Wills & Trusts Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

IPFDA 1975 Claim

A

A claim against your estate, on the basis of not being properly financially provided for

  • We cannot say at this stage whether a claim would be successful
  • It would depend on his/her financial situation at the time
  • Cannot stop the person making a claim
  • Advise on the consequences of excluding one potential beneficiary - considerations when making lifetime gifts/drawing up a will
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Settlement option to avoid litigation (IPFDA claim)

A

If an individual has a claim against the client’s estate and the client wants to avoid litigation:
- advise they make a settlement offer = deed of variation to redirect the inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Personal chattels

A

Household items, car (if you own one), jewellery, furniture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The Nil Rate Band (for IHT purposes)

A

£325,000 which is tax free. Anything in your estate above that (the balance), is taxed at 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Undue Influence

A

Undue influence occurs where a testator is coerced into making a will which is against their judgment and contrary to their true intentions. It is coercion which goes beyond persuasion.

Advising a client on a claim:
- the burden of proving it lies with the person making the allegation and the court requires evidence
- the question the court considers is whether the testator acted as a “free agent” when executing the will, not whether the will is fair

The issue:
- if a will is made under undue influence, then it will not be valid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The formal requirements for a will to be valid (s9 Wills 1837)

A

s9 WA 1837 outlines the requirements for a will to be validly executed. It must be in writing and signed by the testator (or someone under their direction), with the testator intending their signature to give effect to the will, and witnesses by two people who sign in the testator’s presence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Attestation clause

A

An attestation clause describes the circumstances under which the will was executed
- there is not a legal requirement to have one for the will to be valid
- however, a properly drafted one raises a presumption that the will is executed in accordance with requirements of s9 WA 1837

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Testamentary capacity

A

A person’s legal and mental ability to make or alter a valid will, meaning they understand the nature of the act, understand the extent of the property they are disposing of and appreciate any moral claims against them.

This means they are mentally capable of making a will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Intermeddling

A

Intermeddling is when a person takes steps indicating that they have accepted their appointment and are fulfilling the duty to administer the estate

For example, obtaining, receiving, or holding the deceased’s assets, forgiving any debt or liability, selling assets, disposing of personal property

  • Acts of common humanity, such as arranging the funeral or reviewing the deceased’s home and contents insurance police does not count as intermeddling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

DMC

A

This is a gift made by someone in contemplation of their imminent death and is made conditional on their death. As this is a deathbed gift, it does not need to follow the usual formalities. The gift becomes effective on death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Saunders v Vautier rule

A

The right of a beneficiary over 18 of sole mind with a vested interest, to compel the trustee to transfer legal title to them, bringing the trust to an end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a codicil?

A

A codicil is used to make changes or additions to an existing will, without making a new one. It is a testamentary document which is intended to be read together with the will

This is useful for minor changes, but if a testator wants to make significant changes, it it better to draft a new will

  • The use of many codicils can make it confusing and more prone to errors
  • For clarity, the codicil should expressly state the extent to which the testator confirms or revokes their earlier will

Effect of a codicil:
- When a testator executes a codicil, this ‘republishes’ the will. This means the will is given effect too as if it had been executed on the date that the codicil was executed (the will is treated as if it was made on the date of the codicil, not the will)
- This can have implications for determining specific legacies or which beneficiary is entitled, as these will be determined by the testator’s assets / beneficiaries at the date of the codicil

Effect of a codicil on unattested amendments:
- If a will has unattested amendments which would not have effect under the general rule as they are made after execution, these can be confirmed by a later codicil
- The codicil must expressly refer to the alterations it confirms and the amendments must be made before codicil is executed

Revocation and revival
- A codicil can revoke a will
- A codicil can revive a will that was previously revoked, but not if it has been destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a precatory trust?

A

This is type of trust where the language used expresses a wish or recommendation as to how the beneficiary should pass on the assets. No formal trust is created and the testator’s wishes are not binding on the beneficiary

  • If the original beneficiary makes the distributions intended by the testator within 2 years of the testator’s death, these are treated for IHT purposes as being gifts made by the testator, and not the original beneficiary
  • However, these rules do not apply for CGT and re-distribution in accordance with the testator’s wishes would be treated as a disposal by the original beneficiary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a resulting trust

A

It is a type of trust which is imposed by law. It returns the beneficial ownership in the trust property back to the settlor (the person who set up the trust for the benefit of the beneficiaries)

  1. Automatic resulting trust - where a transfer on trust wholly or partially fails but the property has been transferred to the trustee (intended trust has failed but legal title has been transferred)
  2. Presumed resulting trust - arises where a legal owner transfer legal title to someone else for no consideration, but there is no evidence of gift or trust. It is presumed that the transferor intended the transferee to hold it on trust for them
    - Gratuitous transfer or pay all/part of purchase price
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is proprietary estoppel?

A

It is an equitable doctrine (a remedy) which allows an individual to informally acquire property rights. This prevents the property owner from dealing with all or part of the land in they way they want because of promises they made to the claimant, and prevents unconscionable conduct

Elements:
1. Assurance - that claimant has or will acquire a right in the property
2. Reliance - there is a link between the assurance and the claimant’s conduct
3. Detriment - detriment in consequence of their reliance
4. Unconscionable - behaviour which shocks the conscience of the court

There are a range of remedies available (court has discretion)
- The remedy should never exceed the claimant’s expectation
- The most obvious remedy is one which satisfies the expectation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a common intention constructive trust

A

A trust founded on common intention of the parties regarding property ownership of a family home, even if it is not legally declared

  • Need common intention and detrimental reliance
  • Can be express or inferred intention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a trustee?

A

A trustee holds property for the benefit of the beneficiaries, as legal owners of the trust property

  • Trustee must be an adult of sound mind
  • It is a voluntary, unpaid role
  • It is good practice to have more than one trustee and joint trustees must act together (unanimously)
  • Trustee role is an active role
  • Fundamental duty is to act honestly and in good faith for the benefit of beneficiaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are trustee duties?

A
  1. Trustee duties
    - Duty to comply with the terms of the trust
    - Duties to exercise functions with prescribed standard of care and skill
  2. Fiduciary duties
    - No conflict duty
    - No profit duty
19
Q

What duties do trustees have for investment?

A

Trustees have an obligation to ensure the trust fund produces income and capital growth, for the benefit of current and future beneficiaries. Trustees have an overriding duty to exercise their investment powers with care and diligence

20
Q

Breach of trust

A

Trustees may only act within their powers. A breach of trust is an act (or failure) to act by a trustee which is not authorised by the trust document or by law

Trustees will breach the trust if:
- Act outside their powers
- Fail to comply with trustee duties

21
Q

What is a fiduciary relationship?

A

The fiduciary is placed in a position of trust and confidence in relation to another (owes a single-minded loyalty) and acts on their behalf or in their interests. In respect of a trust, the trustee has a fiduciary duty:
- Not to create conflict between personal interests and their duties to beneficiaries
- Not to make unauthorised profit from their role as a trustee

22
Q

What is an account of profits?

A

It is a personal claim which requires the trustee to pay the principal an amount equivalent to the profit they have made
- remedy available for breach of the no profit rule (fiduciary duty)

23
Q

What is a constructive trust?

A

This provides protection against insolvency of a beneficiary and allows principal to trace into subsequent profits made by the fiduciary
- It arises by operation of law where it would be unfair to allow a property owner to retain full ownership of an asset

24
Q

Rule in Saunders v Vautier

A

The rule grants adult beneficiaries of sound mind absolute ownership of trust property if they are entitled to the entire beneficial interest. This means beneficiaries can terminate the trust, take control of the assets and distribute them in the shares they choose

25
When can the general statutory power to appoint new trustees be exercised?
1. On the death of a trustee 2. If the trustee is abroad for over a year 3. If an appointed trustee is a minor or lacks mental capacity 4. If trustee wishes to retire, refuses to act or is unfit - May be exercised by the persons nominated in the trust instrument or, if there are no such persons, by the continuing trustees
26
How can trustees protect themselves from liability before taking office?
1. Ouster clause in trust deed/will - can entirely remove some duties 2. Exemption clause - limits/excludes personal liability for anything other than a fraudulent breach. Cannot rely on it if act dishonestly 3. Trustee liability / indemnity insurance - protects against negligent but not fraudulent breaches
27
Personal vs proprietary claim for breach of trust
Personal - Claim for monetary remedy: compensation or account of profits Proprietary - Remedy sought by claim for security interest or beneficial interest - Not affected by bankruptcy/insolvency - Can capture increases in value of traceable proceeds - Does not depend on fault
28
Following vs tracing
Following - Process of following same asset as it moves from hand to hand to located misapplied property Tracing - Process of identifying the new asset which is substituted for the old
29
Equity's darling
A bona fide purchaser for value without notice
30
Dissipation
Applying money in a way that there is no traceable proceed e.g., paying for a pure service or paying off a debt
31
What is a lien?
The right to keep possession of property belonging to another until a debt owed by that person is discharged (become a secured creditor)
32
What is subrogation and when is it used?
Allows a person who discharges the debt of another person to have or share in the benefit of the rights the creditor has - used where misapplied trust money is dissipated to pay off a debt - the beneficiary steps into the shoes of a creditor - useful for secured debts
33
Can trustees offset losses against gains?
- In general, they cannot set off losses caused by breach of trust against profits made on other investments or trades - It is possible to offset losses against gains that arise from the same transaction
34
Process to calculate IHT on lifetime transfers (failed PET and LCT)
A. Calculate cumulative total (total chargeable value of all chargeable transfers in the past 7 years) - This shows how much of the NRB is available for a particular transfer B. Identify value transferred C. Apply exemptions and reliefs D. Apply basic NRB and calculate tax E. Apply taper relief (3-7 years) F. Give credit for tax paid in lifetime (LCT) - Steps E and F only apply if the tax is being calculated after death Liability to pay tax falls on the donee, rather than the estate
35
Process to calculate IHT on death estate
1. Calculate cumulative total 2. Identify and value the assets in taxable estate 3. Deduct debts/expenses 4. Apply exemptions & reliefs 5. Apply RNRB 6. Apply basic NRB and calculate tax
36
What are the options available when a trustee misapplies trust funds?
1. Sue the trustee for breach of trust 2. Sue a third party who has assisted breach of trust 3. Make a claim against misapplied property or traceable proceeds 4. Sue a third party for knowing receipt - who knowingly received traceable proceeds of the breach
37
What is dissipation?
There is no exchange or no product which represents the use of the money Example: paying of a debt is dissipation of money
38
Proprietary claims (unmixed funds / wrongful mixture / innocent mixture)
Unmixed funds - Beneficial ownership - proprietary claim (elect between claiming the asset or a charge over the asset) - Lien (if decreased in value) - Personal claim for breach of trust Wrongful mixture - Proportionate share (if the asset increases in value); or - Enforce a lien (if asset has decreased in value) Innocent mixture - Proportionate share - beneficiary can only claim a proportionate share (regardless of whether asset increases or decreases in value) and innocent parties must be treated equally Subrogation - Only available if proceeds are used to fully pay off a secured debt If no traceable proceeds: - Consider if a personal claim is available
39
Defences to equitable proprietary claim
A purchaser of a legal interest without notice of the trust: cannot make a proprietary claim against the purchaser who has no notice of the breach - However, this does not apply to someone who is gifted the property who does not have knowledge of the trust
40
Personal claims vs proprietary claims
Personal claims - claim for monetary remedy: - equitable compensation or account of profits - these claims are made against an individual Proprietary claim - a claim made against an asset, which is used where it is possible to identify the traceable proceeds of a breach of trust. Proprietary remedy: - security interest (charge / lien) - beneficial interest under a trust - Benefits of proprietary claim: ringfence against insolvency and beneficiary can capture increases in value of asset - To make a proprietary claim, must be able to identify an asset which represents the proceeds of breach Structure: 1. Tracing 2. Is there a possible proprietary claim? 3. If not, is there a personal claim (against trustee or third party who assisted / received the breach)
41
Inheriting the residuary estate
X will inherit all of y's assets, once tax and costs have been paid, [except for any gifts made to other beneficiaries]... - If they are an adult = this is given to them directly - If the are a child = need to explain that it is held on trust Distribution explain: - Who is inheriting what - explain clearly what assets/gifts/amount - How they inherit - do they receive it/trust? - Explain what happens in real/practical terms
42
Advising a client on options as to how they leave their estate
Consider: - Inheritance/distribution under a trust - Entitlement (certainty of entitlement and when they become entitled) - How to leave different assets - Tax implications - How might the beneficiaries/family members feel?! Consider personal element (family might feel vulnerable if inheritance is decided by a trustee under discretionary trust) Potential options (consider adv. disadv.) - Life interest trust - Discretionary trust - Fixed trust - Outright gift Trusts (different types) vs outright gift: - Trustee appointment - Entitlement - fixed/discretionary/life tenant vs remainderman - Beneficiaries may feel uncertain/vulnerable if their inheritance is dependent on trustees - Tax
43
What is the value of the net estate for taxation purposes (IHT calculation)?
The net estate is the value of the assets of the taxable estate, after debts have been deducted but before exemptions and reliefs are applied - Step 4 in IHT calculation Net estate is relevant: - To work out if RNRB is available (value over £2million and RNRB tapers)