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OMM 101 Written Exams > Written Exam 2 > Flashcards

Written Exam 2 Flashcards

(62 cards)

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1
Q

What happens when there is a dysfunction of the left?

A

The neutral point is shifted to the right

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2
Q

Is soft tissue a direct of indirect technique?

A

Direct technique

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3
Q

What are three mechanisms of treatment for soft-tissue techniques?

A

Traction
Kneading
Inhibition

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4
Q

What are the indications for somatic dysfunction of soft tissues?

A

Tissue texture change
Asymmetry
Restriction
Tenderness

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5
Q

Is counterstrain direct or indirect?

A

Indirect technique

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6
Q

What causes a counter strain point?

A

Proprioceptive imbalance due to abnormal neurophysiologic activity between agonist and antagonist muscles including abnormal muscle spindle activity

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7
Q

What is proprioceptive theory?

A

Tenderpoints develop when muscle fibers are maintained in a hypertonic state due to an inappropriate proprioceptive reflex

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8
Q

What is the abnormal metabolism theory?

A

Tissue injury alters local body position, affecting local microcirculation and tissue metabolism

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9
Q

What is the impaired ligamento-muscular reflex theory?

A

Same as proprioceptive except dysfunction may result from protective reflex that occurs when a ligament is placed under strain

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10
Q

What is the maximum number of counterpoints to treat in one session?

A

6

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11
Q

Direct myofascial release can include what four mechanisms?

A

Shearing force
Pressure
Heat
Electric fields

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12
Q

What is HVLA classified as?

A

Direct, passive

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13
Q

What is muscle energy techniques classification?

A

Direct, active

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14
Q

What causes the relaxation of agonist muscle fibers in post-isometric relaxation?

A

Golgi tendon organs

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15
Q

What is the ratio between humeral abduction and scapular rotation?

A

2:1

Example: 15 degree abduction of shoulder is 10 degrees humerus and 5 degrees scapula

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16
Q

How many degrees can the shoulder flex forward? Extend back?

A

180

50

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17
Q

How many degrees can the shoulder internally/medially rotate? Externally/laterally rotate?

A

70

90

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18
Q

What does the drop arm test test for?

A

Supraspinatus tears

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19
Q

What are tender points?

A

Hypersensitive areas within myofascial structures that result in localized pain

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20
Q

What are trigger points?

A

Hypersensitive areas within myofascial structures in which palpitation causes referred pain away from site to distant zone

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21
Q

What are Chapman’s points?

A

Neurolymphatic and reflect specific visceral organ involvement

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22
Q

What muscle does counterstrain treat?

A

Antagonist

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23
Q

What muscle does muscle energy treat?

A

Agonist

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24
Q

Why are counterstrain treatments returned to neutral slowly?

A

To avoid reactivation of gamma receptor

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25
What is the normal inclination angle for the femur?
120-135 degrees
26
What is a common dislocation of the head of the femur?
Posterior and inferior
27
What is coxa valgus?
Angle of inclination greater than 135
28
What is coxa varus?
Angle of inclination less than 120
29
What would coxa valgus cause?
Knock knee
30
What would coxa varus cause?
Bowlegged knees
31
What is the strongest ligament in the body?
Iliofemoral ligament
32
What is the strongest flexor of the thigh?
Iliopsoas
33
What is the origin of Iliopsoas? Insertion?
T12-L5 | Lesser trochanter
34
Signs of psoas syndrome?
Patient bent forward Ipsilateral foot everted Leans ipsilateral to psoas spasm Non-neutral L1 or L2 sidebent ipsilaterally Sacral rotation on ipsilateral oblique axis Contralateral pelvic side shift Contralateral piriformis spasm w/ tender point Pain in contralateral hip
35
Action of rectus femoris?
Flexes thigh at hip and extends leg at the knee
36
What is the IT band a location for?
Viscerosomatic reflexes
37
What is the sympathetic innervation to the lower extremity?
T11-L2
38
What is the innervation for muscles responsible for foot inversion? What is the dermatomes for the nerve? What is the reflex tested?
L4 Medial aspect of leg and foot Patellar tendon reflex
39
What is the innervation for extensor hallucis longus? What reflex is this nerve responsible for? What is the dermatome?
L5 Medial hamstring Lateral side of leg and dorsum of foot
40
What is the innervation for muscles responsible for eversion? What is the dermatomes? What is the reflex?
S1 Lateral malleolus and lateral aspect of foot Achilles tendon reflex
41
What test helps differentiate between sciatic and hamstring pain?
Braggard's Test
42
What are the degrees of external rotation for femoroacetabular joint?
45-55
43
What are the degrees of internal rotation for femoroacetabular joint?
35-45
44
What is the terrible triad of O'Donoghue?
Medial meniscus tear Ruptured ACL Ruptured MCL
45
What does valgus stress test?
Stability of MCL
46
What does varus stress test?
Stability of LCL
47
What is genu varus and genu valgus?
Decreased Q angle | Increased Q angle
48
What is the normal Q angle?
Longitudinal axis of femur and tibia 10-12
49
What is the lymphatic drainage of the leg?
Popliteal-> Superficial inguinal-> Deep inguinal-> Iliac
50
Which way do the navicular and cuboid bones rotate in somatic dysfunction?
Medially (inversion) | Laterally (eversion)
51
What ligaments can be damaged in an inversion ankle sprain?
Anterior tibiofibular ligament | Lateral collateral ligament
52
What layer of fascia covers the internal thoracic wall?
Endothoracic fascia
53
What does the endothoracic fascia become when it rests on the diaphragm?
Superior diaphragmatic fascia
54
What emerges out of the thoracic cage piercing Sibson's fascia and reemerges?
The left lymphatic duct
55
Surface landmarks and dermatomes of thoracic wall:
T2 Nipple line T7 Xiphoid T10 Umbilicus T12 Inguinal ligament
56
Which ribs work with the pump handle motion?
1-6
57
Which ribs work with the bucket handle motion?
7-10
58
What dimension does bucket handle motion increase?
Lateral
59
What dimension does pump handle motion increase?
Anterior
60
What do you treat the most superior rib of a group of ribs with?
Exhalation
61
What do you treat the most inferior rib of a group of ribs with?
Inhalation
62
What sympathetics innervate heart and lungs?
T1-T6

OMM 101 Written Exams (2 decks)

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