagen deposition, with concomitant extracellular **amyloid** **deposition**; Progressive accumulation of cytoplasmic granules containing brownish **lipofuscin** pigment (the result of indigestible byproducts of subcellular membrane lipid oxidation)
94
What is Sturge Weber Syndrome?
Pathogenesis: **congenital**; **sporadic**, developmental anomaly of neural crest derivates due to somatic mosaicism for an **activating** **mutation** in one copy of GNAQ gene Presentation: unilateral port wine stain of face, tram track calcifications (opposing gyri), seizures/epilepsy, intellectual disability, episcleral hemaniogoma, increased intraocular pressure, early onset glaucoma Sprodic, port wine Stain, Tram track calcifications, Unilateral, Retardation, Glaucoma, GNAQ gene, Epilepsy
95
What is tuberous sclerosis?
Pathogenesis: TSC1 mutation on ch9 or TSC2 mutation on ch16; tumor suppressor genes; autosomal dominant Presentation: harmartomas in CNS and skin, facial angiofibromas, mitral regurgitation, ash-leaf spots, cardiac rhabdomyoma, intellectual disability, renal angiomyolipoma, seizures, shagreen patches; Increased incidence of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas and ungual fibromas (nails)
96
What is von Hippel Lindaw disease?
Pathogenesis: deletion of VHL gene on ch3p; autosomal dominant; VHL ubiquinates hypoxia-inducible factor 1a; Presentation: characterized by development of numerous tumors, both benign and malignant; **Hemangioblastoms** (retina, brainstem, cerebellum, spine); can produce EPO **Angiomatosis** (cavernous hemangiomas in skin, mucosa, organs) bilateral **Renal** cell carcinomas **Pheochromocytomas**
97
What is Friedreich ataxia?
Pathogenesis: autosomal recessive trinucleotide repeat disorder (**GAA**) on ch9; encodes frataxin (iron binding protein); impairs mitochondria; degeneration of CST (spastic paralysis), spinocerebellar tract (ataxia), DCT (vibration, proprioception) and dorsal root ganglia (loss of DTRs); Presentation: childhood w/ kyphoscoliosis; ataxia, frequent falling, nystagmus, dysarthria, DM, pes cavus, hammer toes, **HOCM** (cause of death)
98
What is medial medullay syndrome?
Damage to anterior spinal artery or vertebral arteries. Presentation: Lateral **CST**: contralateral paralysis - upper and lower limbs **Medial** **lemniscus**: decreased contralateral proprioception Caudal medulla: ipslateral **hypoglossal** dysfunction (tongue deviates ipsilaterally)
99
What is lateral pontine syndrome?
Damage to anterior inferior cerebellar syndrome Presentation: Lateral pons 5/STT: decreased pain and temperature sensation from contralateral body, ipsilateral face 7: paralysis of face; decreased lacrimation, salivation, taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue 8: vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus; Labyrinthine artery: ipsilateral sensorineural deafness, vertigo Sympathetic: ipsilateral Horner syndrome Middle and inferior cerebellar peduncles: ataxia, dysmetria
100
What is locked in syndrome?
Damage to the basilar artery. Presentation: Pons, medulla, lower midbrain: RAS spared = preserved consciousness CST and corticobulbar tracts: quadriplegia; loss of voluntary facial, mouth, and tongue movements Ocular CN nuclei, paramedian pontine reticular formation: loss of horizontal, but not vertical eye movements (can only look up and down)
101
What is digital clubbing?
A thickening of the **distal** **phalanges (DIP)** associated w/ a number of chronic diseases causing **hypoxia**. Pathogenesis: can be primary (idiopathic) or secondary to - Heart disease: **cyanotic** congenital heart disease (**Tetralogy of Fallot**, Truncus arteriosus, Transposition of the great arteries, Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection, Tricuspid atresia) and bacterial endocarditis Lung diseases: lung cancer (esp. large-cell carcinoma), tuberculosois, cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, pulmonary HTN, empyema, and other chronic lung disease assoc. w/ hypoxia Presentation: "**drumstick**" appearance of the fingers, flattening of the nail folds, and shininess of the nail and distal portion of the finger; pressing on nails produces spongy fluctuant sensation caused by softening of nail beds Other: Inflammatory bowel diseases (Chron's disease, ulcerative colitis), hyperthyroidism, and malabsorption
102
What is a pulmonary embolism?
Pathogenesis: arises from DVT in lower extremities and lodges w/in arterial blood supply of lungs Presentation: suddent onset **dyspnea** in the setting of recent calf-swelling Risk factors: obesity, smoking, prolonged immobilizaiton Findings: increased dead space ventilation, increaed ventilation/perfusion mismatch in remainder of lungs w/ consequent **hypoxemia**; hyperventilate to increase O2 content hyperventilation leads to **hypocapnia** and **respiratory** **alkalosis**; serum bicarb remains normal in acute phase, but metabolic compensation w/ renal bicarb loss occurs afater approx. 48hs
103
What are the submucosal (brunner) glands?
They secrete alkaline mucus into the duodenum; pass through the muscularis mucosa and terminate in the mucosal crypts (crypts of Lieberkuhn); found in the **first part of the duodenum** [Epithelial cells of pancreatic ductules and ducts produce water secretion containing high concentrations of bicarb ions; emptied into duodenum at the ampulla] [Presence of acid in duo and jej cause release of secretin from mucosa, stimulating bicarb from submucosal glands and pancreas]
104
What causes hearing loss?
Pathogenesis: distortion or fracture of the stereocilia (of the **Organ** of **Corti**) due to shearing forces against the tectorial membrane Presentation: high frequency hearing lost first, regardless of the frequency of sound causing the damage Noise-induced hearing loss from trauma to **sterociliated** hair cells of the **organ of Corti**.
105
What is a cavernous hemangioma?
Vascular malformation (sporadic or familial) that occur w/in the **brain** **parenchyma (intracerebral)** above the cerebellar tentorium Histology: clusters of dilated, thin-walled capillaries w/ little or no intervening nervous tissue Presentation: seizures, progressive neurologic deficits due to mass effect w/ interruption of cerebral microcirculation; **increased tendency to bleed and for sezures** to occur
106
What is chronic myelogenous leukemia?
Pathogenesis: philadelphia chromosome (transloction between ch9 and 22) or the BCR-ABL fusion gene or mRNA Labs: elevated WBC w/ an increase in precursor forms (e.g., bands, metamyeloctyes, **myelocytes**); **decreased leukocyte (neutrophil) alkaline phosphatase** because WBCs are cytochemically **abnormal**; immature blasts are typically **less than 2%** [In leukemoid reaction: leukocytosis, normal or elevated leukocyte (neutrophil) alkaline phosphatase] tx: tyrosine kinase inhibitor
107
What is parvovirus?
Pathology: ssDNA virus; respiratory, congenital or hematogenous transmission; initial nonspecific period assoc. w/ heavy viremia and viral shedding Presention: HA, coryza, GI sx, hemolytic anemia: transient aplatic crisis; Erythema infectiosum (5th disease): primarily in children; bright red rash on cheeks; generalized reticular rash on arms, legs, and trunk; signifies active immune response w/ formation of immune complexes and minimal or undetectable viremia (reduced infectivity) **Acute** **arthropathy**: primarily in adults, **symmetric** polyarthritis involving PIP, metacarpal, knee, and ankle joints mimics RA; **self-limiting** and nondestructive; signifies active immune response w/ formation of immune complexes and minimal or undetectable viremia (reduced infectivity)
108
What is a glomus tumor?
Pathogenesis: benign tumor (glomangioma) of the **modified** **smooth** **muscles** cells of a glomus body; subungual melanoma (role = pigmentation) Glomus bodes: small, encapsulated neurovascular organs in dermis of nail bed, pads of fingers, toes, and the ears; Role: **thermoregulation** - shunt blood away from skin in cold temps to prevent heat loss; direct blood flow to skin in hot temps to facilitate heat dissipation Presentation: tender, small (mm), **red-blue** lesion under the nail bed
109
What is Dengue Fever?
Pathogenesis: transmission of virus via **Aedes aegypti** mosquito; SEA, Pacific Islands, Caribbean, Americas) Presentation: acute febrile illnes, HA, **retro-orbital pain**, joint and muscle pain; **hemorrhage** (petechiae, purpura, epistaxis, melena) thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, and hemoconcentration Aedes also transmits virus causing **chikungunya** Presentation: febrile illness w/ flu-like sx, prominent polyarthralgias/arthritis (hands, wrists, ankles) and diffuse macular rash Prevention: protective barriers and inset spraying
110
What is the duration of action of the benzodiazepines?
**Short** (T1/2 \<6h): TOM (Triazolam, Oxazepam, Midazolam); minimizes daytime side effects **Intermediate** (T1/2 6-24h): LAT (Lorazepam, Alprazolam, Temazepam); minimizes daytime side effects **Long** (T1/2 \>24h): DCF (Diazepam, Chlordiazepoxide, Flurazepam)
111
What is Diamond blackfan anemia?
Pathogenesis: Rapid onset anemia w/in 1st year of life due to intrinsic defect in erythroid progenitor cells Presentation: **short** **stature**, **craniofacial** abnormalities, and upper extremity malformation (**triphalangeal** thumbs, 3 instead of 2) Labs: **Nonmegaloblastic** macrocystic anemia
112
What is Fanconi anemia?
Pathogenesis: defective dna repair Presenation: megaloblastic anemia; unexplained fatigue, poor stature, growth
113
What is porphyria cutanea tarda?
Pathogenesis: autosomal dominant mutation in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase; leading to accumulation of **uroporphyrin** (tea colored urine) Presentation: blistering cutaneous **photosensitivity** (presents as **vesicles** and **blisters**) and **hyperpigmentation**; exacerbated w/ alcohol consumption, assoc. w. hep **C**
114
What are the effects of opioids in the GI system?
Mu opioid analgesics such as morphine can cause **contraction** of **smooth muscles** in the **sphincter of Oddi**; this leads to increased **pressures**/**spasms** in the common bile duct and gallbladder Presentation: biliary colic; severe pain and **cramping** in the right upper abdomen Tx: discontinuation of mu opioid analgesics and pain control with NSAIDs (ketorolac, diclofenac)
115
How do free fatty acids contribute to insulin resistance?
Type 2 DM is due to insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency. Insulin resistance in adipose cells hinders antilipolytic effects of insulin, leading to lipolysis and release of FFA. Chronically elevated FFA levels contribute to insulin resistance by **impairing** insulin-dependent glucose **uptake** and **increasing** hepatic **gluconeogenesis**. Presentation: **acanthosis** **nigricans**
116
What is mastocytosis?
Pathogenesis: clonal mast cell proliferation in the bone marrow, skin, and other organs; associated w/ mutation in the **KIT** receptor tyrosine kinase; cells are characterized by prominent expression of mast cell **tryptase** Presentation: **excessive histamine** release from degranulation of mast cells mediates syncope, flushing, hypotension, pruritus, and urticaria; histamine induces gastric acid secretions, which can lead to gastric **ulceration**; excess acid inactivates pancreatic and intestinal enzymes causing **diarrhea**; n/v/ and **abdominal** **cramps**
117
What is essential fructosuria?
Pathogenesis: benign, autosomal recessive disorder; **fructokinase** **deficiency**; **hexokinase** takes over role of fructose metabolism, converting dietary fructose into fructose 6 phosphate Presentation: dietary fructose is excreted unchanged in urine
118
What stimulates the central and peripheral chemoreceptors?
In **healthy** individuals, **PaCO2** is the major stimulator of respiration. O2 has small effect on respiratory drive when its partial pressure in arterial blood is greater than 70mmHg **Central chemoreceptors**: located in **medulla**, stimulated by **decreased pH** in surrounding CSF (BBB is impermeable to H+, but CO2 diffuses and forms H+); **_PaCO2_** is major stimulator of central chemoreceptors; increased respiratory response to **hypercapnia**; pts with COPD have decreased sensitivity to PaCO2 and **hypoxemia** becomes important contributor to respiratory drive **Peripheral chemoreceptors**: found in carotid and aortic bodies; primary sites for sensing arterial **_PaO2_**; stimulated by **hypoxemia**; also stimulated by increased PaCO2 levels and blood H+ concentration (but central chemoreceptors are more important for increased respiratory response to hypercapnia); can be **suppressed** w/ **O2 administration**
119
What is uremic platelet dysfunction?
Pathogenesis: excessive bleeding is common in patients w/ significant renal dysfunction due to accumulation of **uremic** **toxins** in circulation; toxins **impair** platelet **aggregation** and adhesion, resultin in qualitative platelet disorder Presentation: pt w/ ESRD develops bleeding at catheter exit site; no treatment for anticoagulants prior to procedure Labs: **increased** **bleeding** **time**; **normal** **platelet count, PT, and aPTT** Tx: uremic bleeding can be improved w/ **dialysis** as it removes toxins and partially reverses bleeding abnormality
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What is urticaria ("hives")?
Common, transient hypersensitivity disorder Pathogenesis: IgE-mediated degranulation of mast cells; non-IgE-mediated degranuation (e.g., opiates, radiocontrast agents, physical urticaria); mast cell independent mechanisms (e.g., aspirin, hereditary angioneurotic edema) Presentation: intensely pruritic, raised, erythematous plaques (wheals) that arise suddently and resolve over several hours; increased permeability of microvasculature leads to **edema** of **superficial** **dermis**; involvement of deep dermis and subcutaneous tissue is **angioedema** Histology: mixed inflammatory infiltrate (mononuclear cells, neutrophils, eosinophils) surrounding superficial dermal venules; overlying **epidermis** appears **normal**
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What is high altitude sickness?
Pathogenesis: low partial pressure of O2 in environments greater than 2500m (8000ft); **hypobaric** **hypoxia** = barometric pressure drops w/ increasing altitude, leading to decreased pO2 in air and blood; tissue hypoxia stimulates peripheral **chemoreceptors** causing **hyperventilation** decreasing pCO2 and increasing blood pH (respiratory alkalosis); renal bicarb excretion compensates for alkalosis stabiizing pH toward normal range w/in 48h Presentation: headache, fatigue, nausea, dizziness, sleep disturbances; most cases subside w/in 2d, but progression to life-threatening cerebral and/or pulmonary edema is possible
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What is a lung abscess?
Necrotic infection of pulmonary parenchyma Pathogenesis: aspiration of anaerobic bacteria from oropharynx; untreated pneumonia; **neutrophils** are key player in formation - release cytotoxic granules (lysosomes) that destroy extracellular bacteria, but also cause significant damage to pulmonary parenchyma resulting in **liquefying** **necrosis** of lung tissue and (potentiallly) lung abscess Presentation: several days of fever, cough productive of **copious** **sputum** (often foul-smelling) CXR: **cavitation** w/ **air-fluid** level
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What is diverticular disease?
Pathogenesis: **pulsion** (pushes)- **increased intraluminal pressure** created during straind bowel movements (e.g., chronic constipation); increased pressure causes the **mucosa** and **submucosa** to herniate through areas of focal **weakness** in **muscularis** (**false** diverticula); **Traction** (true) **diverticula**: created by inflammation and subsequent **scarring** of gut wall, results in pulling and outpouching of all gut wall layers (**true** diverticula); may occur in midesophagus due to mediastinal lymphadenitis caused by TB or fungal infection Presentation: greater than 60yo; affects sigmoid colon, hematochezia; inflammed (diverticulitis; causes lower quadrant abdominal pain, low-grade fever, constipation or diarrhea)
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What are true vs false diverticula?
**True**: outpouching that contains all layers (mucosa, submucosa, **muscularis**, and serosa) ex: Meckel's, normal appendix, traction diverticula **False/pseudo**: outpouching only contains muscosa and submucosa, serosa ex: Zenker's esophageal, diverticulosis
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What are the cells that line the female reproductive tract?
Peritoneum: **simple** squamous epithelium (mesothelium) Ovary: simple **cuboidal** (e.g., germinal) Fallopian tube: simple **columnar** (**ciliated**) Uterus: simple **columnar** Cervix: endocervix - simple **columnar**; ectocervix - **stratified** squamous non-keratinized Vagina: stratified squamous non-keratinized
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What are the derivatives of the mesonephros and metanephros?
Mesonephros: interim kidney for 1st trimester; later contributes to male genital system Metanephros: permanent - **uteric** **bud**: derived from caudal end of **mesonephric** **duct**; gives rise to ureter, pelvises, calyces, and collecting ducts - metanephric **mesenchym** (metanephric blastema): interacts with uteric bud; formation of **glomerulus** through to **distal** **convoluted** **tubule**
127
What is Fanconi Syndrome?
Pathogenesis: hereditary, ischemia, **multiple** **myeloma**, **nephrotoxins**, **lead** **poisoning** Defects: generalized reabsorption defect in **PCT** leads to increased excretion of glucose, amino acids, bicarb, and phosphate (any substance reabsorbed by PCT) Presentation: metabolic **acidosis** (proximal RTA), **hypophosphatemia**, **osteopenia**
128
What is Bartter syndrome?
Pathogenesis: autosomal recessive Defects: resorptive defect in **TAL** of Henle (affects Na, K, and Cl transporter) Presentation: metabolic **alkalosis**, **hypokalemia**, **hypercaliuria** (similar to using a loop diuretic)
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What is Gitelman syndrome?
Pathogenesis: autosomal recessive Defects: reabsorption defect of **NaCl** in **DCT** Presentation: metabolic alkalosis, hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, hypocalciuria (presents similarly to lifelong thiazide diuretic use; less severe than Bartter syndrome)
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What is Liddle Syndrome?
Pathogenesis: Autosomal dominant Defect: gain of function mutation leads to increased activiaty of Na channel leading to increased Na **reabsorption** in collecting tubules Presentation: metabolic **alkalosis**, **hypokalemia**, **hypertension**, decreases in **aldosterone** Presents similarly to **hyperaldosteronism**, but aldosterone is nearly undetectable due to negative feedback from **Na**; Tx: **amiloride**
131
What is Syndrome of Apparent Mineralocorticoid Excess (SAME)?
Pathogenesis: autosomal recessive; can acquire disorder from **glycyrrhetinic** **acid** (present in licorice), which **blocks** activity of 11beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase Defects: in cells containing mineralocorticoid receptors, **11beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase** **converts** **cortisol** (activates receptors) to **cortisone** (inactive on receptors); Hereditary deficiency of 11beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase leads to excess **cortisol** leading to increase in **mineralocorticoid** activity Presentation: metabolic alkalosis, **hypokalemia**, **HTN**, decrease serum aldosterone level (cortisol tries to be the **SAME** as **aldosterone**) Tx: treat w/ K sparing diuretics (decrease mineralocorticoid effects) or **corticosteroids** (**decrease** endogenous **cortisol** production)
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What is distal RTA (type 1)?
Pathogenesis: amphotericin B toxicity, analgesic nephropathy, congenital anomalies, autoimmune diseases Defect: inability of **alpha** **intercalated** cells to **secrete H+**, no new HCO3- is generated = metabolic **acidosis** Labs: basic urine, low serum K, increased risk for Calcium Phosphate kidney stone due to **increased** urine pH and increased bone turnover
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What is proximal RTA (type 2)?
Pathogenesis: Fanconi syndrome, multiple myeloma, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Defect: defect in **PCT** **HCO3**- **reabsorption** leads to increased excretion of HCO3 inurine = **metabolic** **acidosis** Increased risk for **hypophosphatemic** rickets (in Fanconi syndrome; don't absorb P)
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What is hyperkalemic tubular acidosis (type 4)?
Pathogenesis: **decrease** in **aldosterone** production (heparin) or aldosterone resistance (TMP-SMX) Defects: hypoaldosteronism or aldosterone resistance; **hyperkalemia** leads to **decreased** **NH3** synthesis in PCT leading to _**decreased** **NH4**+ excretion_
135
What are the syndromes assoc. w/ Wilms tumor?
**WAGR complex:** Wilms tumor, Aniridia (absence of iris), Genitourinary malformations, mental Retardation/intellectual disability (WT1 **deletion**) Denys-Drash syndrome: Wilms Tumor, Diffuse mesangial **sclerosis** (early onset **nephrotic** syndrome), **Dysgenesis** of gonads (male pseudohermaphroditism) (WT1 **mutation**) Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome: Wilms tumor, **macroglossia**, organomegaly, **hemihyperplasia** (**WT2** **mutation**)
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What are the consequences of renal failure?
MAD HUNGER Metabolic **acidosis** Dyslipidemia (esp. increased **triglycerides**) Hyperkalemia **Uremia** (nausea, anorexia, pericarditis, asterixis, encephalopathy, platelet dysfunction) Na/H20 **retention** (HF, pulmonary edema, HTN) Growth retardation and developemntal delay **EPO** failure (anemia) Renal osteodystrophy (bone disease due to failure of maintaining **Ca** and **P** in blood)
137
What are the TSH, T4, and T3 levels in primary hypothyroidism?
Increased TSH and decreased T4. T3 is produced mainly in peripheral tissues and has a short half-life so serum T3 levels fluctuate widely and correlate poorly w/ clinical status. T3 is often **normal** in **primary** **hypothyroidism**.
138
What is sulfasalazine?
MOA: a combination of sulfapyridine (antibacterial) and 5-aminosalicyclic acid (anti-inflammatory); activated by colonic bacteria Indication: **ulcerative** **colitis**; **crohn** **disease** (colitis component) SEs: malaise, nausea, sulfonamide toxicity, reversible **oligospermia**
139
What are the symptoms of glue poisoning?
Daily headaches at **temples**, bilaterally Confusion, memory issues; **forgetfulness** Broad-based **ataxic** gait; **slow** to answer questions
140
What is ubiquitin ligase?
A protein that recruits an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme that has been loaded w/ ubiquitin, recognizes a protein substrate, and assists or directly **catalyzes transfer** of ubiquitin from E2 to the protein substrate
141
What is early septic shock?
In the elderly: **confusion**, decreased alertness Low blood pressure (hypotensive) **refractive** to isotonic saline
142
What is rosacea?
Inflammatory facial skin disorder characterized by erythematous papules and pustules, but no comedones. May be assoc. w. facial **flushing** in response to **external** **stimuli** (alcohol, heat). Phymatous rosacea can cause rhinophyma (bullous deformation of **nose**). Tendency to **blush** or **flush** more; redness can **spread** **beyond** nose and cheeks to forehead and chin; **telangiectasias**
143
What do lesions in the optic tract create?
A lesion in the **optic tract** causes contralateral homonymous hemianopia and a relative **afferent** **pupillary** **defect** (Marcus Gunn pupil) in the pupil **contralateral** to the tract lesion. **Nasal** portion of the retina contributes more input to pretectal nucleus than the temporal portion of the retina.
144
What is associated with aortic coarcation?
Pts commonly die of hypertension-associated complication, including LV failure, ruptured dissecting aortic aneurysm, and **intracranial hemorrhage**. At increased risk for ruptured **intracranial aneurysms** b/c of increased incidence of **congenital berry aneursyms** of the circle of willis as well as aortic arch hypertension.
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What is schizoaffective disorder?
Lifetime hx of at **least 2 weeks** of psychotic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations) **without** significant mood disturbance (major depressive or manic episode) is a key requirement for schizoaffective diagnosis. However, mood symptoms **must be present** for most of the illness.