week 6/7 ish Flashcards

(130 cards)

1
Q

what does it mean that microbial chromosomes are streamlined

A

less intergenic space, smaller regulatory regions than larger eukaryotic counterparts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

operons

A

clusters of genes that share the same promoter and are transcribed as a single large mRNA

bacterial transcriptional unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

true or false: introns are very rare in yeast and prokaryotes

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

intergenic sequences

A

promoters, enhancers, repressors, spacers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

true or false: intergenic sequences are bigger in prokaryotes

A

false, smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

microbes are extremely “gene……” compared to multicellular eukaryotes

A

dense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

true or false: the majority of eukaryotic DNA is the essential, backbone genetic information

A

false; non-coding dna accounts for a greater percentage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

operons consist of 4 main parts:

A

upstream activator site
promoter
operator
structural genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

polycistronic

A

contain multiple ORF that encode amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

upstream activator site

A

DNA sequence upstream of a promoter that increases transcription via binding of activator proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

promoter

A

region on DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription

specific to sigma factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sigma factors

A

interchangeable subunits of the RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

operator

A

DNA sequence which decreases transcription via binding of repressor proteins

usually overlaps promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

structural genes

A

genes encoded by the operon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why would genes be found on the same operon

A

belong to the same pathway

account for different subunits of a particular protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

gene expression is highest for genes at the……end of the transcript

A

5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

polar effects

A

disrupt translation of downstream genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

4 examples of operons hosting genes with related functions

A

arg
lac
trp
fim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

gene expression is highly…….

A

coordinated
(regulons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ribosomal release factors and signaling sequences are needed to ensure proper…..

A

translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

unlike eukaryotes, bacteria do not have a membrane-bound…….so mRNAs are not……..or……or……before translation

A

nucleus

capped, tailed, targeted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

in prokaryotes, translation can begin before

A

transcription is completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

beads on a string

A

multiple ribosomes can load onto the nascent transcript

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

poly-A tails are signals of……in prokaryotes

A

decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
transcription in bacteria begins with:
RNA polymerase fusing with the sigma factor
26
Sigma Factor
promoter-recognizing subunit
27
the Sigma Factor recognizes the...... that is located.....
Pribnow box upstream from the mRNA start site (-10 and -35 regions)
28
sigma factors allow for a coordinated......response
transcriptional
29
o70 RpoD E. coli sigma factor sequence and function
TTGACA normal growth
30
o38 RpoS
CCGGCG general stress response
31
regulon
sigma factors or activators/repressors facilitate coordinated expression of genes and rapid response to environmental stimuli
32
once transcription begins, the sigma factor.....
releases
33
transcription then continues until......
the termination site is reached
34
transcription termination in bacteria:
one goal, two possibilities
35
possibility 1 termination:
factor independent termination: stem-loop followed by a U poly-track
36
possibility 2 termination:
factor dependent termination: rut site + Rho factor
37
when transcription is terminated by Rho, the DNA will....
encode a rut site and a Rho-sensitive binding site downstream of the coding region
38
once transcribed, Rho can bind to the rut site on the nascent mRNA transcript and move up the mRNA until it comes in contact with.......
the paused RNA polymerase
39
when Rho catches up to the RNA polymerase, it will perform a........to release the RNA-DNA hybrid. this causes the RNA polymerase to.....
helicase activity dissociate and terminate transcription
40
translation in bacteria uses the..... ribosome
80S
41
translation initiation is a.....step process
2
42
step 1 of translation initiation
30S subunit lines up with the ribosomal binding site, initiator tRNA binds
43
how is the start codon ensured to be aligned in the P-site
16S ribosomal RNA aligns with the Shine-Dalgarno Sequence
44
step 2 of translation initiation:
50S is added and elongation can begin
45
why/how beads on a string ?
translation can re-initiate as soon as the first ribosome clears the beginning of the transcript
46
translational coupling
closer together cistrons @ stop codon, 50S disassociates 30S keeps going, hits next SD and then 50S reassociates and translation restarts
47
de novo internal translation initiation
further apart cistrons @ stop codon, entire ribosome disassociates at next SD, 30S reassociates, 50S binds, translation re-initiates
48
constitutively expressed
"always on"
49
inducible
these genes can be "turned on" and "turned off"
50
what kinds of genes are constitutively expressed
essential genes/ central processes ex) replication, transcription, translation, main metabolism, etc.
51
what kinds of genes are inducible
non-essential genes/ auxiliary processes ex) amino acid, nucleic acid biosynthesis, transporters, etc.
52
arg operon
encodes proteins involved with the biosynthesis of arginine "on" by default and can be turned off by repression
53
when the cell has enough free arginine, then there will be free arginine that can be..... this causes a conformational change, allowing the ArgR repressor to......
bound by the ArgR repressor bind the arg operator and stop transcription
54
arg operon regulation is what type of regulation? and what does this mean
pre-transcriptional gene product expression is controlled before transcript is made
55
change in transcription factor's ability to bind is a form of.......
allosterism
56
lac operon
encodes proteins involved with lactose metabolism "off" by default, can be turned on by induction
57
when the cell encounters and uptakes allolactose, it is bound by the..... this causes a conformational change, releasing the LacI repressor and inducing......
LacI repressor transcription
58
polar effects
operon is not repressed but an early gene gets a nonsense mutation *genes downstream of the polar mutation have reduced or no expression
59
fim operon: OFF phase
FimB and FimE are expressed fim promoter faces the inverse direction
60
phase variation
a reversible switch between on/off expressing phase
61
fim operon: ON phase
only FimB is expressed fim promoter faces the forward direction
62
post-transcriptional regulation: Attenuation and the trp operon
trp operon has a leader peptide which encodes 2 complimentary stem loops: regular + termination signal with U poly-track
63
when cell has enough tryptophan, there will be lots of...... ribosome will translate........and a ........loop will form
trp-tRNA's leader peptide termination stem
64
when cell is low on tryptophan, there will be a lack of...... ribosome will stall on...... and an........loop will form between regions.....and......
trp-tRNA's leader peptide anti-terminator stem 2 and 3
65
what are mutations
any heritable change in the DNA sequence of a cell
66
where do mutations come from
mistakes during cell division exposure to DNA-damaging agents in environment
67
5 major outcomes of mutations
increase decrease change eliminate no effect
68
3 major classes of mutations
base substitutions indels structural variants
69
base substitutions + 3 types
most common mutation silent--> same amino acids produced missense--> different amino acid produced nonsense--> early stop codon
70
outcome of base substitution is increased function only if........
the cell needs higher expression of the gene/operon
71
indels are common but generally restricted to.......regions
repetitive
72
indel mutations
insertion/ deletion frameshift - extensive missense
73
effect of +/- 3 indel
gain or lose amino acid
74
structural variants are more rare, but effects are.......
larger
75
structural variants
large deletions/ insertions gain/loss of gene or operon
76
6 types of structural variants
deletion insertion tandem duplication interspersed duplication inversion translocation
77
2 theories ab mutations/evolution
selection neutral
78
selection theory
mutations = deleterious or advantageous natural selection can act on them all
79
neutral theory
mutations = rarely advantageous; mostly deleterious or neutral natural selection cannot act on neutral (no phenotype)
80
whether a mutation is good/bad/neutral depends on.......
its environment
81
microbes have the lowest...........but they have huge population sizes which = quick........
mutation rates evolution
82
1.0x 10^6 mutations/mL/generation 1 % mutations are beneficial = ?
10,000 beneficial mutations per generation
83
stress-induced mutagenesis
stressful conditions temporarily increase replicative mutation rate
84
WT mutation rate
higher/steeper curve blue
85
hypermutator mutation rate
variability around mode genotype wider/lower red
86
population without mutator cells: before, during, long term effect
before stress: low genetic variability during stress: massive cell death long term: extinction
87
population of constitutive mutators: before, during, long term effect
before stress: high genetic variability during stress: survival of cells carrying mutations long term: expansion of adaptive mutants
88
spontaneously/ subpopulations of transiently mutator cells: before, during, long term effect
before: low overall population mutation rates during: survival of cells w/adaptive mutations generated in transient mutator subpopulation long term: expansion of adaptive mutants/ low overall population mutation rates
89
Ames test
determines of a compound is a mutagen by looking for revertants 1. grow His auxotroph in histidine media 2. take fraction of culture + expose to possible mutagen 3. plate treated+nontreated samples on no-His media 4. count colonies after overnight incubation if possible mutagen contains more colonies than control = mutagen is confirmed
90
vertical gene transfer
transfer of variation from parent to offspring
91
horizontal gene transfer
direct transfer of variation between unrelated cells
92
3 methods for horizontal gene transfer
conjugation, transformation, transduction
93
conjugation
= discussion of transfer of plasmids one bacterium transfers genetic material to another through direct contact
94
transformation
exogenous genetic material is directly taken up and incorporated by a cell through its cell membrane
95
transduction
DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus
96
plasmids are....... acquired and........ transmitted
horizontally vertically
97
low copy number
less than 5 copies can be larger bc few
98
medium copy number
5-50 copies
99
high copy number
50-hundreds copies
100
can't maintain large plasmids @ high copy number bc......
it's energetically draining
101
replication regulation is related to the plasmid's......
oriP 1 oriP detected, plasmid can replicate
102
low copy double plasmids w/ similar trip cannot replicate bc......
2 oriP's would be detected, can't replicate; one oriP would be lost in next generation
103
replication of high copy number plasmids is........
unregulated
104
high copy plasmids are partitioned into offspring cells......
randomly
105
conjugation requires a..........
sex pilus
106
this sex plus is........encoded
plasmid
107
donor cell
contains plasmid encoding pilus
108
recipient cell:
does not contain plasmid
109
5 functional types of plasmids
fertility F resistance R Col Degrative Virulence
110
F plasmid function
1. donor cell attaches w/pilus, draws cells together 2. cells contact one another 3. one strand of plasmid DNA transfers 4. recipient synthesizes a complimentary strand to become an F+ cell; donor synthesizes a complementary strand, restoring its complete plasmid
111
why is conjugation is risky?
expression of the pills results in susceptibility to bacteriophage
112
R plasmids
for resistance to antimicrobials, heavy metals, acid, stresses
113
Col
encode proteins that kill surrounding bacteria, colicines
114
degrative plasmids
for genes that allow bacteria to break down a new substance
115
virulence
encode genes that make the bacterium a better pathogen
116
naive cells can acquire new functions from.....of plasmids
HGT
117
plasmids are expensive to maintain and can be lost if they aren't...........
actively needed
118
recombination ensures that function is.......
retained long term
119
phage (bacteriophage)
viruses that specifically infect bacterial cells
120
phage receptors
cell surface proteins that are often targeted by phages for cell access
121
common phage receptors
flagella, pili, iron transporters, LPS
122
only........phage can form a prophage and intergrate into the genome
temperate
123
cryptic prophages
prophages acquire mutations that trap them on the bacterial chromosome
124
deletion of different prophages from E Coli results in.........
reduced stress tolerance (reduced growth)
125
transformation
free DNA from the environment is incorporated into a recipient cell and brings about a genetic change
126
competent
able to take up DNA and be transformed
127
genetically determined
requires the use of genetically encoded DNA uptake machinery
128
chemically induced
E. coli must be requires cells to be treated with chemicals that permeabilize their membranes, allowing DNA to enter the cell
129
genetically determines competence process
1. bacterium lyses and releases its cell contents and DNA 2. cell surface proteins on competent recipient cell binds a DNA fragment 3. recipient cell uptakes a single strand of the free DNA fragment 4. RecA recombination protein facilitates the integration of DNA fragment into the bacterial genome 5. competent cell permanently retains new function encoded by the once exogenous DNA
130
how is E. coli made chemically competent
CaCl2 and heat shock = make membrane permeable