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12 Week Reading > Week 6 > Flashcards

Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Pages 500-498 of the company journal are reserved for what?

A

Chief visits. Regs 15

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2
Q

Pages 497-495 of the company journal are reserved for what?

A

Drills. Regs 15

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3
Q

Pages 494- of the company journal are reserved for what?

A

MSU. Regs 15

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4
Q

How long is the company journal retained for?

A

20 years. Regs 15

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5
Q

What is the most important rule when parking the fire apparatus on AFID?

A

Never double park. SB 3

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6
Q

What do you not do when parking the apparatus on BI?

A

Double park, park in bus stop, alongside building materials located beyond sidewalk, into intersection, blocking flow of vehicular traffic. SB 3

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7
Q

What are the 3 injury classifications?

A

SCML, Remainder of the tour, Minor. SB 7

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8
Q

What injuries are not minor?

A 
Burns other than 1st
Chest pain
Sprains and strains with swelling or discoloration
Injury resulting in LOC
SOB SB7
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9
Q

When is notification required for non bio exposure?

A

With symptoms. SB 7

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10
Q

If injury occurred at a non response, what numbers are put in the FDID?

A

All 9’s. SB 7

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11
Q

All available injury/exposure information must be submitted within how many days?

A

No later than 7 days. With or without members signature or narrative. SB 7

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12
Q

If _____ or more members are injured at the same incident, requiring medical leave, a multiple member injury report is required.

A

3 or more. SB 7

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13
Q

Who is the multiple member injury report forwarded to?

A

Chief of Ops. SB 7

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14
Q

When concrete is being poured in buildings under construction, how often is a floor poured?

A

One every other day. SB 66

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15
Q

When pouring concrete floors, how far apart are shoring studs placed?

A

One every four feet on center. SB 66

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16
Q

Where is the extra lumber found in buildings under construction?

A

Two floors below the most recently poured floor. SB 66

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17
Q

By looking at wood shoring in buildings under construction, how can you determine if it is in the reshoring stage?

A

Studs placed approximately 8’ apart. SB 66

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18
Q

If your unit is assigned to remove window bars, where do you initially start?

A

One window on fire floor and floor above. SB 84

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19
Q

What provides a greater degree of protection from a bullet, cover or concealment?

A

Cover. Concealment simply conceals an individual from view. SB 89

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20
Q

T/F operations indicating an active shooter should always be transmitted with the mixer off.

A

False. Mixer on since it is critical information for responding units.

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21
Q

How far from the building line should the aerial ladder apparatus be placed to ensure a good climbing angle?

A

25-35’. FFP Lad 2

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22
Q

What is the recommended distance from AL tip to objective?

A

2-6” 2 for a rescue. FFP Lad 2

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23
Q

The AL tip should be less than ______ over the window sill.

A

Less than 6” FFP Lad 2

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24
Q

AL placement alongside a fire escape?

A

2” away from the face of the building and about 1-3’ above. FFP Lad 2

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25
Q

What is a narrow frontage building?

A

30’ or less in width. FFP Lad 2

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26
Q

What is a large frontage building?

A

Over 30’ in width. FFP Lad 2

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27
Q

If no conditions exist in front of a building requiring a definite position, where do you place turntable?

A

15’ from the side wall passed on approach. FFP Lad 2

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28
Q

What is the preferential order for removal of people?

A

IHFLR.

Interior stairs. 
Horizontal exits
Fire escapes.
Ladders
Rope (LSR). FFP Lad 2
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29
Q

When placing the AL to the roof, extend the ladder so that it is how far over contact point?

A

At least 5’ FFP Lad 2

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30
Q

The inboard side of the AL apparatus should be placed not more than how many feet from the building?

A

No more than 35’ from the building line. FFP Lad 2

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31
Q

After what stage of the fire are salvage operations in the fire area carried out?

A

Under control. TB Salvage

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32
Q

When do salvage operations begin?

A

With the initial attack and continue throughout operations and overhaul. TB Salvage

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33
Q

What are the three types of atmospheric hazards?

A

Asphyxiant, Toxic, Explosive. TB Confined Space

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34
Q

T/F As per confined space, every member entering a confined space must be secured via their personal harness to a life saving rope.

A

False. Must be secured with bowline on bight and slippery hitch. TB Confined Space.

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35
Q

According to confined space what is the weight capacity of the tower ladder?

A

At least 800 lbs. TB Confined Space

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36
Q

According to confined space what is the weight capacity of the aerial ladder?

A

250 lbs. TB Confined Space

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37
Q

According to confined space, what is the safe atmospheric level of carbon monoxide?

A

0 to 35 ppm. TB Confined Space

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38
Q

According to confined space, what is the safe atmospheric level of oxygen?

A

19.5 - 23.5%. TB Confined Space

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39
Q

According to confined space, what is the safe atmospheric level of Hydrogen Sulfide?

A

Not over 10ppm Hydrogen Sulfide. TB Confined Space

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40
Q

According to confined space, what is the safe atmospheric level of flammability?

A

Not over 10% LEL. TB Confined Space

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41
Q

How many blasts of the dry chem extinguisher are to be used at mailbox fires?

A

None. 3 short blasts of CO2 extinguisher only. Wait two minutes. TB Fires 1

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42
Q

Who is notified if a dog bites a member?

A

EMS, PD, Board of Health, ACC if stray, Medical Officer. TB Fires 2

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43
Q

Lexan has _____ times more impact resistance than safety glass.

A

250 times. TB Fires 4

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44
Q

What is the fastest and most effective way to cut Lexan?

A

Portable Power Saw with Carbide Tipped Blade. TB Fires 4

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45
Q

A red chute door at a project indicates what?

A

Incinerator. TB Fires 7

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46
Q

A gray chute door at a project indicates what?

A

Compactor. TB Fires 7

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47
Q

If you open a chute door and smoke comes out, where is the blockage usually located?

A

Above that floor. TB Fires 7

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48
Q

If you open a chute door and draft goes in or there is little smoke, where is the blockage usually located?

A

Below that floor, or has freed itself. TB Fires 7

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49
Q

What is the temperature that will cause activation of a compactor sprinkler?

A

135 degrees F. TB Fires 7

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50
Q

Where does the officer and inside team go for a fire in a compactor chute?

A

To the compactor room. Shut off power before operations commence. TB Fires 7

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51
Q

Which units at a collapse should be used to seal the ends of the street?

A

Two of the second alarm engine companies. TB Collapse

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52
Q

What is the order of priority for engine company operations at a collapse?

A

Active fire, exposures, vehicles. TB Collapse

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53
Q

What is the responsibility of the first engine company at a collapse?

A

Water supply. Stretch 2 1/2 to cover entire site. TB Collapse

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54
Q

What is the responsibility of the second engine company at a collapse?

A

Assist first engine. ENSURE 3 1/2 stretched for tower ladder. Can perform CFRD. TB Collapse

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55
Q

Which unit at a collapse is responsible for marking the hazard area with tape?

A

First ladder company. TB Collapse

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56
Q

What is the overall responsibility of the first ladder at a collapse?

A

Recon. Visual void search. Take victims to CCP. TB Collapse

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57
Q

What is the responsibility of the second ladder at a collapse?

A

Utilities. Verify with dispatcher. Gas. Electric. Water. TB Collapse

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58
Q

What are the responsibilities of the street coordination manager at a collapse?

A 
Contact PD/EMS for traffic. 
Ensure access/egress. 
Position rigs for most efficient use. 
Apparatus staging area. 
Coordinate CCP with EMS officer. TB Collapse
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59
Q

One long (3 second) horn blast at collapse.

A

SHH Cease operations/Quiet TB Collapse

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60
Q

Three short (1 second each) horn blast at collapse?

A

RUN. Evacuate the area. TB Collapse

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61
Q

1 long and 1 short horn blast at collapse?

A

Resume operations. TB Collapse

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62
Q

What are the five stages of the collapse rescue operation?

A

Recon, Surface victims, Search voids, Selected debris and tunneling, General debris. TB Collapse

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63
Q

What is the time frame for crush syndrome?

A

Usually 4-6 hours but possibly less than an hour. TB Collapse

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64
Q

How do you differentiate an old search assessment marking from a new one?

A

Cross old one out. TB Collapse

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65
Q

What is in the left quadrant of the search assessment marking system?

A

Company. One slash upon entry. TB Collapse

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66
Q

When is the second slash made on the search assessment marking system/

A

Upon exit from area. TB Collapse

67
Q

What is in the top quadrant of the search assessment marking system?

A

Time and date OUT. TB Collapse

68
Q

What is in the right quadrant of the search assessment marking system?

A

Hazards. TB Collapse

69
Q

What is in the bottom quadrant of the search assessment marking system?

A

Number of victims live or dead STILL INSIDE. TB Collapse

70
Q

What is the size of the Victim Location marking system/

A

2’ high. TB Collapse

71
Q

When is a circle put around the V in the victim location marking system?

A

When location of potential victim has been confirmed. TB Collapse

72
Q

When is a horizontal line put through the middle of the V in the victim location marking system?

A

Victim confirmed deceased. TB Collapse

73
Q

When is a vertical line put through the middle of the V in the victim location marking system?

A

When victim has been removed from specific location identified by marking. TB Collapse

74
Q

Odor of nerve agent.

A

Fruity. ERP A2

75
Q

Outward signs of exposure to nerve agent.

A

SLUDGEM. ERP A2

76
Q

Type of agent. Tabun

A

Nerve. ERP A2

77
Q

Type of agent. Sarin.

A

Nerve. ERP A2

78
Q

Type of agent. Soman.

A

Nerve. ERP A2

79
Q

Type of agent. VX.

A

Nerve. ERP A2

80
Q

Odor of blister agent.

A

Garlic. ERP A2

81
Q

Type of agent. Mustard.

A

Blister. ERP A2

82
Q

Type of agent. Lewisite.

A

Blister. ERP A2

83
Q

Odor of blood agent.

A

Burnt almonds. ERP A2

84
Q

Type of agent. Hydrogen cyanide.

A

Blood agent. ERP A2

85
Q

Type of agent. Cyanogen chloride.

A

Blood agent. ERP A2

86
Q

Odor of choking agent.

A

Chlorine or grass. ERP A2

87
Q

Type of agent. Ammonia.

A

Choking. ERP A2

88
Q

Type of agent. Phosgene.

A

Choking. ERP A2

89
Q

First Ladder Team 1 Chemical Attack in Subway.

A

Evac and Hazard ID. ERP A2

90
Q

Who marks the route for CPC teams with search ropes at a chemical attack in the subway?

A

First ladder team 1. ERP A2

91
Q

First Ladder Team 2 Chemical Attack in Subway.

A

Back up. ERP A2

92
Q

Who establishes the communications relay at a chemical attack in the subway?

A

First ladder team 2 AND first LCC. ERP A2

93
Q

Who establishes the initial warm zone using barrier tape of utility rope at an underground chemical attack?

A

Second ladder team 2. ERP A2

94
Q

Second Ladder Team 1 Chemical Attack in Subway.

A

Evac to gross decon. ERP A2

95
Q

Second Ladder Team 2 Chemical Attack in Subway.

A

Site Access Control. ERP A2

96
Q

At a chemical attack underground, who provides the IC with an estimate on the number of victims?

A

First engine company. ERP A2

97
Q

At a chemical attack underground, who informs second ladder and IC if victims collapse on way to Gross Decon Area?

A

First engine company. ERP A2

98
Q

Black tag.

A

No transport/Deceased. ERP A3

99
Q

Red tag.

A

Immediate transport/Critical ERP A3

100
Q

Orange tag.

A

Life threatening/Urgent. ERP A3

101
Q

Yellow tag.

A

Non ambulatory/Delayed. ERP A3

102
Q

Green tag.

A

Walking wounded/Minor. ERP A3

103
Q

HT and cell phones shall not be used within how many feet of a suspected device?

A

150’ ERP A3

104
Q

Apparatus, Post and Marine radios shall not be used within how many feet of a suspected device?

A

300’ ERP A3

105
Q

T/F members assigned to a staging area at an explosive incident shall search the area for explosive devices and notify IC and NYPD if found.

A

False. Survey the area, visual observation only. ERP A3

106
Q

At an explosive incident, all victims are brought to where?

A

Triage transfer point, where they are directed to the appropriate treatment area. Red tags go to transportation sector. ERP A3

107
Q

What does the first unit on scene at an explosive incident confirm over the department radio?

A

Location of the POI using plain language. ERP A3

108
Q

If the first ladder company is not on scene, what should first engine officer determine while the members are stretching 2 1/2” line?

A

Number of victims
ICP Location
Triage Transfer Point Location
Preferred route for evac and rescue corridor. ERP A3

109
Q

What color victims are tagged in the POI?

A

Black tags. ERP A3

110
Q

At an explosive incident, if there is no threat of fire, what tools does the first engine remove from apparatus.

A

Skeds, CFR. ERP A3

111
Q

At an explosive incident, what tools does second engine remove from apparatus?

A

Skeds, CFR. ERP A3

112
Q

What duty does the second engine officer assume until relieved by a BC?

A

Remain at triage transfer point.

Number of patients
ID info.
Patient tag designation.
Location removed to. ERP A3

113
Q

If additional engine companies at an explosive incident are assigned to the medical branch, what tools do they bring?

A

Skeds, CFR. ERP A3

114
Q

At an explosive incident, what information should the first ladder officer determine after entering the POI?

A

Number of victims.
Location of ICP.
Triage Transfer Point.
Preferred route for evac and removal of victims. ERP A3

115
Q

If the distance to the triage transfer point is too long, who can establish the patient relay point?

A

First Ladder Company. ERP A3

116
Q

Where does the second ladder company report to at an explosive incident?

A

Triage transfer point and assist with removal of patients to treatment area or transportation sector. ERP A3

117
Q

For an explosive incident in the subway, which unit will conduct the initial recon of the POI?

A

Second Ladder. First will be establishing the CORE relay. ERP A3

118
Q

Where does first BC report to at an explosive incident?

A

IC. ERP A3

119
Q

Where does second BC report to at explosive incident?

A

Triage Transfer Point. ERP A3

120
Q

Where does third BC report to at an explosive incident?

A

POI. ERP A3

121
Q

Where does fourth BC report to at an explosive incident?

A

Transportation Sector. ERP A3

122
Q

At an explosive incident, how often is the IC and Medical Branch director updated as to the number of red tagged patients remaining at the triage transfer point?

A

Every 15 minutes. ERP A3

123
Q

Low explosives detonate at what speed?

A

Less than 3000 ft/sec. ERP A3

124
Q

High explosives detonate at what speed?

A

Greater than 3000 ft/sec. ERP A3

125
Q

Who is notified upon discovery of any type of lab?

A

BC, DC, HM, NYPD, BFI. ERP A3

126
Q

Suffix “K”

A

Division Task Force. ERP A3

127
Q

What is the hazard with Alpha radiation particles?

A

Inhalation hazard. ERP A4

128
Q

What is the hazard with Beta radiation particles?

A

Inhalation and penetration. ERP A4

129
Q

What is the hazard with Gamma particles?

A

Whole body. ERP A4

130
Q

What is the hazard with Neutron particles?

A

Whole body. ERP A4

131
Q

What is the shielding for Alpha particles?

A

Intact skin, Inches of air, Sheet of Paper. ERP A4

132
Q

What is the shielding for Beta particles?

A

1” of Plastic, Aluminum, Glass. ERP A4

133
Q

What is the shielding for Gamma particles?

A

Several inches of Lead, Concrete, Steel, foot of dirt or water. ERP A4

134
Q

What is the shielding for Neutron particles?

A

High hydrogen content, 3’ water, 1’ concrete, 10” plastic. ERP A4

135
Q

At what rate does the Rad 50 alarm?

A

1 mR/hr. ERP A4

136
Q

At what rate do we establish the hotline?

A

2 mR/hr. ERP A4

137
Q

What rate doe the Rad 50 saturate at?

A

50 mR/hr. ERP A4

138
Q

What is the normal background radiation rate for the NYC area?

A

0.02 mR/hr to 0.05 mR/hr. ERP A4

139
Q

What must happen before a radiological incident can be declared an incident or emergency?

A

Readings must be confirmed by a second meter. ERP A4

140
Q

Initial operations for victim rescue and fire suppression should not be impeded for rates in what range?

A

The mR/hr range. ERP A4

141
Q

What is the FDNY decision dose for lifesaving during a catastrophic event?

A

50 REM. ERP A4

142
Q

What is the FDNY decision dose for lifesaving or protection of large populations?

A

25 Rem. ERP A4

143
Q

What is the FDNY decision dose for protection of major property?

A

10 Rem. ERP A4

144
Q

What is the FDNY decision dose for general operations at a radiological emergency?

A

5 Rem. ERP A4

145
Q

Radiation fallout from an IND does not occur for approximately ______ minutes after detonation, units responding should not enter area of detonation for at least ______ minutes.

A

15/15. ERP A4

146
Q

As distance from a radiological source _______, the intensity drops to ______ of original.

A

Distance doubles, intensity drops to 1/4. ERP A4

147
Q

At a radiological incident, does the warm zone encircle the hotline?

A

No, it is a small defined area used for decon or as SRA. ERP A4

148
Q

At radiological incidents, if meter readings are still ______ above background consider additional decontamination procedures.

A

Twice above background. ERP A4

149
Q

The Rad 50 shall be left in what mode for proper operation?

A

Audio. ERP A4

150
Q

What is the alarm level for the Rad 50?

A

1 mR/hr. ERP A4

151
Q

The Rad 50 requires how long to indicate readings on the LCD?

A

1 full minute. However will audible alarm. ERP A4

152
Q

When metering with the Rad 50, how far away should the user hold the alpha port (top of unit) away?

A

1-2” ERP A4

153
Q

At radiological incidents, what rate do we establish the Hotline at?

A

2 mR/hr. ERP A4

154
Q

When is the 9V battery in the Rad 50 changed?

A

JAJO. ERP A4

155
Q

Where do Fire units carry their KI kits?

A

In the apparatus glovebox. ERP A4

156
Q

What types of radiation is the Ultraradiac used to detect?

A

Gamma and XRay. ERP A4

157
Q

What button is pressed on the Ultraradiac to see the stay time?

A

Press alarm button to see the stay time. ERP A4

158
Q

A blinking ____ on the UltraRadiac indicates it has passed all tests.

A

“9” ERP A4

159
Q

A blinking _____ on the UltraRadiac indicate it has failed, and is OOS.

A

“0” ERP A4

160
Q

What is the low RATE alarm for the UltraRadiac?

A

2mR/hr. ERP A4

161
Q

What is the low DOSE alarm for the UltraRadiac?

A

5 R. ERP A4

162
Q

What is the high RATE alarm for the UltraRadiac?

A

50 R/hr. ERP A4

163
Q

What is the high DOSE alarm for the UltraRadiac?

A

12 R. ERP A4

164
Q

On response to a Class E or J, how many minutes after resetting the alarm does the officer remain to assure that it holds?

A

2-3 minutes. ABC 5/94

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