Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EFMB written test PE > written test PE 2 > Flashcards

written test PE 2 Flashcards

1
Q

the mission of the unit field san team is to assist company level, or equivalent commanders in maintaining the health and the well-being of the Soldiers assigned to the unit. which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the unit field sanitation team members?

  1. inspects unit-level food service personnel, feeding facilities and food service equipment
  2. reports findings of inspections to the brigade commande
  3. provides information and assistance relating to individual preventative medicine measures
  4. supervises the placement, construction and maintenance of unit level garbage disposal failities and soakage pits
  5. identifies and posts noise hazards in the unit area
A
  1. reports findings of inspections to the brigade commander
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the findal step to purify water in a 1 quart canteen with calcium hypochloride ampules is to tighten the cap n the canteen and wait at least __ min before using water for any purpose?

  1. 15
  2. 5
  3. 30
  4. 45
A
  1. 30
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

an open-air burn pit is defines as an area, not containing a commercially manufactured incinerator or other equipment specifically desigened an dmanufactured for burning of solid waste, designated or the purpose of disposing of solid waste by burning the outdor air at a location with more than ___ attached or assigned personnel and that is in place longer than ___ days

  1. 75/60
  2. 50/45
  3. 80/75
  4. 100/90
  5. 90/120
A
  1. 100/90
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

potentially hazardous foods are food products that generally have a history of association with illness in the absence of temperature control. properly maintain potentially hazardous foods, hot foods at product temps of ___ degrees F or above and cold foods at a product temp of ___ degrees F or below

  1. 135/41
  2. 130/45
  3. 125/42
  4. 120/50
A
  1. 135/41
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when improvised latrines are placed, they must be located at least ___ feet downwind and down hill from unit food service facilities and at least ___ feet from any unit ground water source

A

300/100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

to avoid heat injury soldiers must be come acclimatized. significant heat acclimatization requires at least ___ days

A

10-14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

___ is a medical emergency. to prevent perm physiologic damage or death the soldiers condition must quickly identified and t must begin immediately
(heat related illness)

A

heat stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

under normal conditions DEET is effective for ___ hrs. if warm and you sweat or its raining it requires more frequent application

A

12 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if the wet bulb-globe temp is above 90F (heat cat 5) what is the work rest cycle in minutes of hard work?

A

10/15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is intensity (noise)?

A

___ is the relative loudness of the noise expressed in decibels, will play a large part in determining the degree of hazard. the louder the nose the worse it is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

water that is cool, aerated, significantly free from color, turbidity, taste and odor and is generally pleasing to the senses

A

palatable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

bacteria are microscopic life forms. single celled often parasitic microorganisms w/o distinct nuclei or organized cell structures. which of the following is not a bacterial pathogen?

  1. cryptosporidium parvum oocyst
  2. campylobacter
  3. vigrio cholera
  4. escheri coli
A
  1. cryptosporidium parvum oocyst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what steps are required to disinfect a 5 gallon water can using iodine capsules?

A
  1. fill 5 gallon water can with the cleanest water possible
  2. dissolve 40 iodine tablets in a canteen cup full of water to disinfect any type of water
  3. after vigorously agitating the container to allow leakage to rinse through th threads, tighten the cap and wait 25min before use

NOT: tighten the cap and wait 10 min your water is now safe to drink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

dining facility ops, medical treatment and ice production for food perservation and cooling are approved uses for which quality of water?

  1. brackish water
  2. untreated fresh water
  3. packaged field water
  4. treated shower and laundry water
  5. seawater
A
  1. packaged field water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

___ is an extremely irritating gas that reacts with body fluids to produce HCL in the throat, lungs and eyes it causes coughing, acid burns to tissues and flu-like lung disease

  1. carbon monoxide
  2. bore/gun gasses
  3. smoke used for obscuring and signaling
  4. both 1 and 3
A
  1. bore/gun gasses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how much water is needed for temperate climate per man per day for drinking and cooking?

what if showering facilities are made available?

A

5 gallons per day

15 gallons per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

of the 80 diseases said to be of military importance, over 2/3 are caused by pathogens transmitted by ____

A

arthropods, rodents and other animals

the other 1/3 are caused by water, food, waste and hazardous plants, industrial toxins and biological waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the conduct of armed hostilities on land is regulated by the Law of Land Warfare. this body of law is inspired by the desire to diminish the evils of war by?

A
  1. protecting both combatants and noncombatants from unnecessary suffering
  2. safeguarding certain fundamental human rights of persons that fall into the hands of the enemy. particularly POWS, wounded and sick as well as civilians
  3. facilitating the restoration of peace
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

any detainee refusing food for 72hrs is on a hunger strike. healthcare personnel must immediately do what?

A

report the hunger strike to the TIF commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which of the following is not a medical service that is provided in the theater internment facility (TIF)?

  1. legal assistance
  2. prev med
  3. dental services
  4. medical evacuation
A

legal assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where are correct two-point restraints placed?

A

one arm and one leg - opposing sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which of the following is not a guideline in connection with the use of mechanical leather restraints on detainees?

  1. ensure that the detainee or other patient is not able to manipulate the restraint buckle
  2. check the pulses distal to the restraint at least every 12 hrs
  3. check the integrity of the restraint and ensures a health care provider examines the patients skin
  4. check cap refill within 5 min of the application of the restraints
  5. rotates sites daily of not contraindicated by the patients medical condition
A
  1. check the pulses distal to the restraint at least every 12 hrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

timeframes are established for sick call and distribution of medications to avoid abuse of the medical system. medication pass (distribution) should not extend past a ___ hr timeframe, unless there are extreme circumstances

A

2 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

a detainee should be under __:__ observation by security personnel overseen by an independent licensed healthcare provider for at least ___ hrs after receiving pharmacologic restraining agent?

A

one to one

12 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Geneva convention requires the military to provide what standard of care for detainees?

A

the same standard of care as EPWs as US forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when a detainee patient requests release of their medial records, who determines what information is appropriate for release and authorizes only that specific information or medical record required to satisfy the terms of the request that is disclosed?

A

MTF commander
commanders designee
patient administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

to ensure the continued heath of detainees in regards to weight screening international law requires that each detainee be screened weekly by medical personnel?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

a ___ is a detainee, former detainee, relative or friend of a detainee or former detainee or any other person acting on behalf of a detainee or former detainee

A

prohibited person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

all medications to be administered to detainees must be dispensed by health care personnel. the following are all actions health care personnel must take when dispensing medication except:

  1. health care personnel must verify the ID of detainee
  2. obtain their signature ont he medication issue register
  3. watch and verify that the detainee takes the prescribed dose
  4. when dispensing oral meds, the detainees hands and mouth should be inspected to ensure that the detainee swelled the meds and isnt attempting to hoard it for later
  5. prescribe medications which can be dispensed on a weekly basis
A
  1. prescribe medications which can be dispensed on a weekly basis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

detainees will receive a visual screening during in-processing or as required during sick call. criteria for production of eyewear includes but not limited to: lost or broken glasses, complaint of decreased in vision, or worse than __/__ vision

A

20/40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which of the 4 P’s of abuse prevention demonstrates having a system in place that by nature reduces the potential for abuse?
what are the 4 P’s?

A

Procedures

priorities, policies, procedures, practices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

who has primary responsibility for security, custody and control of the TIF?

A

military police personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

regulatory guidance requires that detainees must be offered the opportunity for daily medical contact. what is considered medical contact?

A

medical administration and emergency medical care are considered medical contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

you are conducting a medical screening on a detainee’s. you need to photograph injuries. do you include their face in the picture?

A

yes - their identity should be clearly visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when determining an azimuth this method can be used under all conditions of visibility, when navigating over any type of terrain w and w/o removing eyeglasses

A

center hold method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

two of the terrain features, a cut, and a fill are both manmade features resulting either from cutting through raised ground or filling a low area. to be on a map they both must be ___ feet high

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which of the following are the correct minor terrain features you can identify on a map?

A

draw, spur, cliff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which of the following is NOT performed during the “care under fire” phase of TCCC?

  1. return fire as directed or required before providing medical tx
  2. determine if causality is dead or alive
  3. determine the need to evacuate the casualty and supply info for lies 3-5 of the 9 line MEDEVAC request to your tactical leader
  4. administer life-saving hemorrhage control
A
  1. determine the need to evacuate the casualty and supply info for lies 3-5 of the 9 line MEDEVAC request to your tactical leader
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

cover vs concealment

A

cover - anything that protects form weapons, nukes CBRN and enemy observation

concealment - anything that hides personnel, equipment and or vehicles from enemy observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

to be consider safe a weapon must be?

A

cleared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

while zeroing your weapon at the range, you need to adjust the sights to obtain a zero. your 3 round shot group is in the bottom right quadrant of the zeroing target. you will need to adjust your front sight ___ and your rear sight ___

A

clockwise, counterclockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the colors on a military map?

A

Black. Stands for man made objects.
Brown. Stands for contour, elevation, and relief.
Blue. Stands for water.
Green. Stands for vegetation.
Red. Stands for densely populated areas and other man made objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Based on the commanders guidance, individual training in the unit is the responsibility of the NCO trainers. the commander must give the NCO trainer the priorities, resources and directions needed to carry out training.
what is the correct order of the 7 step approach in planning?

A 
set the objectives for training
plan the resources
train the trainer
provide the resources
manage risks 
conduct the training
evaluate the results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

after what step in a function check should an audible click be heard?

A

release the trigger with a slow, smooth motion, until trigger is fully forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

M9 detector paper for MOPP gear and equipment a right handed solder will place the paper where?

A

right upper arm, left wrist, right ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MB detector paper color change to dark green - what is the agent?

A

nerve V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the correct way to signal “contact left” to your squad during dismount ops?

A

extend the left arm parallel to the ground, bend the arm until the forearm is perpendicular and repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

which carry should you use to move a casualty who cannot walk when being moved up or down stairs?

A

cradle-drop drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is line 3 of a MEDEVAC request?

A

number of patients by precedence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

which of the following is not true regarding the SITREP (situation report)

  1. to report any changes from the last report, it may require follow up reports
  2. to request resupply
  3. only lines containing new info will be sent
  4. to report timely intelligence that have a significant effect on operations
A
  1. to report timely intelligence that have a significant effect on operations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is METL for?

what does METS stand for?

A

commanders use the METL to develop their unit-training plans and NCO’s plan the individual training that Soldiers need to be come warriors and accomplish he METL

METL stand for Mission essential training list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

you encounter a casualty who has been poisoned. you begin treatment for an absorbed poison. how long do you need to flush the skin with large amounts of water for?

A

20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

while performing care under fire, who decides treatment on the basis of relative risk of further injury to the casualty vs that of exsanguinating (bleeding out)?

A

the combat medic - this is determining the method of treatment not tactical plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the rule of 9?s

A 
Head: 9%
Genitalia/palm: 1%
Arm: 9%
Leg: 18%(9 anterior 9 posterior) 
Torso: 36% (9 upper anterior 9 lower anterior etc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

HACE high altitude cerebral edema is believed to be present to a mild degrees i all altitude sickness and can occur w/in 3-5 days of going over 9k, but generally it occurs above 12000” what is a reliable early warning sign of HACE?

A

gait ataxia

56
Q

in MACE exam, which domain includes a check for speech fluence and work finding?

A

neurological screening

57
Q

your BAS is setting up a chemical decontamination and protective shelter. every time it has to be move it must be moved where?

A

at least 75M upwind from any contaminated area

58
Q

nitroglycerin can be given how many times?

A

3 x - medics must use med control to give this med

59
Q

when delivering an infant APGAR must be conducted at 1 and 5 min. what is on APGAR?

A 
Activity/muscle tone 
Pulse
Grimace
appearance (color) 
respiration
60
Q

what likely will need to be given with morphine if used on the battlefield?

A

Phenergan 25mg (remember the dose is 25mg)

61
Q

what are the 4 P’s of packing?

A

peel, push, pile and pressure

62
Q

which warfighting function is health service support aligned under?

A

sustainment

63
Q

all of the following are principals of army health service support

A

conformity
mobility
proximity
continuity

64
Q

which of the following groups of medical functions is incorrect?

  1. mission command, medical treatment, hospitalization
  2. medical evacuation, medical logistics, prev med services
  3. veterinary services, dental, combat and operational stress control
  4. med lab services, med tx, mission command
  5. prev med services, mortuary affairs, medical evacuation
A
  1. prev med services, mortuary affairs, med evac
65
Q

what health threat is considered a physiologic and psychological stressor?

A

continuous operations

- if you get this question, its not all of the above

66
Q

the BAS is defined as?

A

the forward-most medically staffed treatment location organic to maneuver battalion

67
Q

the medical platoon of a maneuver battalion is comprised of 4 elements. they are?

A

area support squad
ambulance squad
treatment squad
medical platoon hq

68
Q

which element has tactial control of the BAS?

A

S4

69
Q

considerations for location of the BAS include?

A

convergence of lines of drift
expected areas of high casualty density
protection afforded by defilade
accessible evacuation routes

70
Q

the medical company is allocated on a basis of ___ per BCT?

A

1 per BCT

71
Q

medical considerations for mountainous terrain include?

A

potential for high altitude illness (rapid ascent over 75000’)
medical evac is labor intensive
increased sun burn and snow blindness
manual evac is time consuming

72
Q

hazardous plants and animals, entomological hazards, food and water disease and deployment stress are all considered ?

A

health threats to soldiers

73
Q

the principals of prev med measures include what?

A
  1. field sanitation teams train soldiers in preventative medicine measures and advise the command and unit leaders on implementation of unit-level prev med measures
  2. COC plans for and enforces pre med measures
  3. Soldiers perform individual techniques of prev med
  4. all of the above
74
Q

when preparing for the filed or extended deployments Soldier should consider packing a ___ supply of toiletries that can last until sustainment of these items is assured?

A

2 month supply

75
Q

flossing cleans the areas between teeth and under gums where brushing cannot reach. floss at least once a week after brushing to prevent tooth decay and gum disease T/F?

A

False

76
Q

what percent Deet to skin?

A

33%

77
Q

to avoid CO poisoning you should?

A

run engines outside or at least use exhaust system and have doors and windows of shop open
dont park vehicles near air intakes (tents and buildings)
keep sleeping area windows slightly open
dont sleep in running vehicles or use engine exhaust for heat

78
Q

what is not true about sleep deprivation?

A

less than 4 hrs of sleep q 24hrs will result in stabilizing performance at a lower level

79
Q

whater is probably the most improtant aspect of mil supply. the amount of water needed to sustain soldiers is based on what?

A

based on:
season of year
geography
tactical situation

not based on availability of treated water

80
Q

___ is water from an untreated source or treated source that is not safe to drink (includes bottled water)?

A

non-potable water

81
Q

typical water treatment processed include?

they dont include?

A

include:
- flocculation
- sedimentation
- sorption processes
- reverse osmosis

dont include inoculation

82
Q

class III water?

A

“Non potable water”

83
Q

what is class III water approved for?

A

field laundry (its non potable water)

84
Q

___ occurs worldwide in urban rural industrialized and developing areas. individuals exposed to river canal, stream and lake water contaminated with domestic and wild animal urine as well as tissues and urine of infected animals are at greatest risk

A

leptospirosis

85
Q

at lower temps, microorganism inactivation tends to be slower. to obtain the same level of disinfection at lower temps as at higher temps ______ chlorine residuals or ____ ____ time is required

A

higher chlorine residuals; longer contact time

86
Q

to disinfect bulk water supplies add and dissolve one heaping teaspoon of high test hypochlorite (approx. 1/4oz) for each 2 gallons of water. the mixture will produce a stock chlorine solution of approx. 500mg per L. for disinfection purposes add one part of this chlorine solution to how many parts of water?

A

1:100

100 parts of water

87
Q

equipment used for storage, purification, and distribution of potable water will be cleaned and sanitized ___ (how often)

A

quarterly

88
Q

unit field san teams assist commanders and fellow soldiers i preventing foodborne illnesses by inspecting which of the following?

A

unit level food handling pax and facilities
procedures for food being transported
unit feeding sites for safe recommended distances to waste
placement and maintenance of handwashing facilities
all of the above

89
Q

considerations for latrine facilities

A

build at least 100” from border of billeting areas
latrines are not dug in the ground water level
light at night if tactically allowed
handwashing device outside each latrine enclosure

doesn’t need: located downwind of burn pits and landfills

90
Q

what are the principals of detainee healthcare?

A
  1. treat enemy casualties and detainees with he same ethics and medical standards of care as for multinational forces
  2. healthcare personnel will never participate interrogations
  3. all detainee health care and exams must be documented in their medical record
  4. treat all detainees w dignity and respect for the culture, age and gender

NOT: detainees do not have the right to refuse medical are

91
Q

when dealing with detainees, patient consent for the release of medical records is not required
T/F

A

true

92
Q

which of the following is not considered a prohibited act when treating detainees and POWs?

  1. physical mutation
  2. medical experimentation
  3. amputation
  4. tissue and organ transplant
  5. torture
A
  1. amputation
93
Q

detainees must always be separated form US and partners during evac
t/f

A

false

94
Q

the internment serial number (ISN) is the dod mandated id number for detainees. which is not true regarding these?

  1. the TIF is the only location where it can be assigned
  2. detainees require ISN to begin processing
  3. once assigned all further documentation will use only ISN
  4. a detainee can be refused care because an ISN is not provided
  5. prior to the issuance of ISN the capture tag num is used on all documents
A

a detainee can be refused care because an ISN is not provided

95
Q

what are the 4 p’s of abuse prevention?

A

priorities
procedures
practices
policies

NOT programs

96
Q

detainees may refuse routine exams or parts of PE. who may authorize edam or treatment in the absence of consent (if necessary to Life, limb or eyesight) of the detainee or to preserve health or safety of other detainees/persons

A

MTF commander

97
Q

who is the approval authority for any detainee to be interrogated during inpatient hospitalization?

A

detainee operations commander

98
Q

which of the following are valid uses of medical photography pertaining to detainees?

  1. documenting a ound that requires amputation
  2. to monitor the resolution or progression of injuries
  3. for treatment and medical diagnosis
  4. maintaining photos as part of an individuals medical record
  5. all of the above
A
  1. all of the above
99
Q

to ensure continued health of detainees, international law requires that each detainee be screened ___ by healthcare personnel. during the screening the detainee’s weight is recorded on DA Form 266-R which provides concise, chronological weight history for detainee. significant fluctuations in weight can signal underlying medical condition or can indicate that the detainees diet is not meeting nutrition requirements.

A

monthly

100
Q

detainees maintained in segregation will be monitored daily to assure health and well-eeing and to address current medical complaints. local guidance may allow for a nurse to perform the screening
t/f

A

true

101
Q

regulator guidance requires that detainees must be offered the opportunity for daily medical contact. what constituted daily medical contact?

A

True: medical administration and emergency medical care are considered medical contact

102
Q

of the different stages of sick call, which stage requires transport to the MRT for urgent eval and tx?

A

stage 4

103
Q

during the initial eval of a hunger-striking detainee, the medical staff will measure and record the detainees height, weight and VS. this needs to be done every ___ hours during the hunger strike?

A

24

104
Q

there must be a complete separation of custody and health care operations
t/f

A

True

105
Q

detainees will receive visual screening during in=processing as required during sick call. criteria for production of eyewear includes but is not limited to:

A
  1. lost or broken glasses
  2. complaint of decrease in vision
  3. worse than 20/40 vision

all of the above

106
Q

a detainee of significant intelligence or political value is which type of detainee?

  1. security internee
  2. high value detainee
  3. former detainee
  4. POW
  5. distinguished detainee
A
  1. high value detainee
107
Q

the A in SALUTE report stands for?

A

activity

108
Q

to chamber a round on the M16/M4, the bolt can be open or closed. what is the first step to take when the bolt is open?

A

press the upper portion of the bolt catch

109
Q

given a loaded M16 series I M4-series carbine that has stopped firing you must correct the malfunction by performing immediate action. the keyword SPORTS will help you remember the steps. what are they?

A 
Slap
Pull (not PUSH)
Observe 
Release 
Tap
110
Q

while zeroing your weapon at the range, you need to adjust the sights to obtain a zero. your three round shot group is in the top left quadrant of the zeroing target. you will need to adjust your front sight ___ and your rear sight ____

A

counter-clockwise

clockwise

111
Q

on a map, depressions are represented by closed contour lines that have tick marks point toward ____

A

low ground (the practice test says high ground)

112
Q

which method would you use to orient a map when a compass is not available or when the user has to make many quick references?

A

using terrain association

113
Q

in order to open the airway on a casualty, the head-tilt/chin-lift method is best if a spina or neck injurer is suspected
T/F

A

FALSE

114
Q

the individual moving technique should be used when there is good cover and concealment but enemy fire prevents you from getting up?

A

High crawl

115
Q

when recording the gathered MEDEVAC information using the authorized brevity codes, line 5 is which of the following?

A

Number of patients by type: Litter of Ambulatory

116
Q

all of the following are important rules to follow to transmit a MEDEVAC request except?

  1. clearly state “I HAVE A MEDEVAC REQUEST”
  2. pronounce letters and number according to radiotelephone
  3. end the transmission by saying “out”
  4. keep the radio on an listen for additional instructions or contact from the evac unit
  5. transmit the MEDEVAC information in the proper sequence
A

end the transmission by saying “out”

117
Q

what is the correct way to signal “wedge” formation to your squad during dismounted operations?

A

Extend the arms downward to the side, place arms at 45-degree angle below horizontal

118
Q

you detect color change on the M9 detector paper and it shows blue, green and yellow spots. you can assume that you have been exposed to ______

A

a liquid chemical agent

119
Q

what is performed during the TFC phase of TCCC

A

form a general impression of the casualty

120
Q

all of the following are s/s of shock except?

  1. sweaty, cool skin
  2. restlessness or nervousness
  3. confusion
  4. slowed breathing
  5. N/V
A

slowed breathing

121
Q

of the one person carry’s which should be used to transport an unconscious or severely injured casualty?

A

fireman’s carry

122
Q

defining military necessity and proportionality are 2 of the basic principles of the Law of War?

A

True

123
Q

which of the following are ways to exercise noise discipline?

  1. avoid unnecessary talk
  2. conceal flashlights and light sources
  3. use visual techniques to communicate
  4. use proper radio etiquette
  5. only 1 and 3
A

5 only 1 and 3

124
Q

your patient is exhibiting s/s of hypoglycemia. which of the following is not a sign of hypoglycemia?

  1. hunger
  2. uncharateristic behavior
  3. intoxicated apperiance, staggering, …
  4. combativeness
  5. warm, red, dry skin
A
  1. warm, red, dry skin
125
Q

your casualty has amputation. after treating the casualty you take the leg. which must you never do to an amputated limb?

A 
warm the part
place directly in water
place directly on ice
use dry ice to cool
all of the above
126
Q

when carrying a casualty downhill or downstairs the casualty should always be transported head first?
T/F

A

False

127
Q

your using a king LT. your patients height is 70”. which size king LT to use and how much air is used to inflate?

A

size 4

60-80 mL

128
Q

who is responsible for coordinating casualty flow from platoon CCPs to the company CCP?

A

first sergeant

129
Q

which infection may spread to the fascial planes in the hand and may requires surgical exploration and debridement?

A

felons

130
Q

which of the following is an element of a medical company treatment platoon?

A
  1. MED TRMT SQD, AREA SPT SQD, PN HOLD SQD
131
Q

as a principal of AHS support ___ of medical resources ensures that the use of scarce medical assets is maximized to provide the greatest good to the greatest number of patients in the OE?

A

control

132
Q

which of the following is not a triage category?

  1. expectant
  2. delayed
  3. immediate
  4. minimal
  5. priority
A

priority

133
Q

casualties in the delayed category can wait how long w/o bad outcomes?

A

8-10 hrs

134
Q

which of the following are key considerations during the defense support of civil authorities tasks in decisive action operational environment?

  1. provide med expertise to ID and analyze critical emerging medical needs w/in the Operational Area
  2. Provide prev med measures to respond to and resolve emerging health threats cause by the disaster/incident
  3. assist the affected medical infrastructure in saving lives and alleviating human suffering
  4. all of the above
A
  1. all of the above
135
Q

which warfighting function is health service support aligned under?

A

sustainment

136
Q

which element has tactically control of the BAS

A

S4

137
Q

at the BAS, patients requiring further evac to the appropriate MTF’s or AXP are stabilized for movement. constant efforts are made to prevent unnecessary evacuation; patients with minor wounds or illness are treated and returned to duty as soon as possible. other functions of the BA include all of the following except?

  1. verifying info contained on the DD 1308 or DA 7658
  2. notifying the S1 of all patients processing through the BAS
  3. requesting and monitoring the med evac of patients
  4. decontaminating CBRN patients
  5. receiving and recording patients
A

decontaminating CBRN patients

EFMB written test PE (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions