Wings Powerpoint Flashcards
(197 cards)
1
Q
When can you operate SVFR?
What are the restrictions?
A
- By day
- authorised by ATC
- clear of cloud
- 800m vis
- speed that allows pilot to see and avoid
2
Q
Light signals to aircraft
A
Steady green - clear to land/take off if no risk of collision exists
Steady red - give way & continue circling/stop
Flashing green - return for landing/clear to taxi if no risk of collision exists
Flashing red - unsafe dont land/taxi clear of landing area
White flashes - return to starting point
3
Q
VMC criteria class c below 10000ft
A
5km vis
1000ft vertical
1500m lateral
4
Q
Class d VMC
A
5km vis
500ft below
1000ft above
600m lateral
5
Q
Class g VMC below 1000ft AGL/3000ft AMSL
A
5km vis
Clear of cloud
In sight of ground or water
6
Q
Class g VMC below 700ft with track guidance
A
800m vis
Clear of cloud
- by day/NVIS
- speed that allows pilot to see and avoid
- if less than 10nm from an aerodrome with IAP, maintain 500ft vertical separation from any aircraft within 10nm or aerodrome or conducting IFR
7
Q
Class g VMC below 700ft without track guidance
A
5km vis
500ft vertical
600m lateral
- by day/NVIS
- speed that allows pilot to see and avoid
- if less than 10nm from an aerodrome with IAP, maintain 500ft vertical separation from any aircraft within 10nm or aerodrome or conducting IFR
8
Q
Cruising levels
A
West = even
East = odd
VFR + 500ft
9
Q
INTER and TEMPO times + holding fuels
A
INTER = 30min, 85kg
TEMPO = 60min, 170kg
10
Q
Alternate minima - night VFR
A
Cloud base 1500ft
8km vis
Lighting
- qualified person at aerodrome for the landing (30min prior) to manually switch of lighting in event of failure
- in case of PAL as ADF ACFT, no qualified person required if dual VHF equipped
11
Q
Sources of accurate QNH
A
AAIS
ATC
ATIS
AWIS
CA/GRS
WATIR
12
Q
Radio Comms become inoperative
VFR class g or e
A
- squawk 7600
- remain outside controlled airspace
- continue broadcasting position and intentions on appropriate frequency
- as soon as practicable, descend below 5000ft to continue flight under VFR
13
Q
Radio Comms become inoperative
VFR in class a,b,c,d or IFR
A
- squawk 7600
- continue broadcasting position and intentions
- if certain of remaining VMC, remain VMC and land at most suitable aerodrome
- if IMC or uncertain or remaining VMC:
- maintain last assigned altitude/LSALT (if higher) for 3mins
- after the above, proceed IAW last atc route clearance acknowledged
- commence descent IAW last atc route clearance
- conduct most suitable IAP
14
Q
Separation from populous areas and public gatherings
A
1000ft above highest obstacle within 300m radius
15
Q
VFR, how often must PIC fix ACFT
A
Must positively fix the ACFTs position by visual reference to features marked on topographical charts at intervals not exceeding 30mins
16
Q
How long is QNH accurate for after receiving it?
A
15min
17
Q
Emergency transponder codes
A
7500 = interference
7600 = loss of comms
7700 = in flight emergency
18
Q
The risk of an adverse event as a result of NVIS failure below 500ft AGL is controlled by?
A
- the ACFT ability to revert immediately to a non-filtered search or landing light
- the presence of 2 pilots, each of whom is NVIS qualified and equipped and has access to dual flight controls
19
Q
Icing conditions for EC135
A
- Not below 2deg OAT in visible moisture
- When ice detector indicates icing conditions
20
Q
What level of FORECASTED turbulence is permitted for flying operations
A
Flight is permitted in FORECASTED mod/sev turbulence
CRP
21
Q
Can flight continue if severe turbulence is experienced?
A
No
CRP
22
Q
For inspecting the rotor head what safety limits/procedures are there?
A
- WAH and pre flight training
- helmet, flying clothing, lighting
- 3 points of contact
- wind/rain assessed suitable
- 110kg
- sentry
23
Q
To prevent tail strike, what should you back up in landings?
A
10deg NU at <10ft
Watch MMI on deck
24
Q
An ACMN is required for CA’s where ….. rotor diameter clearance from obstructions is not available
A
2 rotor diameter clearance
25
Min height for overwater ops at night?
400ft, other than embarked
26
Min descent altitude for autorotation training
15ft
27
When can you operate overwater without aircrew life rafts?
- overwater within 5nm of coastline
- overwater within 5-10nm above VTOSS
- enclosed waters
- overwater where FST is greater than ERT
28
When should HI NR be on during flight
All the time
29
What is the fixed fuel reserve and can it be used for training
70kg
Can be used for taxiing provided the ACFT remains over a suitable landing surface at all times
30
Unless in emergency/with QFI what is the min altitude an AvWO can manipulate controls
500ft
31
If only one set of NVDs is serviceable during flight, what is your minimum altitude
500ft
32
When hovering/taxiing around stationary ACFT vehicles or structures, what is the minimum lateral clearance
15ft
10ft for marshallers or taxi guidlines
33
Clearance required below the ACFT and rotor disk during IGE hover, taxi, lifting off, touching down
IGE hover = 5ft above obstacles
Taxi, touching down, lifting off = 3ft AO
On the ground = 5ft between blades and obstacles
34
OEL for low level flight
ELT/CVR/UMS/visio camera
RADALT
GTN650 or 750
Sat phone (for remote areas)
35
OEL for night
ELT/CVR/UMS/camera
RADALT
Current GTN database
GTN 650 or 750
Search/landing light
36
OEL for general handling
ELT/CVR/UMS/camera
GTN 650 or 750
37
Max flight hours in a daily period
8 unless extended by an operation order
38
When air temp forecast to be greater than 30deg aircrew must carry
Min of 1litre of water per 1.5hr sortie, per person
39
NFP and FP scan arcs of responsibility
NFP: 8 to 1
FP: 11 to 4
40
Announcing hazards
Caution - obstacle/traffic
Left/right clock code
Distance - close/middle/far
Level - low/middle/high
Direction of movement
Conflict/no conflict
41
“Handing over”
“Taking over”
“I have control”
42
Mandatory ICS items
ENG main switches
ENG mode select switches
ENG EMERG OFF switch
Twist grips
XFER pumps
43
EC135 cruise power and speed
8 FLI
120KIAS
44
Rate of closure for normal, steep and shallow profile approaches
Normal - walking pace
Steep - slow walking pace
Shallow - fast walking pace
45
Audible warnings NR
Steady tone - NR equal to or above 112%
Broken tone - NR equal to or below 97%
Gong - NR equal to or above 106%
46
During a standard climb, what is the altitude to time ratio use for planning?
+1min/2000ft
2000FPM
47
What does DIAFARE stand for
Divert point
Info
Altitude
Fuel
AVRM
RT
Execution
48
You are 20 seconds early at a base speed of 90KIAS
Decelerate to 70KIAS for 90 seconds
49
OEI fuel flow and effect on total fuel
Fuel flow 140kg
Total fuel: minus 50kg
50
What sea state are the EFS rated to?
<2200kg - up to sea state 4
>2200kg - sea state 4 to 6
51
Max flight crew
8
52
Max gross mass
2950
53
Max gross mass during hoist and external load ops
2910
54
Max floor loading
600kg/m2
55
Tie down ring limits
100kg
56
OEI VNE
110
57
Autorotation VNE
90
58
VNE for HI NR failure to decrease above 55kts
VNE minus 25
59
Max speed for wiper use
80kts
60
VTOSS
40
61
VY
65
62
Vmin IFR
60
63
Max wind for starting and stopping rotor
50kts
64
Max rearward wind for IBF operation
30
65
Max angle or bank for slope operations
14 left/right skid
12 nu
8 nd
6 MMI inoperative
>3 deg = A TRIM off
66
Min LOC interception distance
4nm
67
Max LOC interception angle
90deg
68
Max RoD IFR
1500FPM
69
Max hoist load above 0 deg
249kg
70
VNE for hoist operations with extended boom
60KIAS
71
Max AOB with load on hoist
20 deg
72
Max AoB with no load on hoist
30 deg
73
Max number of people on hoist
2
74
Max external load mass
1300kg
75
Max airspeed and AoB for loaded cargo hook operations
100KIAS
30 deg
76
Max airspeed floats inflating/inflated
80KIAS
77
Max RoC with inflated floats and max altitude
1500FPM
5000ft
78
Weather radar safety distances
25ft (7.5m) pers
50ft ACFT/vehicles
100ft refuelling and large metallic structures
79
Departure report for class c/d CTR on first contact with approach
1) direction of turn and assigned heading
2) altitude passing, to nearest 100ft
3) last assigned level
80
When must you be established on track departing from an aerodrome?
Established on track within 5nm of the aerodrome
81
When can ATC authorise a visual approach
IFR
- within 30nm of aerodrome
- can continue with visual reference to ground or water
- visibility along flight path is 800m (for helo) or aerodrome is constantly in sight
VFR
- within 30nm of aerodrome
82
Navigation requirements for VFR
- visual reference can be maintained with the ground or water
- positively fix the ACFT position at intervals not exceeding 30min
- must notify atc if track diverges more than 1nm if operating in controlled airspace
83
VFR on top of more than SCT cloud
- VMC can be maintained during the entire flight including climb, cruise, descent
- visual position fixing can be met
- current forecasts and observations indicate conditions in the area in period of planned descent below the cloud layer will permit decent in VMC
- position at which descent below cloud is planned to occur will ensure VMC flight to be maintained to the destination aerodrome or alternate aerodrome
84
When is an aircraft considered within the vicinity of an aerodrome
10nm and at a height above the aerodrome that could result in a conflict
85
Departure info reporting requirements
Non-surveillance
Departure time
Outbound TRK in degrees magnetic
Intended cruising level
Est. For the first en route reporting point
86
Departure info requirements
Surveillance
Current position
Present level
Intended cruising level
Est for the first en route reporting point
87
Alternate aerodrome planning considerations
- weather
- radio navaids and GPS requirements
- nominated flight rules
- RWY lighting
88
Military VFR alternate requirements
Alternate not required for Army/Navy rotary aircraft operating by day under VFR
89
VFR ACFT alternate
- cloud more than SCT below alternate minima
- vis less than alternate minimum
- vis greater than alternate but prob30 or more of reduced vis below alternate min
- PROB30 or forecasted thunderstorm or severe turbulence
- wind that will exceed aircraft limits
90
Helicopter VMC alternate minima requirements
Cloud more than SCT below 1000ft
Vis < 3000m
91
If mean conditions are forecast to be suitable but there are INTER/TEMPO deteriorations below alternate criteria what must you do?
Hold the fuel for the forecast deterioration
IE 30 or 60min
92
What buffer periods apply for FM and BCMG weather forecasts
Create an operational requirement - 30 min before
Remove an operational requirement - 30 min after
93
When an aerodrome is receiving a TAF3 service, what requirements can you waive?
During the first 3 hours of validity:
- 30 min buffer period for FM and BCMG
- alternate holding fuel required by: PROB30/40 reduction in vis or PROB30/40 of TS or SEV TURB
94
VFR alternate minima class c
Cloud base 1500ft
Vis 8km
95
VFR by night alternate minima when considering navaids
- destination is served by a ground based navaid and the aircraft is fitted with a system capable of using the aid
- ADF - ACFT is fitted with GNSS receiver appropriate for the aircraft to be operated at night under VFR
- Navy - alternate not required for NVD OPS if ACFT is fitted with a suitable navigation system with less than 1nm position error
96
Alternate requirements for runway lighting
- portable: responsible person required to ensure lights are AVBL
- standby power: responsible person required to display portable lights
- PAL: responsible person required to manually turn on lighting
- ADF: PAL don’t need alternate if fitted with dual VHF
Responsible person
- departure: 10 min prior, 30min after
- arrival: 20 min before ETA, after taxi complete
97
Can you waive alternate requirements for runway lighting
Yes
If you hold fuel for first light plus 10 min at the destination
98
Do ADF require to hold alternates due to runway lighting if using NVD/NVG
No
99
What conditions must you maintain whilst operating under SVFR
Clear or cloud
Vis 800m
Speed which allows pilot to see and avoid traffic/obstacles
100
What does established mean?
- within half full scale deflection of the ILS, VOR and GNSS
- within 5 deg of required NDB bearing
- within 2nm of the DME arc
101
What obstacle clearance does MSA provide?
1000ft
102
IFR altimeter limits
Within 60ft
60-75ft can fly to first point of landing and reassess
>75ft U/S
103
VFR altimeter limits
Within 100ft
(110ft at test sites above 3300ft)
104
Circling Areas for aircraft categories
A - 1.68nm
B - 2.66nm
C - 4.20nm
D - 5.28nm
E - 6.94nm
105
When can an aircraft change performance categories?
Must increase category when actual handling speeds are in excess of those determined by Vat
ADF - if able to operate at a lower category IAW speed restrictions, may decrease their category
106
IFR Cruising levels?
East: odd 1000’s
West: even 1000’s
107
When must you report loss of RAIM or GNSS integrity?
- During an en route phase of flight - loss for more than 5 min
- During a terminal phase of flight - loss of integrity
- ATS requests the provision of GNSS derived info - RAIM or GNSS integrity is not available
- ATC grants clearance or imposes a requirement based on GNSS derived info - RAIM/GNSS integrity not available
- The GNSS receiver is in dead-reckoning mode, or experiences a loss of its nav function, for more than 1 minute
108
For an IAP, using the forecasted area QNH you must do what to the minima?
Add 50ft to the minima
109
For a GNSS/DME approach, you must discontinue the approach if the disparity between the VOR/NDB and the GNSS track indication is larger than ____ degrees?
NDB: divergence of more than 6.9 degrees
VOR: divergence of more than 5.2 degrees
110
IAP speeds for CAT H aircraft?
- initial and intermediate approach
- final approach
- max speed for visual manoeuvring
- max speed for missed approach
- initial and intermediate approach = 70-120kts
- final approach = 60-90kts
- max speed for visual manoeuvring = none
- max speed for missed approach = 90kts
111
IAP speeds for CAT A aircraft?
- initial and intermediate approach
- final approach
- max speed for visual manoeuvring
- max speed for missed approach
- initial and intermediate approach = 90-150kts
- final approach = 70-100kts
- max speed for visual manoeuvring = 100kts
- max speed for missed approach = 110kts
112
IFR take off minima MOS
For a rotorcraft that is a qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft, the take off minima are:
A. Cloud ceiling not lower than the height at which the greater of Vy or Vmin IMC can be achieved
B. Visibility of 800m, or 500m if;
- the RWY or final approach and take off area has both illuminated edge lighting at intervals not exceeding 60m, and centreline lighting, that are both supported by a secondary power supply with a switchover capability 1 second or less, and
- where the aerodrome is non-controlled, or is controlled but ATC us not in operation, where radio carriage is mandatory, the take off must be conducted by day
113
What must you do on radio when IFR in class g airspace and cannot contact ATS on the ground?
- Broadcast in place of required reports
- Contact with the ATS is established as soon as practicable after take-off
114
OEL for IMC
- RADALT
- ELT
- WX radar
- Current GTN database
- GTN 650/750
115
DH setting for instrument flight
- Right side = 200ft
- Left side = 999ft
116
Rate 1 turn calculation
(IAS/10) + 7
E.g. 120IAS:
(120/10) + 7 = 19 degrees
117
Instrument Line-up checks
1. HDG: confirm RWY heading on HSI
2. ALT.A: confirm desired altitude is set
3. TAC Radios selected off if using ground based navaids
4. Procedural SID: once in take off position, activate departure or direct to first point in procedure, verify TERM or DPRT is displayed on GTN
5. SID (RADAR) - note assigned heading from ATC (consider setting on HDG bug)
118
Can you plan to fly IMC with freezing levels below LSALT?
No
119
Top of descent calculation
Cruise level - 8000ft
G/S - 120kts
IAF - 3000ft
120 GS x 5 = 600fpm
5000ft/600fpm = approx. 8.5
7.5 x 2nm/min = 17
TOD is 17nm from IAF
120
What does ENALD stand for?
Emergency no aid let down
121
When do you have to match BARALT/RADALT over water?
Day = once established overwater at chosen altitude
Night = prior to descent overwater, or aircraft can be levelled at 1000ft overwater and then BARALT matched to RADALT before any further descent
122
When overwater do you have to set both DH’s to the same value?
Yes
123
Rates of descent for IMC letdown
1000fpm until 1000ft,
Then 500fpm or less
124
Vmin IFR
60kts
125
Min LOC interception distance
4nm
126
Max LOC interception angle
90 degrees
Recommended 45 degrees
127
Max ROD IFR
1500fpm
128
What must an IFR aircraft consider if conducting a visual departure?
- Climb to MSA/LSALT must be conducted in VMC
- If intended cruising level is lower than route LSALT, cloud base must permit VMC at that level
- Visually maintain obstacle clearance
129
Can an IFR flight climb/descend VFR?
Yes
In VMC Class D or E pilot may “request climb/descend VFR”
Pilot must:
- comply with VMC criteria
- comply with IFR procedures: eg position reporting, radio Comms, cleared route
- visually maintain obstacle clearance
130
When may an aircraft be instructed to track via an IAP with a ceiling level restriction?
Military aircraft:
- if conducting non precision approach
- conducting precision approach provided that clearance is issued in sufficient time to allow for aircraft to maintain required descent rate IAW the published procedure
131
What criteria must be met for ATC authorisation for an IFR visual approach?
- Within 30nm of the aerodrome
- Can continue flight to aerodrome with continuous visual reference to the ground or water
- Visibility along the flight path not less than 5000m (800m for helo’s) or the aerodrome is constantly in sight
By night:
- As above + if being vectored the flight has been assigned the MVA and given a HDG/TRK to intercept final or to position within circling area
132
Navigation requirements for IFR flights
- An approved area navigation system that meets performance requirements of the intended airspace or route
- Use of a radio navigation system that allows for possible tracking errors of +/-9 degrees from the last positive fix, the aircraft comes within the rated coverage of the aid and can be used to fix position
- Positive fixes must not exceed 2 hours
- Visual reference to the ground or water by day provided weather conditions permit VMC flight and fixing IAW the above can be maintained
133
Advise ATC on aircraft deviations in controlled airspace
- VOR/TACAN – half scale deflection
- NDB - +/- 5 degrees
- DME - +/- 2NM of the required arc
- Area navigation system – can’t comply with specified RNP value
- Visual reference to ground or water – more than 1NM from the cleared route
134
When must you notify ATC of a RAIM outage?
- Enroute – RAIM loss for more than 5 minutes
- Terminal – any RAIM loss
- The GNSS receiver is in DR mode or experiences loss of navigation function for more than 1 min
135
How long can you lose RAIM before it is considered unreliable?
5 minutes
Aircraft must use another means of navigation until RAIM can be re-established however the ATS unit should be advised of the restoration before returning to the use of GNSS
136
When non-controlled, what must you include in a taxi report to ATS?
- Aircraft type
- POB
- IFR
- Location
- Destination
- Runway to be used
137
When non-controlled, you try to contact ATS for a taxi report but cannot establish Comms.
Can you still take off?
Yes. FIHA ENR 1.1-37 9.1.1
The pilot of an IFR aircraft in class g airspace must attempt to contact ATS on VHF or HF when taxiing. If the pilot is unable to make contact with the air traffic service during taxi, the flight may taxi and take off provided contact is established as soon as possible after take off, and SARTIME for departure, that is a maximum of 30 minutes after commencing to taxi has been established with air traffic services.
138
Departure info reporting requirements - Non-surveillance (not identified)
- Departure time
- Outbound track in degrees
- Intended cruising level
- Estimation for the first en route reporting point
139
Departure info reporting requirements - surveillance (identified)
- Current position
- Present level
- Intended cruising level
- Estimation for the first en route reporting point
140
ADF IFR alternate minima
FIHA ENR 1.1-52 10.7.2.10
Cloud - more than SCT below HAA/HAT +500ft for the approach procedure where only one aid is required. Where 2 aids are required, more than SCT below HAA/HAT +500ft for the approach procedure with the second lowest MDA/DH
Visibility - less than the visibility for the approach +2000m
By day only, for aerodromes without IAP:
LSALT of final route segment +500ft, visibility 8km
141
IFR alternate minima - NAVAIDs
FIHA ENR 1.1-53 10.7.3.1
A) The destination is served by a radio navaid for which IAP procedure has been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with two independent and separate radio nav systems, each of which are capable of using the system
OR
B) The destination is served by 2 radio navaids for which independent and separate IAP procedures have been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with independent and separate radio nav systems capable of using these aids
142
VFR by night alternate minima when considering NAVAIDs
- destination is served by a ground based navaid and the aircraft is fitted with a system capable of using the aid
- ADF – the aircraft is fitted with a GNSS receiver appropriate for aircraft to be operated at night under VFR
- NAVY – alternate not req. for NVD Ops if aircraft is fitted with a suitable navigation system with less than 1NM position error
143
Speeds for aircraft performance categories
- A – up to 90KIAS
- B – 91KIAS to 120KIAS
- C – 121KIAS to 140KIAS
- D – 140KIAS to 165KIAS
- E – 166KIAS to 210KIAS
- H – helicopters
144
Obstacle clearance for aircraft categories
FIHA ENR 1.5-3 1.6.6
- A/B - 300ft
- C/D - 400ft
- E - 500ft
145
Circling areas for aircraft categories
A – 1.68NM
B – 2.66NM
C – 4.20NM
D – 5.28NM
E – 6.94NM
146
When can an aircraft change performance categories?
An aircraft must fit into and be operated IAW only one category. An aircraft;
A) may not reduce category because of reduce operating weight
B) must increase category when actual handling speeds are in excess of those for the category
ADF - provided the aircraft can operate within the limits of the handling speeds, and subject to MAO approval, ADF aircraft may reduce to a lower category
147
What criteria apply to helicopter specific IAP?
Where helicopters are operated similarly to fixed wing they may be classified as CAT A
Procedures specific to helicopters are:
•Designated CAT H
•Promulgated on separate charts
148
When may you deviate from using a minimum route altitude during IAP?
May not descend below LSALT or MSA until the IAF unless:
•Conducting a visual approach
•Conforming to a published DME/GNSS arrival
•Or when assigned an altitude by ATC
149
How much clearance does RTCC (radar terrain clearance charts) provide from obstacles?
1000ft
3nm
150
Can you circle in no circling areas?
Yes, only in day VMC conditions
151
During visual circling, when can you descend below the MDA?
A) maintains the aircraft within the circling area
B) maintains a visibility, along the intended flight path, not less than the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure; and
C) maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (i.e. the runway threshold or approach lighting or other markings identifiable with the runway); and either
D) by night or day, while complying with a., b. and c. and from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg of the landing traffic pattern at an altitude not less than the MDA, can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using rates of descent and flight manoeuvres which are normal for the aircraft type and, during this descent, maintains an obstacle clearance along the flight path not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or
E) in daylight only, while complying with a,b,c maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway
152
When can you descend below the straight-in MDA?
- visual reference can be maintained;
- all elements of the meteorological minima are equal to or greater than those published for the aircraft performance category and
- the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal flight manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.
153
How far offset can a NPA be to a RWY centreline?
CAT A & B - up to 30 degrees offset
CAT C & D - up to 15 degrees offset
154
When can you manoeuvre to align with the RWY centreline
- within the circling area;
- visual reference can be maintained; and
- continuously in sight of ground or water
155
What does ‘visual reference’ refer to?
The runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot and a flight visibility not less than that specified for the procedure
156
When must you execute a missed approach?
A) during the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use; or
B) during an instrument approach and below MSA (as specified on the IAL chart) the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect, or the radio aid fails; or
C) visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the missed approach procedure commences; or
D) landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling;
E) visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach.
157
What minimum obstacle clearance is provided on a missed approach procedure?
100ft
2.5% gradient (152ft/nm)
4.2% gradient (255ft/nm) (helicopter IAP only)
158
The MAPT in a procedure may be:
- the point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the applicable DA; or
- a navigation facility; or
- a fix; or
- a specified distance from the Final Approach Fix (FAF).
159
What must you do if executing a MAPT from within the circling area?
Track for the MAPT and follow the MAP
This involves an initial climbing turn towards the landing RWY and overhead the aerodrome, establishing the aircraft at the MAPT and climbing along the published MAP
160
MAP requirements for GNSS procedures:
- If a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the Initial Approach Fix,
- Provided the RAIM warning ceases when the missed approach is selected on the GNSS equipment, it may be used for missed approach guidance.
- Should the RAIM warning remain when the missed approach is selected, or should there be any doubt about the accuracy of the GNSS, then an alternative means of guidance or dead reckoning must be used to fly the missed approach
161
When may you discontinue an IAP by day?
By Day (ADF - or by night using NVD/NVG).
Within 30NM of that aerodrome at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established;
1) clear of cloud;
2) in sight of ground or water;
3) with a flight visibility not less than 5,000M or, in the case of a helicopter, is able to proceed under helicopter VMC, or the aerodrome is in sight; and
4) subsequently can maintain (1), (2) and (3) at an altitude not less than:
I.if in controlled airspace – 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA unless clearance is received from ATC to depart and re-enter controlled airspace during the descent; and
II. The minimum height prescribed by MAO OIP as relevant to the location of the aircraft
162
When may you discontinue an IAP by night?
At an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established:
1) clear of cloud;
2) in sight of ground or water;
3) with a flight visibility not less than 5,000M; and
4) subsequently can maintain (1), (2) and (3) at an altitude not less than:
i in controlled airspace – 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA unless a clearance is received from ATC to depart and re-enter controlled airspace during descent; and
ii one of the following:
- route segment LSALT/MDA
- the appropriate step of the DME/GNSS arrival procedure
- if being vectored - the last assigned altitude
163
Visibility amendment reqired for a partial RWY lighting failure?
Multiply by factor of 1.5
Only in conditions less than VMC
164
Standard descent gradients
Initial:
Normal - 4%
Max - 8%
Intermediate:
Normal - Level
Max - 5%
Final (non precision):
Normal - 5.2%
Max - 6.5%
Final (precision):
Normal - 3 degrees
Max - N/A
165
When can you commence an IAP without entering the hold?
- In controlled airspace, ATC has cleared the aircraft for the approach;
- In any airspace, for procedures using radio navaids:
1) the reversal procedure entry requirements are satisfied; or
2) the DME arc entry requirements are satisfied; or
3) the en route track to the procedure’s commencement fix or facility is within 30° either side of the first track of the procedure.
- For procedures using GNSS:
1) in any airspace, the aircraft is tracking to an initial approach waypoint from within the capture region for that waypoint; or
2) in controlled airspace, the aircraft is being vectored to intercept the initial approach segment or is tracking direct to the intermediate fix.
Note: “direct to” clearances may be requested to the intermediate fix (IF) provided that the resultant track change at the IF does not exceed 45 degrees
166
Reversal procedures - types and geometry
Draw them up
FIHA ENR 1.5-15 2.8.2
167
Direct entry limitation for entering a reversal procedure?
Within +/- 30 degrees of the outbound track
168
Limitations in holding patterns?
Outbound timing commencement
- Outbound timing begins abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later.
- Time/Distance outbound. The outbound leg must be no longer than:
1) up to and including FL140 - 1MIN or the time or distance limit specified on the chart;
- Turns. All turns in nil wind should be at a bank angle of 25° or Rate One, whichever requires the lesser bank.
169
Rated coverage of VORs below 5000ft and 5000-10 000ft?
Below 5000ft - 60nm
5000ft-10000ft - 90nm
170
Rated coverage or LOC at 2000ft within 10 deg of course line?
25nm
171
Rated coverage of LOC above and below 5000ft?
Below 5000ft - 30nm
Above 5000ft - 50nm
172
You receive the QNH from the ATIS, what can you do to the MDA/DA on the plate?
Reduce by 100ft for 15mins
173
NPID options
- Splay departure
- Circling departure
- Visual climb to conduct missed approach for departure
- Visual departure
174
When IF, when can you land at an aerodrome without an IAP?
Where there is no IAP, an approach can be made;
- by day
- vis > 8km
- cloud above final route segment + 500ft
175
NDB errors
Mountain effect - reflection of mountains
Interference - other NDBs nearby on similar frequency
Night effect - interference from sky waves
Thunderstorm interference - cumulonimbus clouds generate a lot of radio energy that can cause the ADF to fluctuate towards it
Quadrantal error - reflections off the aircraft before reaching the receiver based on the angle
Coastal effects - coastal refraction; the different conductivities of land and water cause the signal to bend
176
What area does RNP2 nav consider?
5nm surrounding and including the departure point, destination, and left/right of the nominal track
177
IFR Standard Take-off Minima SI(NA)?
1. Clear of cloud until achieving the greater of Vy, Vtoss, Vmin IFR
2. RVR/Visability;
A. 550m with runway edge light at not more than 60m intervals and either centreline lighting or markings
B. 800m
178
What emergency training is not permitted IMC?
- UA
- Emergency landing (practice forced landing)
- Flight control malfunctions
- Composite mode
- Partial panel (sole reference to standby AI)
179
‘Appropriate period of time’ - sector 2 entry
Flown outbound for the appropriate period of time from the holding fix, where timing is specified, up to a maximum of 1min 30sec,
Or if earlier;
The appropriate limiting DME distance
180
What is the standard holding pattern direction?
Right turns
181
How much hPa can area QNH be from accurate QNH?
+/- 5 hPa
182
What is an accurate QNH, and what is it used for?
Obtained from ATS, ATIS, AWIS
Used for assessing altimeter tolerances
183
What is an actual QNH?
QNH received from ATC, ATIS, AWIS or BoM
Valid for 15mins
184
What counts as a positive fix IFR?
- Passage of aircraft over an NDB, VOR, TACAN, marker beacon or DME site
- Intersection of 2 or more position lines which intersect at angles not less than 45 degrees; obtained from a combination of NDBs, VORs, TACANs, localisers within their rated coverages
- For only NDBs, must be within 30nm
185
What can be waived during first 3hrs of TAF3?
1. 30min buffers for FM and BCMG periods (holding fuel for deteriorations)
2. Alternate/holding fuel required for PROB30 or PROB40 for;
A. Reduction in vis due fog, mist, dust
B. TS or SEV TURB
186
RNP approach tolerances?
1nm at initial & intermediate
0.3nm in final approach
1nm in missed approach
187
How far from an aerodrome can you use its QNH?
100nm
188
SI(NA) Normal, Limited & Poor Conditions
Normal: 1000ft cloud base and 3km vis
Limited: Clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water, 800m vis, speed sufficient to avoid
- weather must allow visual recovery (‘limited conditions’) at the approach minima for a published instrument approach
Poor: Less than limited conditions
189
Minimum heights overwater?
Not below 50ft by day.
Not below 400ft in IMC (both day & night) or VMC night unaided. Unless:
A) conducting IMC recovery
B) reference to SGSI
190
Coast-out point VMC?
On the coastline
191
Coast out point IMC?
- 2nm off the coast by GPS
- 1nm off the coast with specified RADAR (must be painted)
192
Minimum STODA (Supplementary Take off Distance Available)?
800m
193
Minimum height at end of runway for NPID?
50ft
194
RA 1
Can flight plan through the RA, and expect a clearance from ATC
195
RA 2
Must not plan to fly through, unless on a route specified in ERSA OR under agreement from the controlling authority.
Clearance from ATC is not assured.
196
RA 3
Do not plan to fly through, and clearance will not be available.
197
Can you fly through danger area?
Approval for flight within an active danger area outside of controlled airspace is not required.
It is the pilots responsibility to be aware of the dangerous activity and take appropriate precautions.
