Week 6 Flashcards
1
Q
Pages 500-498 of the company journal are reserved for what?
A
Chief visits. Regs 15
2
Q
Pages 497-495 of the company journal are reserved for what?
A
Drills. Regs 15
3
Q
Pages 494- of the company journal are reserved for what?
A
MSU. Regs 15
4
Q
How long is the company journal retained for?
A
20 years. Regs 15
5
Q
What is the most important rule when parking the fire apparatus on AFID?
A
Never double park. SB 3
6
Q
What do you not do when parking the apparatus on BI?
A
Double park, park in bus stop, alongside building materials located beyond sidewalk, into intersection, blocking flow of vehicular traffic. SB 3
7
Q
What are the 3 injury classifications?
A
SCML, Remainder of the tour, Minor. SB 7
8
Q
What injuries are not minor?
A
Burns other than 1st Chest pain Sprains and strains with swelling or discoloration Injury resulting in LOC SOB SB7
9
Q
When is notification required for non bio exposure?
A
With symptoms. SB 7
10
Q
If injury occurred at a non response, what numbers are put in the FDID?
A
All 9’s. SB 7
11
Q
All available injury/exposure information must be submitted within how many days?
A
No later than 7 days. With or without members signature or narrative. SB 7
12
Q
If _____ or more members are injured at the same incident, requiring medical leave, a multiple member injury report is required.
A
3 or more. SB 7
13
Q
Who is the multiple member injury report forwarded to?
A
Chief of Ops. SB 7
14
Q
When concrete is being poured in buildings under construction, how often is a floor poured?
A
One every other day. SB 66
15
Q
When pouring concrete floors, how far apart are shoring studs placed?
A
One every four feet on center. SB 66
16
Q
Where is the extra lumber found in buildings under construction?
A
Two floors below the most recently poured floor. SB 66
17
Q
By looking at wood shoring in buildings under construction, how can you determine if it is in the reshoring stage?
A
Studs placed approximately 8’ apart. SB 66
18
Q
If your unit is assigned to remove window bars, where do you initially start?
A
One window on fire floor and floor above. SB 84
19
Q
What provides a greater degree of protection from a bullet, cover or concealment?
A
Cover. Concealment simply conceals an individual from view. SB 89
20
Q
T/F operations indicating an active shooter should always be transmitted with the mixer off.
A
False. Mixer on since it is critical information for responding units.
21
Q
How far from the building line should the aerial ladder apparatus be placed to ensure a good climbing angle?
A
25-35’. FFP Lad 2
22
Q
What is the recommended distance from AL tip to objective?
A
2-6” 2 for a rescue. FFP Lad 2
23
Q
The AL tip should be less than ______ over the window sill.
A
Less than 6” FFP Lad 2
24
Q
AL placement alongside a fire escape?
A
2” away from the face of the building and about 1-3’ above. FFP Lad 2
25
What is a narrow frontage building?
30' or less in width. FFP Lad 2
26
What is a large frontage building?
Over 30' in width. FFP Lad 2
27
If no conditions exist in front of a building requiring a definite position, where do you place turntable?
15' from the side wall passed on approach. FFP Lad 2
28
What is the preferential order for removal of people?
IHFLR.
```
Interior stairs.
Horizontal exits
Fire escapes.
Ladders
Rope (LSR). FFP Lad 2
```
29
When placing the AL to the roof, extend the ladder so that it is how far over contact point?
At least 5' FFP Lad 2
30
The inboard side of the AL apparatus should be placed not more than how many feet from the building?
No more than 35' from the building line. FFP Lad 2
31
After what stage of the fire are salvage operations in the fire area carried out?
Under control. TB Salvage
32
When do salvage operations begin?
With the initial attack and continue throughout operations and overhaul. TB Salvage
33
What are the three types of atmospheric hazards?
Asphyxiant, Toxic, Explosive. TB Confined Space
34
T/F As per confined space, every member entering a confined space must be secured via their personal harness to a life saving rope.
False. Must be secured with bowline on bight and slippery hitch. TB Confined Space.
35
According to confined space what is the weight capacity of the tower ladder?
At least 800 lbs. TB Confined Space
36
According to confined space what is the weight capacity of the aerial ladder?
250 lbs. TB Confined Space
37
According to confined space, what is the safe atmospheric level of carbon monoxide?
0 to 35 ppm. TB Confined Space
38
According to confined space, what is the safe atmospheric level of oxygen?
19.5 - 23.5%. TB Confined Space
39
According to confined space, what is the safe atmospheric level of Hydrogen Sulfide?
Not over 10ppm Hydrogen Sulfide. TB Confined Space
40
According to confined space, what is the safe atmospheric level of flammability?
Not over 10% LEL. TB Confined Space
41
How many blasts of the dry chem extinguisher are to be used at mailbox fires?
None. 3 short blasts of CO2 extinguisher only. Wait two minutes. TB Fires 1
42
Who is notified if a dog bites a member?
EMS, PD, Board of Health, ACC if stray, Medical Officer. TB Fires 2
43
Lexan has _____ times more impact resistance than safety glass.
250 times. TB Fires 4
44
What is the fastest and most effective way to cut Lexan?
Portable Power Saw with Carbide Tipped Blade. TB Fires 4
45
A red chute door at a project indicates what?
Incinerator. TB Fires 7
46
A gray chute door at a project indicates what?
Compactor. TB Fires 7
47
If you open a chute door and smoke comes out, where is the blockage usually located?
Above that floor. TB Fires 7
48
If you open a chute door and draft goes in or there is little smoke, where is the blockage usually located?
Below that floor, or has freed itself. TB Fires 7
49
What is the temperature that will cause activation of a compactor sprinkler?
135 degrees F. TB Fires 7
50
Where does the officer and inside team go for a fire in a compactor chute?
To the compactor room. Shut off power before operations commence. TB Fires 7
51
Which units at a collapse should be used to seal the ends of the street?
Two of the second alarm engine companies. TB Collapse
52
What is the order of priority for engine company operations at a collapse?
Active fire, exposures, vehicles. TB Collapse
53
What is the responsibility of the first engine company at a collapse?
Water supply. Stretch 2 1/2 to cover entire site. TB Collapse
54
What is the responsibility of the second engine company at a collapse?
Assist first engine. ENSURE 3 1/2 stretched for tower ladder. Can perform CFRD. TB Collapse
55
Which unit at a collapse is responsible for marking the hazard area with tape?
First ladder company. TB Collapse
56
What is the overall responsibility of the first ladder at a collapse?
Recon. Visual void search. Take victims to CCP. TB Collapse
57
What is the responsibility of the second ladder at a collapse?
Utilities. Verify with dispatcher. Gas. Electric. Water. TB Collapse
58
What are the responsibilities of the street coordination manager at a collapse?
```
Contact PD/EMS for traffic.
Ensure access/egress.
Position rigs for most efficient use.
Apparatus staging area.
Coordinate CCP with EMS officer. TB Collapse
```
59
One long (3 second) horn blast at collapse.
SHH Cease operations/Quiet TB Collapse
60
Three short (1 second each) horn blast at collapse?
RUN. Evacuate the area. TB Collapse
61
1 long and 1 short horn blast at collapse?
Resume operations. TB Collapse
62
What are the five stages of the collapse rescue operation?
Recon, Surface victims, Search voids, Selected debris and tunneling, General debris. TB Collapse
63
What is the time frame for crush syndrome?
Usually 4-6 hours but possibly less than an hour. TB Collapse
64
How do you differentiate an old search assessment marking from a new one?
Cross old one out. TB Collapse
65
What is in the left quadrant of the search assessment marking system?
Company. One slash upon entry. TB Collapse
66
When is the second slash made on the search assessment marking system/
Upon exit from area. TB Collapse
67
What is in the top quadrant of the search assessment marking system?
Time and date OUT. TB Collapse
68
What is in the right quadrant of the search assessment marking system?
Hazards. TB Collapse
69
What is in the bottom quadrant of the search assessment marking system?
Number of victims live or dead STILL INSIDE. TB Collapse
70
What is the size of the Victim Location marking system/
2' high. TB Collapse
71
When is a circle put around the V in the victim location marking system?
When location of potential victim has been confirmed. TB Collapse
72
When is a horizontal line put through the middle of the V in the victim location marking system?
Victim confirmed deceased. TB Collapse
73
When is a vertical line put through the middle of the V in the victim location marking system?
When victim has been removed from specific location identified by marking. TB Collapse
74
Odor of nerve agent.
Fruity. ERP A2
75
Outward signs of exposure to nerve agent.
SLUDGEM. ERP A2
76
Type of agent. Tabun
Nerve. ERP A2
77
Type of agent. Sarin.
Nerve. ERP A2
78
Type of agent. Soman.
Nerve. ERP A2
79
Type of agent. VX.
Nerve. ERP A2
80
Odor of blister agent.
Garlic. ERP A2
81
Type of agent. Mustard.
Blister. ERP A2
82
Type of agent. Lewisite.
Blister. ERP A2
83
Odor of blood agent.
Burnt almonds. ERP A2
84
Type of agent. Hydrogen cyanide.
Blood agent. ERP A2
85
Type of agent. Cyanogen chloride.
Blood agent. ERP A2
86
Odor of choking agent.
Chlorine or grass. ERP A2
87
Type of agent. Ammonia.
Choking. ERP A2
88
Type of agent. Phosgene.
Choking. ERP A2
89
First Ladder Team 1 Chemical Attack in Subway.
Evac and Hazard ID. ERP A2
90
Who marks the route for CPC teams with search ropes at a chemical attack in the subway?
First ladder team 1. ERP A2
91
First Ladder Team 2 Chemical Attack in Subway.
Back up. ERP A2
92
Who establishes the communications relay at a chemical attack in the subway?
First ladder team 2 AND first LCC. ERP A2
93
Who establishes the initial warm zone using barrier tape of utility rope at an underground chemical attack?
Second ladder team 2. ERP A2
94
Second Ladder Team 1 Chemical Attack in Subway.
Evac to gross decon. ERP A2
95
Second Ladder Team 2 Chemical Attack in Subway.
Site Access Control. ERP A2
96
At a chemical attack underground, who provides the IC with an estimate on the number of victims?
First engine company. ERP A2
97
At a chemical attack underground, who informs second ladder and IC if victims collapse on way to Gross Decon Area?
First engine company. ERP A2
98
Black tag.
No transport/Deceased. ERP A3
99
Red tag.
Immediate transport/Critical ERP A3
100
Orange tag.
Life threatening/Urgent. ERP A3
101
Yellow tag.
Non ambulatory/Delayed. ERP A3
102
Green tag.
Walking wounded/Minor. ERP A3
103
HT and cell phones shall not be used within how many feet of a suspected device?
150' ERP A3
104
Apparatus, Post and Marine radios shall not be used within how many feet of a suspected device?
300' ERP A3
105
T/F members assigned to a staging area at an explosive incident shall search the area for explosive devices and notify IC and NYPD if found.
False. Survey the area, visual observation only. ERP A3
106
At an explosive incident, all victims are brought to where?
Triage transfer point, where they are directed to the appropriate treatment area. Red tags go to transportation sector. ERP A3
107
What does the first unit on scene at an explosive incident confirm over the department radio?
Location of the POI using plain language. ERP A3
108
If the first ladder company is not on scene, what should first engine officer determine while the members are stretching 2 1/2" line?
Number of victims
ICP Location
Triage Transfer Point Location
Preferred route for evac and rescue corridor. ERP A3
109
What color victims are tagged in the POI?
Black tags. ERP A3
110
At an explosive incident, if there is no threat of fire, what tools does the first engine remove from apparatus.
Skeds, CFR. ERP A3
111
At an explosive incident, what tools does second engine remove from apparatus?
Skeds, CFR. ERP A3
112
What duty does the second engine officer assume until relieved by a BC?
Remain at triage transfer point.
Number of patients
ID info.
Patient tag designation.
Location removed to. ERP A3
113
If additional engine companies at an explosive incident are assigned to the medical branch, what tools do they bring?
Skeds, CFR. ERP A3
114
At an explosive incident, what information should the first ladder officer determine after entering the POI?
Number of victims.
Location of ICP.
Triage Transfer Point.
Preferred route for evac and removal of victims. ERP A3
115
If the distance to the triage transfer point is too long, who can establish the patient relay point?
First Ladder Company. ERP A3
116
Where does the second ladder company report to at an explosive incident?
Triage transfer point and assist with removal of patients to treatment area or transportation sector. ERP A3
117
For an explosive incident in the subway, which unit will conduct the initial recon of the POI?
Second Ladder. First will be establishing the CORE relay. ERP A3
118
Where does first BC report to at an explosive incident?
IC. ERP A3
119
Where does second BC report to at explosive incident?
Triage Transfer Point. ERP A3
120
Where does third BC report to at an explosive incident?
POI. ERP A3
121
Where does fourth BC report to at an explosive incident?
Transportation Sector. ERP A3
122
At an explosive incident, how often is the IC and Medical Branch director updated as to the number of red tagged patients remaining at the triage transfer point?
Every 15 minutes. ERP A3
123
Low explosives detonate at what speed?
Less than 3000 ft/sec. ERP A3
124
High explosives detonate at what speed?
Greater than 3000 ft/sec. ERP A3
125
Who is notified upon discovery of any type of lab?
BC, DC, HM, NYPD, BFI. ERP A3
126
Suffix "K"
Division Task Force. ERP A3
127
What is the hazard with Alpha radiation particles?
Inhalation hazard. ERP A4
128
What is the hazard with Beta radiation particles?
Inhalation and penetration. ERP A4
129
What is the hazard with Gamma particles?
Whole body. ERP A4
130
What is the hazard with Neutron particles?
Whole body. ERP A4
131
What is the shielding for Alpha particles?
Intact skin, Inches of air, Sheet of Paper. ERP A4
132
What is the shielding for Beta particles?
1" of Plastic, Aluminum, Glass. ERP A4
133
What is the shielding for Gamma particles?
Several inches of Lead, Concrete, Steel, foot of dirt or water. ERP A4
134
What is the shielding for Neutron particles?
High hydrogen content, 3' water, 1' concrete, 10" plastic. ERP A4
135
At what rate does the Rad 50 alarm?
1 mR/hr. ERP A4
136
At what rate do we establish the hotline?
2 mR/hr. ERP A4
137
What rate doe the Rad 50 saturate at?
50 mR/hr. ERP A4
138
What is the normal background radiation rate for the NYC area?
0.02 mR/hr to 0.05 mR/hr. ERP A4
139
What must happen before a radiological incident can be declared an incident or emergency?
Readings must be confirmed by a second meter. ERP A4
140
Initial operations for victim rescue and fire suppression should not be impeded for rates in what range?
The mR/hr range. ERP A4
141
What is the FDNY decision dose for lifesaving during a catastrophic event?
50 REM. ERP A4
142
What is the FDNY decision dose for lifesaving or protection of large populations?
25 Rem. ERP A4
143
What is the FDNY decision dose for protection of major property?
10 Rem. ERP A4
144
What is the FDNY decision dose for general operations at a radiological emergency?
5 Rem. ERP A4
145
Radiation fallout from an IND does not occur for approximately ______ minutes after detonation, units responding should not enter area of detonation for at least ______ minutes.
15/15. ERP A4
146
As distance from a radiological source _______, the intensity drops to ______ of original.
Distance doubles, intensity drops to 1/4. ERP A4
147
At a radiological incident, does the warm zone encircle the hotline?
No, it is a small defined area used for decon or as SRA. ERP A4
148
At radiological incidents, if meter readings are still ______ above background consider additional decontamination procedures.
Twice above background. ERP A4
149
The Rad 50 shall be left in what mode for proper operation?
Audio. ERP A4
150
What is the alarm level for the Rad 50?
1 mR/hr. ERP A4
151
The Rad 50 requires how long to indicate readings on the LCD?
1 full minute. However will audible alarm. ERP A4
152
When metering with the Rad 50, how far away should the user hold the alpha port (top of unit) away?
1-2" ERP A4
153
At radiological incidents, what rate do we establish the Hotline at?
2 mR/hr. ERP A4
154
When is the 9V battery in the Rad 50 changed?
JAJO. ERP A4
155
Where do Fire units carry their KI kits?
In the apparatus glovebox. ERP A4
156
What types of radiation is the Ultraradiac used to detect?
Gamma and XRay. ERP A4
157
What button is pressed on the Ultraradiac to see the stay time?
Press alarm button to see the stay time. ERP A4
158
A blinking ____ on the UltraRadiac indicates it has passed all tests.
"9" ERP A4
159
A blinking _____ on the UltraRadiac indicate it has failed, and is OOS.
"0" ERP A4
160
What is the low RATE alarm for the UltraRadiac?
2mR/hr. ERP A4
161
What is the low DOSE alarm for the UltraRadiac?
5 R. ERP A4
162
What is the high RATE alarm for the UltraRadiac?
50 R/hr. ERP A4
163
What is the high DOSE alarm for the UltraRadiac?
12 R. ERP A4
164
On response to a Class E or J, how many minutes after resetting the alarm does the officer remain to assure that it holds?
2-3 minutes. ABC 5/94
