Wrong Answers From Questions COPY Flashcards

1
Q

What is Article 2 (ECHR)?

A

Article 2 imposes a general positive duty on the State to have a system to protect life. An investigation should be considered where it may be necessary to examine the causation of a serious incident or multiple serious incidents (e.g. a cluster of suicides) that could indicate systemic failures to protect life. Investigation should be carried out by someone independent from those implicated in events.

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2
Q

What is the test for when a claimants act may be an intervening act that breaks the chain of causation?

A

The test that is applied for when the act of the claimant themselves may be an intervening act and break the chain of causation is whether their act was entirely reasonable in the circumstances that they were in at the time.

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3
Q

A business is in financial difficulties. The owner explains the position to his workers. The workers agree to accept half their usual wages for the time being in the hope that the financial position of the business will improve. After three months of receiving half pay there has been no turn around in the fortunes of the business, but the workers want to go back to their full rate of pay. The workers go to the owner and demand that their wages be put back up to full pay with immediate effect. Is the demand enforceable?

A

The general rule is that part payment of a debt is not sufficient consideration for a promise to forgo the balance. However, the owner can rely on the doctrine of promissory estoppel. The promise to accept half pay was open-ended. As this is a case of ongoing payments the effect of the doctrine is to suspend the workers’ right to full pay, and reasonable notice must be given in order to revive the right to full pay going forwards.

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4
Q

What is promissory estoppel?

A

Within contract law, promissory estoppel refers to the doctrine that a party may recover on the basis of a promise made when the party’s reliance on that promise was reasonable, and the party attempting to recover detrimentally relied on the promise.

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5
Q

How long can someone be detained at police station?

A

24 hours from when they arrived. Review clock is every 6 hours by inspector from time detention authorised

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6
Q

What is S 25 notice Landlord and Tenant Act 1954?

A

Security of tenure gives tenant right to be offered new tenancy at end of term. Applies unless landlords and tenants opt out. If landlord wants to end tenancy or offer lease on new terms must serve s 25 6-12 months before landlord wants tenancy to end. Earliest can be served is 12 months before exam completion date.

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7
Q

Can someone bring a claim on an EU directive that has direct effect after IP completion day?

A

Only if rights from directive have been recognised by UK or EU court or tribunal before IP completion day as this will become retained EU law. Can be relied vertically against state even if not implemented.

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8
Q

Can previous convictions be raised at trial?

A

Previous convictions may be raised at trial through one or more of the 7 gateways which are set out in s101(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003. Gateway (d) is likely to apply, namely the previous convictions are relevant to an important matter in issue between the defendant and the prosecution. That issue is whether the defendant has a propensity to commit offences of the kind with which they are charged, and the fact that the defendant has previously been convicted of offences of the same description (common assault) may be relevant

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9
Q

Claim value in high court?

A

£100,000

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10
Q

In negligence what is a secondary victim?

A

Not in immediate area of danger

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11
Q

What is the Alcock criteria?

A

psychiatric harm would be foreseeable in the ordinary mother; she is the mother of a child in the incident; she witnessed the incident with her own unaided senses i.e not on TV

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12
Q

When is severance affected for LPA?

A

Never for legal estate. Equity: notice in writing to anyone with beneficial interest or mutual agreement

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13
Q

How should purchaser of property’s solicitor ensure mortgage is discharged?

A

purchaser needs there to be an express obligation on the seller to both discharge the mortgage and hand over evidence of the discharge as soon as it is received from the seller’s lender. As the seller is in financial difficulty and relying on the proceeds of sale of the property to discharge the mortgage, this can only happen on completion of the sale. In such circumstances, it is common practice for completion to take place on the basis of an undertaking given by the seller’s solicitor.

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14
Q

What is exclusive cognisance (parliamentary privilege)?

A

Parliament has exclusive cognisance to determine its own rules and procedures - here Parliament has passed rules expressly banning the Lord’s activities, so the Lord will be disciplined in accordance with Parliament’s rules.

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15
Q

Where are restricted covenants and other interests in registered title found?

A

Charges register

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16
Q

When does business property relief apply in inheritance tax?

A

Unquoted, trading company where shares owned for 2 years

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17
Q

What happens to lease when tenant buys freehold?

A

Lease ends and merges with the revision when tenant purchases freehold

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18
Q

When is an alteration to a will valid?

A

When the alteration is properly executed or the amendment obliterates the original wording. Revocation of original wording by destruction. If testator adds substitute wording the court will find revocation was conditional on new wording taking effect. If sub wording invalid the court will look at evidence to reconstruct original wording

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19
Q

What is the doctrine of complete performance ?

A

Performance of contractual obligations must be precise and exact and if not payer does not have to pay any part of the price. Exception is where contractor has substantially performed its obligations and the defects are only minor

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20
Q

What is article 8 ECHR

A

Right to private life

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21
Q

When is article 8 ECHR breached?

A

If interference is disproportionate will be a breach of Art 8 - a qualified right

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22
Q

When can you derogate from Article 3 ECHR?

A

Art 3 is protection from torture and inhumane treatment. This can never be derogated from.

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23
Q

What is rule in Halsall v Brizell (positive covenant)

A

An exception to the default position regarding positive covenants was created by Halsall v Brizell [1957] 1 All ER 371. Here the court decided that if a successor in title accepted the benefit of a right it must also take the burden

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24
Q

A tenant purchase the freehold of his rental property. How is an easement formed when a freehold owner gave the tenant informal permission to erect a sign upon the freeholders adjoining land advertising the tenants business (no mention of sign in transfer)

A

S62 LPA 1925 - existing privilege upon transfer of the freehold to the tenant. Easement created by implication. There was the following elements: existing privilege, diversity of occupation and conveyance

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25
Q

What is the Actus reus of unlawful act manslaughter?

A

Do unlawful act, that is dangerous, that causes death. Unlawful act need not be assault

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26
Q

Why is withholding an advocate for 6 days (lawfully under a fictitious act) before being released without charge a breach of the rule of law ?

A

Detention for length without legal hearing

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27
Q

Does the video identification procedure require consent of the suspect?

A

PACE Code suspect should be invited to take part in an identification procedure and that the suspect can refuse to consent. The video identification procedure therefore requires consent. Suspect can consent themselves if over 14

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28
Q

Coercive control - what guidance by previous courts may help decide?

A

Lord Coke in Darnel’s Case 1627: ‘A freeman imprisoned without cause is civilly dead’.

Darnel’s Case involved the principle of habeas corpus. The daughter’s situation here may not be a matter of imprisonment or liberty in the sense discussed by Lord Coke, but judges are entitled to draw parallels across the centuries. Here, the daughter clearly feels fear in the face of the withdrawal of certain freedoms.

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29
Q

How can a buyer of property avoid being bound by an equitable beneficial interest?

A

If the buyer is not equity’s darling (no notice of the interest) to be sure to take the property free of the interest the buyer must overreach it. As the buyer’s solicitor was made aware of the sister’s claim, steps should be taken to ensure the interest is successfully overreached. The contract will provide for the appointment of a second trustee and the payment of purchase monies to both the seller and the second trustee.

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30
Q

Is there a presumption in favour of mediation?

A

No - A refusal to an invitation to participate in alternative dispute resolution may be regarded as unreasonable but this is not automatic.

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31
Q

An MP posts a defamatory tweet about a famous doctor during a parliamentary debate on standards in the medical profession. The statement is clearly untrue. Can doctor sue the MP?

A

correct – if the MP’s tweet can be established to be part of the debate on medical standards, then the MP may be able to exert Parliamentary Privilege to defend a civil action by the doctor. Doctor needs to establish MPs tweet did not form part of proceeding in parliament

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32
Q

Explain tracing rules (mixed trust assets)

A

starting presumption is derived from Clayton’s case – the first money into the account is the first money out. might seek to claim that the rule from Clayton’s case has resulted in an unjust outcome. Under Barlow Clowes v Vaughan, the court might decide that the outcome arising under Clayton’s case should be disapplied in favour of the court’s own scheme

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33
Q

What type of economic loss is and is not recoverable in a negligence claim? Is

A

Pure economic loss isn’t but consequential economic loss is

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34
Q

Who can bring claim for a breach of a ECHR breach of convention?

A

A claimant can only bring proceedings for breach of a Convention right if they are a ‘victim’ as per s 7 of the HRA; ie directly and personally affected

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35
Q

What should the solicitor do if they know their client has given the court false info?

A

John Francis Bridgwood (1989) LS Gaz 5 July, 86 (11)) is that where, to the knowledge of the solicitor, the client seeks to give to the court false information, the client should try to persuade the client to change his mind and that, unless the client changes his mind, the solicitor will have to withdraw from acting.

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36
Q

Which search best describes the pre-contract searches and enquiries that should be raised to find out more about maintenance responsibilities in relation to the private road when using the Law Society Protocol. Re registered land

A

Pre-contract enquiries of the seller using Property Information Form TA06.

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37
Q

Describe when a bank can exercise its power of sale?

A

The power of sale must exist, have arisen and become exercisable. Often the power exists if expressly stated in the mortgage deed. It will have arisen if the legal date for redemption has passed. This date is usually one month into the mortgage term or when any instalment of the mortgage money has become due under an instalment mortgage. It is exercisable either under the express terms of the mortgage or under any of the circumstances set out in s103 of the Law of Property Act 1925 (“LPA25”). These circumstances are as follows:-
1. the lender has given the borrower notice to repay the loan amount and the borrower has not paid the sum for three months after such notice; or
2. interest is in arrears for two months after becoming due: or
3. the borrower has breached a term of the mortgage (other than the covenant to pay the mortgage money or the interest thereon).

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38
Q

Who can appeal a trial judges sentence in the crown court

A

Attorney general can appeal to the Court of Appeal Crim Div

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39
Q

Is parliamentary approval needed for air strikes oversea?

A

Yes cabinet manual states government has acknowledged a convention has developed that HoC should have opportunity to debate a matter before military action is taken except if an emergency exists. Taking military action is a prerogative power.

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40
Q

A developer invites a contractor to bid for tender but does not consider the tender. Is there any recourse for the contractor?

A

Yes under Blackpool v Fylde there is an implied offer of unilateral contract and implied obligation to consider conforming tenders. Can sue for breach of unilateral contract. May be awarded loss of opportunity even if difficult to assess.

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41
Q

Court of appeal used decision in previous case. What is this called?

A

Applying the decision

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42
Q

Higher crim court agrees with decision of lower court. What is this called?

A

Affirming the case

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43
Q

Can a lender of a second mortgage of a company exercise power of sale?

A

Power of sale is implied into every mortgage deed under Law of Property Act 1925, as long as power of sale has arisen and become exercisable. Power arises when redemption date has passed and becomes exercisable in accordance with mortgage deed or when one of the circumstances in the act is met.

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44
Q

A woman dies at work. Who can claim bereavement damages ?

A

Husband (not kids) - Fatal Accidents Act 1976

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45
Q

For purposes of criminal damages when is intoxication a defence?

A

If intoxicated when taking a non dangerous or prescribed drug which led to unusual circumstances. It is a defence when the defendant lacks mens rea (e.g has no recollection of events)

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46
Q

Are salaries a deductible expense of business for tax purposes ?

A

Yes

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47
Q

When is a burglary aggravated?

A

Most serious type of burglary - burglary: entering building as trespasser with intent to commit criminal damage, theft of GBH a weapon. Aggravated: has firearm, weapon, explosive or article adapted to be used for causing injury

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48
Q

Woman murdered someone - what is course procedure?

A

Indictment only so will be sent to crown court for trial. Tried in front on jury. Will be sent to preliminary hearing at mag but they do not consider the evidence.

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49
Q

What is a valid ground for appeal at Supreme Court from court of appeal (crim)

A

Point of law of general public importance that ought be considered (not new evidence where defendant has real chance of success)

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50
Q

What forms part of companies constitution?

A

Under section 17 of the Companies Act 2006, a company’s constitution comprises the company’s articles, memorandum of association and the resolutions and agreements specified in section 29, principal amongst which are shareholder special resolutions and agreements and court orders and legislation which affect the company’s constitution.

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51
Q

In considering both damages and injunctions as remedies under the tort of private nuisance, which three equitable remedies may only be granted by the court having regard to all of the circumstances of the case?

A

Mandatory injunction, prohibitory injunction, and ‘quia timet’

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52
Q

What is quia timet?

A

Quia timet, is a common law injunction to restrain wrongful acts which are threatened or imminent but have not yet commenced

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53
Q

The owner of a registered freehold house entered into a civil partnership with his partner who subsequently moved into the house. After occupying the property for many years the relationship is now in difficulty and the partner has left the house. Can he claim an interest?

A

The partner may claim a right of occupation under s30 FLA 1996 as long as the property was, is or intended to be the matrimonial home and as long as the partners are still legally married or in a civil partnership. However, in order to protect the interest, it must be registered as a notice on the Charges Register of the property by the date of registration of a buyer’s interest

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54
Q

How should traditional partnerships be named on a claim form?

A

Name of firm

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55
Q

How many days from notice can of general meeting of shareholders be held?

A

14 clear days not including day notice is handed by person

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56
Q

Do applicants of legal aid need to satisfy means test?

A

No

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57
Q

What tests are needed to be satisfied to get a representation order for legal aid?

A
  1. Interest of justice test and 2. Means test
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58
Q

What is the correct test for factual causation where there are two separate tortious acts, which simultaneously cause damage to the client.

A

Did the breach of duty make a material contribution to the injuries suffered by the client.

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59
Q

Can negligence liability for PI be excluded under UCTA?

A

No

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60
Q

When can an agreement made under economic duress be affirmed?

A

If an agreement (i.e to pay more money) is made but then the upper hand is lifted and you go on to pay that money then the agreement is affirmed.

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61
Q

What are the three requirements for vicarious liability?

A
  1. Breach duty of care 2. Breach caused loss that wasn’t too remote 3. Employee therefore negligent in course of employment
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62
Q

What should be set out in case summary for CMC?

A

set out a brief chronology, state the agreed and disputed issues, and set out any evidence required to decide the disputed issues.

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63
Q

A claim is made against estate under the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975. When are PRs not personally liable?

A

If they waited over six months from the grant to distribute the estate, but the claimant can recover monies from the beneficiaries, if the court permits an application and it succeeds.

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64
Q

A client bought a house and promised his son and daughter-in-law that if they occupied the house and made all the mortgage repayments on the house he would transfer the house to them. The couple duly started to make the mortgage repayments but then there was a dispute. The client told the couple he had changed his mind and sought to repossess the house. What is legal position?

A

Breach of unilateral contract and implied promise not to revoke offer once act started

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65
Q

Before proceedings are commenced, the claimant invites the defendant on several occasions to enter into mediation of the claim. The defendant never responds to any of these proposals.

What consequences may follow for the defendant’s failure to respond to proposed mediation if court proceedings are started by the claimant?

A

By way of information, the Practice Direction on Pre-Action Conduct and Protocols (the PD) provides that if a dispute proceeds to litigation, the court will expect the parties to have complied with the PD. Non-compliance with the PD includes any party that failed to respond at all to an invitation to resolve the dispute by ADR. The court may impose sanctions for non-compliance including (a) an order that the party at fault pays the costs of the proceedings, or part of the costs of the other party or parties and (b) an order that the party at fault pay those costs on an indemnity basis.

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66
Q

Who can authorise delay in notifying someone of their arrest and for how long ?

A

Section 56 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 allows the police to authorise a delay of up to 36 hours to a suspect’s right to notify one person of their arrest if the offence for which that suspect has been arrested is an indictable offence. Wounding under ss 18 or 20 of the Offences Against the Person Act are both indictable offences. Further, the delay may only be authorised by an officer of at least the rank of inspector, not conducted with the investigation.

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67
Q

What are elements of simple criminal damage?

A

Damage without lawful excuse. He was reckless as to the damage and knew the window belonged to his neighbour.

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68
Q

A client decided to set up his own cafe. He took a lease of premises and asked his sister, owner of ‘1st Choice Blinds’, to supply and fit a large awning at the back of the premises to provide extra covered seating for customers. His sister agreed and made and fitted the awning. The client was delighted with what she had done and said he would give her £1,000 for her trouble. What is legal position.

A

On the face of it what the sister did looks like past consideration (which is not good consideration) but the exception may apply (Re Casey’s Patents). The act was done at the client’s request. Query whether it was mutually understood that she would get something for what she did. It looks like a large job. Had the promise been made in advance would it have been legally enforceable? This will hinge on contractual intention. With family arrangements (eg between brother and sister) there is a rebuttable presumption the parties did not intend to create legal relations; whereas in a commercial context (business-to-business), which it looks like here, there is a very strong presumption the parties intended legal relations (see Chapter 2).

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69
Q

Is a willingness to pay proof of lack of dishonest?

A

The woman may be dishonest as s 2(2) of the TA 1968 states that a willingness to pay is not in itself proof of a lack of dishonesty.

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70
Q

What are justices of the peace?

A

Magistrates

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71
Q

Difference between contract void by frustration and common mistake?

A

Frustration applies to a supervening event, Common mistake (where the mistake is shared by both parties, is fundamental and directly affects the basic definition of what the parties are contracting for). The mistake will render the contract void if it robs it of all substance.

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72
Q

Must a trustee pay income to contingent beneficiary on request?

A

Yes

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73
Q

What is the golden rule?

A

The interpretation of one meaning of a word over another is used to avoid an absurdity.

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74
Q

What is a de facto director of a company

A

A de facto director is someone who has never been formally appointed, as here, but nevertheless acts as a director. Here the client has been acting as a director, for example for being responsible for the sale and purchase of metals, and is likely to be seen as a de facto director.

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75
Q

Will the court uphold legislation even if there has been some irregularity during its passage through Parliament.

A

Yes - the Enrolled Act rule provides that, once an Act of Parliament has been entered onto the Parliamentary roll, the courts will not question the validity of that Act or hold the Act to be void (Edinburgh & Dalkeith Railway Co. v Wauchope (1842) 8 Cl & F 710).

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76
Q

What documents can beneficiaries request from trustees?

A

The Trust Deed, the trust accounts and a current schedule of investments.

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77
Q

A man created a trust and appointed two people to act as trustees for “such of my children who attain the age of 21 years”. The beneficiaries under the trust are aged 18, 19 and 21 years of age. The beneficiaries have fallen out with one of the trustees and would like to force them to retire. The declaration of trust contained no express provision dealing with the appointment or retirement of trustees. Can they force retirement?

A

The beneficiaries can direct a trustee to retire if the conditions set out in s19 of the Trusts of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996 are met. In this case, they are all of full age and capacity and are together absolutely entitled to the trust fund, as the 21 year old has satisfied the contingency. They would need to appoint a replacement as there must be at least two trustees left once the outgoing trustee retires.

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78
Q

Once personal representatives have taken the grant, they cannot retire. How should they be replaced?

A

The beneficiaries can apply to the court to replace the executors under s50 Administration of Justice Act 1985.

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79
Q

What is a codifying statue?

A

The Act codifies the law in the particular area it covers by bringing together that previously contained in three different pieces of legislation and in common law decisions, as well as modifying some aspects of the latter.

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80
Q

What is a consolidating statue?

A

A consolidating statute is one which merely re-enacts law previously contained in several different statutes and there is a rebuttable presumption that such a statute does not materially alter the previous law.

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81
Q

Is an equitable interest under a trust (such as a mother’s) capable of being registered as a land charge in unreg title?

A

No - will be binding if have notice

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82
Q

What is restitution?

A

A remedy based upon the principle of unjust enrichment. For the claimant to bring a restitutionary claim, the defendant must have been unjustly enriched at the expense of the claimant. A restitutionary remedy seeks to reverse that unjust enrichment, by restoring the relevant benefit or enrichment to the claimant. Doesn’t work if loads of amendments were made to the property

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83
Q

What is indirect intent?

A

the court will infer that D did intend the result if it was both virtually certain to occur and D appreciated this fact

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84
Q

Five years ago, the owner of a large country estate sold part of the land to his neighbour. The land sold included a small cottage. In the transfer of the land the neighbour agreed to only use the cottage for residential purposes and also agreed not to allow the cottage to fall into disrepair. Both covenants were registered at the Land Registry. Last year the neighbour sold the cottage to a property developer. Who will have burden of covenant?

A

burden of the restrictive covenant will pass at equity to burden the property developer under the rule in Tulk v Moxhay. The covenant only to use the cottage for residential purposes:

is negative (or restrictive) in substance;
was made to benefit the dominant land;
touched and concerned the dominant land;
was made with the intent of burdening the servient land; and
the property developer had notice of the covenant.
The burden of neither covenant will pass at common law (as confirmed in Austerberry v Corporation of Oldham).

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85
Q

What is reversing a decision ?

A

Reversing is where a higher court disagrees with the earlier decision, in the same proceedings, of a lower court.

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86
Q

What is overruling a decision?

A

overruling is where a higher court comments on a previous unrelated decision by a lower court and declares it to be wrong.

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87
Q

When is a legal lease an overriding interest?

A

Less than 7 years

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88
Q

A client instructs a solicitor following a road traffic accident involving their spouse. The client’s spouse suffered injuries from the accident, survived for a period of two months but then died as a result of their injuries. The client alleges that the road traffic accident occurred as a result of another driver’s negligence. At the time of the accident the client’s spouse worked as a managing director of a large supermarket chain. The client is the sole beneficiary under their spouse’s will. The reasonable funeral expenses have been paid by the estate. What damages can be claimed.

A

Under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 the client will be entitled to recover damages for the loss of amenity suffered by their spouse during the two month survival period. where funeral expenses are reasonable in amount and paid by the estate, they are recoverable under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934. Can claim for property destroyed

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89
Q

What is recoverable under Fatal Accidents Act and who can claim?

A

Loss of dependency (being the loss of pecuniary benefits which the client would have received from his spouse, and which might include the loss of her future earnings) are recoverable. bereavement award is recoverable by the spouse

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90
Q

The solicitor from the Crown Prosecution Service (‘the CPS’) who presented the prosecution case at the woman’s trial believes that the woman was acquitted because the magistrates misunderstood the law of theft. What does CPS do?

A

As the magistrates appear to have made an error of law, the CPS is entitled to appeal to the High Court by way of case stated (accordingly, option E is wrong). This will require the magistrates to explain (in writing) the legal basis on which they acquitted the woman. This is the only right of appeal open to the CPS.

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91
Q

What is the commercial rent arrears recovery procedure (‘CRAR’).

A

statutory procedure which allows landlords of commercial premises to recover rent arrears by taking control of the tenant’s goods and selling them. The arrears must be at least seven days’ worth or more at the time the notice is served and at the time of enforcement
You do not have the right to seize your tenant’s goods yourself; they can only be seized by a certified enforcement agent. landlord must provide 7 days notice of enforcement

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92
Q

What happens to solicitors duty of confidentiality when client dies?

A

Passes to PRs

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93
Q

How is the duty to exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence twofold?

A

Example using a director: The objective element (directors must possess the general knowledge, skill and experience that may reasonably be expected of a person carrying out the functions of a director) applies to all directors, whereas the subjective element (the standard of reasonableness being assessed by such knowledge, skill and experience that the director has) only applies to directors who have some special skill or ability. The objective element of the duty establishes a minimum standard that applies to all directors. The subjective element only applies to directors who have some special skill or ability and will serve to raise the standard of such directors.

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94
Q

What is the mischief rule?

A

The mischief rule means someone interpreting an Act of Parliament can, or should, assess the reason for the Act’s provisions, to assess the problem which the Act is designed to correct. The mischief rule would be relevant as there is mention of the Act’s aims.

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95
Q

What is apparent authority?

A

When principle represents to client that agent had authority e.g agent running show room

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96
Q

When does time run to file defence is AOS filed

A

The defendant filed an acknowledgement of service, so its defence must be served no later than 28 days from deemed service of the particulars of claim (not CF)

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97
Q

Can professional trustees be paid?

A

As a trustee acting in a professional capacity, T1 will be entitled to reasonable remuneration agreed to by T2.

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98
Q

What are formalities to set up lifetime trust?

A

The formalities required to set up a lifetime trust are a valid declaration of trust (which has been made and evidenced in signed writing) and transfer of the legal title to the trustee. Legal title to a flat would have been transferred by:

execution of a deed pursuant to s52 Law of Property Act 1925 by the woman;
that deed being sent to either the accountant or Land Registry; and
Land Registry registering the accountant as the new registered proprietor of the flat.

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99
Q

What is article 10?

A

Freedom of expression

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100
Q

When can freedom of expression be interfered with?

A

Freedom of expression is a qualified right, meaning that it can be interfered with when that interference is prescribed by law, in pursuit of a legitimate aim and proportionate.

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101
Q

Is a 12 month lease where rent is paid weekly a 12 month fixed term lease or period lease?

A

The length of period of a periodic tenancy is determined by reference to the period for which the rental payments are payable. However, since on these facts the tenant is clearly still occupying the property under the 12-month fixed term tenancy, this is not a weekly periodic tenancy (although it may become one if she remains in occupation after the end of the 12-month term).

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102
Q

When can defence of lawful excuse be used for criminal damage?

A

Need to have honest belief of excuse (need not be reasonable) - intoxication doesn’t effect this

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103
Q

A man is knocking down a small brick wall on his property, as he wishes to remove it, and he plans to remove it by knocking it with a large hammer. The brick wall is within 5 meters of his neighbour’s car. The man decides to face away from his neighbour’s car as he knocks the wall down, as he hopes that doing so will somewhat reduce the risk of the bricks hitting his neighbour’s car and causing damage to it, which he knows his neighbour would be upset about. Unfortunately one of the bricks does hit the neighbour’s car, causing a dent on one of the door panels.

Does he have mens rea for criminal damage?

A

The man has the mens rea of recklessness because he foresaw that there was a risk that his actions would damage the car and he went on to take the risk anyway.

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104
Q

How do PRs transfer land?

A

Land is transferred by the PRs by an assent which, under s.36(4) of the Administration of Estates Act 1925, must be in writing, must be signed by the PRs and must name the person in whose favour it is made

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105
Q

For what crime is diminished responsibility a partial defence?

A

Diminished responsibility is a partial defence to murder. It means that the accused was suffering from an abnormality of mental functioning, so much so that they were not in control of their actions. If the jury accepts the defence, the murder charge must be downgraded to that of voluntary manslaughter.

The defendant must prove that on the balance of probabilities:

He was suffering from an abnormality of mental functioning;
Which arose from the illness;
Which impaired his ability to understand the nature of his conduct, and/or form a rational judgment, and/or exercise self-control; and
This provides an explanation for the stabbing.

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106
Q

What is Schumer v Wickman (commercial contract not draft by lawyers, condition broken)

A

On the face of it, the contract had not been drafted by a lawyer and the parties must have known the term would be breached at some time or another. Consequently, they could not have intended one breach to justify terminating the contract - Schuler v Wickman.

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107
Q

What recourse is there for entering into a contract under misrepresentation ?

A

Rescind or claim damages. If the contract has been fully perform you may not be able to rescind e.g had windows installed. Damages should be claimed instead to put you back in the position you would have been if it weren’t for the breach

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108
Q

What are the type of damages you can receive under contract law.

A

Compensatory damages, punitive damages, liquidated damages, restitutionary damages or nominal damages.

Compensatory damages of the most common, and aim to compensate the victim of the breach of contract for their loss.

Punitive damages are rare in civil law. Mainly used to criminal law. They are not used in commercial contracts. Aim to punish

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109
Q

what is the mens rea for involuntary manslaughter?

A

There is no single definition of mens rea for unlawful act manslaughter– the mens rea required is whatever the mens rea of the unlawful act is. If the unlawful act is setting fire to a building he must have the mens rea for arson, which he does as he intentionally sets fire to property, belonging to another and he knows that it belongs to another.

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110
Q

What is involuntary manslaughter?

A

Involuntary manslaughter is defined as an individual who has committed an unlawful killing without an intention to cause grievous bodily harm or kill the victim, causing the death by recklessness or gross negligence instead.

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111
Q

What is the actus reus of involuntary manslaughter?

A

Doing the unlawful act, that is dangerous, and causes the death of the victim

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112
Q

Is sexual infidelity a qualifying trigger of the partial defence of loss and control

A

No

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113
Q

Is acting out of revenge precluded from the partial defence of loss and control?

A

Yes, it’s precluded from the legislation, and if you act of revenge, you can therefore not claim the partial defence of the loss of control

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114
Q

Is s9.1b of burglary, satisfied when the defendant, commits the offence of criminal damage

A

No - attempt to steal, or steal, or attempt to cause, or cause, GBH

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115
Q

What is burglary pursuant to section 9.1.a pursuant to the theft act

A

a)he enters any building or part of a building as a trespasser and with intent to commit any such offence as is mentioned in subsection (2) below;

2)The offences referred to in subsection (1)(a) above are offences of stealing anything in the building or part of a building in question, of inflicting on any person therein any grievous bodily harm or raping any woman therein, and of doing unlawful damage to the building or anything therein.

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116
Q

What is article 5 of the European Convention on human rights?

A

Right to liberty and security

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117
Q

Can ministers derogate from article 5.

A

Yes, it could be derogate from in times or of public emergency, threatening the life of the nation under article 15. However, such derogation can only be strictly

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118
Q

In the particulars of claim, will the interest rate on the damages, be the same as the contractual interest rate for the late payment of a debt?

A

No, the contractual interest rate applies to late payment of debt. Instead the solicitor should claim interest under section 35A of the senior courts act 1981 at such rate and for such period is the courts sees fit to award

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119
Q

What is the time period for serving a section 25 notice pursuant to the landlord and tenant act 1954

A

12 months prior to the contractual expiry date of the lease

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120
Q

How can a landlord claim a fixed charge, including rent, from a former tenant, pursuant to Landlord and Tenant Act 1995?

A

A section 17 default notice must be served on the former tenant within six months of that sum becoming due and payable

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121
Q

When is a lease governed by the Landlord and Tenant (Covenants) Act 1995

A

New leases granted after 1 January 1996

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122
Q

If there is two mortgages over a registered property, who gets priority overpayment?

A

Both mortgages were created by deed and registered, so they are legal mortgages. Priority between registered legal mortgages is governed by s48 of the Land Registration Act 2002 and the first to appear on the register takes priority. The bank’s mortgage was registered first and therefore has priority over the building society’s mortgage.

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123
Q

What best describes the position regarding distribution of the sale proceeds following the sale of land by a bank pursuant to a legal mortgage

A

The application of sale proceeds following a sale by a mortgagee is governed by s105 of the Law of Property Act 1925 and, firstly, requires the redemption of any prior mortgage to which the sale is not made subject, that is any mortgage which has priority over the selling mortgagee’s mortgage – here the mortgage in favour of the bank.

Secondly, the selling mortgagee’s (here the building society) expenses of sale will be paid. Thirdly, the selling mortgagee’s mortgage (here the building society) will be redeemed and, finally, any surplus will be paid to the owner.

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124
Q

What is the common law position regarding mental capacity and the validity of wills?

A

the presumption is that mental states persist so that if the man usually had capacity it will be presumed that he had capacity on this particular occasion unless there is something that might alert the propounder of the will to a lack of capacity. For example this might occur if the will is not rational on its face.

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125
Q

What is De Keyser principle?

A

if the whole ground of something which could be done by the prerogative is covered by the statute it is the statute that rules’.

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126
Q

How to ensure seller isn’t burdened by beneficial interests in the property ?

A

Pay capital money to two trustees (the married couple). This has the effect of lifting the beneficial interests off the beneficiaries as a consequence of their contribution to the purchase price) from the property and to the proceeds of sale (ie the loan advance from the lender).

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127
Q

If an exploding on a clients property damaged the neighbour’s roof, but the accident was not the clients fault, are they liable to pay for damage ?

A

If the clients use of the land is non-natural and the accident caused damaged that was forseeable then yes.

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128
Q

What is rule in Rylands v Fletcher

A

The rule holds that where there has been an escape of a dangerous thing in the course of a non-natural use of land, the occupier of that land is liable for the damage to another caused as a result of the escape, irrespective of fault.

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129
Q

What does a defendant need to show for partial defence of loss and control

A
  1. He had lost self control as a result of a qualifying trigger; and
  2. A person of D’s age and sex with normal degree of tolerance and self restraint might have reacted in the same way
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130
Q

What are the qualifying triggers for loss and control defence?

A

55 (3) Where D’s loss of self-control was attributable to D’s fear of serious violence from V against D or another identified person. or

S.55 (4) Where D’s loss of self-control was attributable to a thing or things done or said (or both) which—
(a) constituted circumstances of an extremely grave character, and

(b) caused D to have a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged.

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131
Q

Limitations on qualifying triggers of loss and control

A

S.55(6)(a) The fact that a thing done or said constituted sexual infidelity is to be disregarded.
S.55(6)(b) A person may not raise a qualifying trigger if they incited the thing done or said or the violence.

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132
Q

What type of offence is robber?

A

Indictment only

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133
Q

Who decides if an alibi is true for offence of robber?

A

The judge will direct the jury on points of law but this is a question of fact for the jury to decide.

The judge considers points of law and directs the jury and they must then apply it to the facts of the case.

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134
Q

How is a deposit held in a contract for the sale of freehold property is to incorporate Part 1 of the Standard Commercial Property Conditions (Third Edition – 2018 Revision) without amendment.

A

The deposit will be 10% and will be held as stakeholder and the seller will not be able to spend it without the buyer’s consent before completion.

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135
Q

A man bought a house two years ago. He has started court proceedings against his surveyor alleging that she negligently failed to report on the defective construction of the house.

Today, the surveyor has acknowledged service of proceedings and indicated her intention to defend the proceedings.

Today, the surveyor has also been informed by her insurance company that the man’s claim is not covered by the terms of her policy. The surveyor has been informed that this is arguably wrong.

A

Issue a Part 20 claim for an indemnity against her insurance company.

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136
Q

At a general meeting of the shareholders, a company has passed a resolution removing one of its directors. What needs to be filed at CH?

A

Form TM01 informing Companies House of the termination of an appointment of a director must be sent within 14 day of the date when the appointment was terminated

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137
Q

Which resolutions need to be filed at CH?

A

Only copies of special resolutions need to be sent to Companies House.

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138
Q

A person got in an accident, spent 2 weeks in hospital and in pain, and then died. What can be claimed by the estate?

A

estate can bring a claim for damages for the pain and suffering experienced in the period between the accident and death, loss of earnings (if there is a loss) under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934.

there are three possible claims under the Fatal Accidents Act - loss of dependency, bereavement and funeral expenses if paid by the dependants.

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139
Q

“My firm will get the £20,000 to you by 10 am tomorrow.” Who is liable for this undertaking?

A

Both the solicitor and the firm are liable, because the statement made by the solicitor amounts to an undertaking binding on both the individual and the firm.

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140
Q

Trustee delegated her functions to someone else. Is she liable for their defaults?

A

The trustee who appointed the attorney is automatically liable for any defaults of the attorney and will therefore be in breach of trust

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141
Q

When is a claim under the Consumer Protect Act applicable?

A

The CPA applies to all consumer products and products used at a place of work. The inclusion of ‘products used at a place of work’ extends the scope of the law to include sales of products between businesses rather than just sales to consumers if such products are used in a place of work.

A claim may be brought under the CPA by any person who is injured by a ‘defective product’, regardless of whether that person purchased the product.

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142
Q

What claims can be brought under the Consumer Protection Act?

A

A claim may be brought for:
1. death;
2. personal injury; or
3. damage to private property in excess of £275.

However, no claim may be brought for damage to business property or for ‘pure’ economic losses. In particular, the CPA provides that a claim cannot be made for the loss of or damage to the defective product itself. Other than these restrictions, the CPA imposes no financial limit on the producer’s total liability.

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143
Q

Who is liable under CPA?

A

Under the CPA, the ‘producer’ of a product is liable for any defects. The producer is the manufacturer of the finished product or of a component of the finished product, or any person responsible for an industrial or other process to which any essential characteristic of the product is attributable. Liability may also be imposed on any party who holds itself out to be the producer through the use of a name or trade mark, and any person who imported the product into the European Community.

As such, there may be more than one party liable under the CPA in respect of the same damage. Liability is joint and several, so the injured party may sue any or all of these people. Liability cannot be excluded or limited.

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144
Q

What needs to be filed with the Registrar of Companies following the change of name of a company?

A

A copy of the shareholder special resolution to change the name, the appropriate form and the prescribed fee.

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145
Q

Does duress make a contract void?

A

duress makes a contract voidable, not void.

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146
Q

How do PRs protect against unknown creditors?

A

Put an advertisement in the Gazette and wait 2 months from placing the advert to distributing the assets

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147
Q

How do PRs protect against known creditors who can’t be traced?

A

Obtain a Benjamin Order

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148
Q

If there is a licenses to an easement to a flat, and the lease expired and there a new lease was granted on identical terms, does the tenant have right of the easement?

A

Yes, section 62 LPA transformed license easement into a legal easement but has to have 1) diversity of occupation and 2)the existing right could exist as an easement

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149
Q

What are the 2 grounds the Court can refuse an application for Summary Judgment?

A
  1. Basis of compelling reason; or
  2. Defendant has a real prospect of defending the claim
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150
Q

A baker’s shop entered into a contract to bake a cake that was to be iced with a gay rights slogan. The bakers subsequently refused to bake the cake on the basis that the owners were devout Christians and they sought to refund the customer instead. Is the baker in breach of contract?

A

The bakers’ refusal to perform the contract was legal because the bakers should not be forced to express a political opinion in which they did not believe - this would have breached the bakers human rights.

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151
Q

If a director runs a company that is insolvent (i.e cannot pay its debts as they fall due) what is the repercussions?

A

can therefore be subject to disqualification orders on the ground that their conduct as directors makes them unfit to be concerned in the management of a company (Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986). The woman and the man continued operating the company when it was making a loss, and continued to incur debts, so putting the creditors at risk, and continued paying themselves excessive remuneration. If disqualification order re made the Court will specify the period for disqualification as being between 2 and 15 years

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152
Q

How many days before the CMC must a costs budget be filed?

A

14 days for a claim under £50,000 and 21 days for a claim over £50,000.

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153
Q

In which court can a layman be a judge with the correct training?

A

Magistrates (not district judge at magistrates court), or employment tribunal (you have 3 judges, 1 legally qualified and the other 2 are layman).

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154
Q

If someone, by way of deed, granted someone the right to use their parking space, would this constitute a legal easement?

A

No as it would interfere with the owner’s reasonable enjoyment of their parking space as the whole space can be used all the time.

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155
Q

Is a law firm under a duty to install disabled ramps even if there are no disabled people in the company?

A

Yes - the firm is under a duty to make reasonable adjustments, taking into account the cost of making the adjustment, the nature of the service being provided and the size of the firm.

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156
Q

When can someone be liable for pure economic loss in tort?

A

If they have a special relationship with the claimant.

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157
Q

If a solicitor, under the Law Society formula B, wanted to put their client’s contract in the post the following day, and send the deposit by electronic transfer, what would need to be varied in the formula?

A

Firstly, the deposit will be sent by electronic means as per Standard Commercial Property Condition 3.2.2 rather than by banker’s draft or cheque as provided for in the undertakings contained in formula B. This means option B is also wrong. Secondly, the Buyer’s solicitor will not be able to comply with the undertaking in formula B to put their client’s part contract in the first class post/DX today so will need to vary the formula to provide that this will be done tomorrow instead.

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158
Q

What is the doctrine of lost modern grant

A

Any period of 20 years’ continuous user that is not enjoyed by force, by stealth or with permission gives rise to a presumption that an easement was formally granted. The presumption is not rebuttable.

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159
Q

What are the characteristics of an express legal easement?

A
  1. There must be a dominant and servient tenement;
  2. The easement must accommodate the dominant tenement;
  3. The dominant and servient owners must be different people;
  4. The right must be capable of forming the subject matter of a grant; and
  5. It must have been created by deed.
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160
Q

What are the characteristics of an express equitable easement

A

The easement needs to be in writing and signed by (or on behalf) of both parties.

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161
Q

What are the characteristics of an easement of necessity?

A

An easement of necessity would only arise on a sale of part. Easements by necessity are only implied if no use could be made of the land at all without the easement

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162
Q

What are the characteristics of an easement made by way of prescription?

A

There are 3 methods:
1. at common law
2. Lost modern grant
3. Under the Prescription Act 1832

For an easement to arise by prescription, the use must be continuous for a period of at least 20 years. Secondly, it is necessary for the easement to be exercised “as of right”. The facts indicate that the lady has been granted permission in return for payment and therefore her use would not be as of right.

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163
Q

What are the characteristics of an easement made by way of prescription?

A

For an easement to arise by prescription, the use must be continuous for a period of at least 20 years. Secondly, it is necessary for the easement to be exercised “as of right”. The facts indicate that the lady has been granted permission in return for payment and therefore her use would not be as of right.

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164
Q

How do you know if an easement is capable of forming the subject matter of a grant?

A
  1. The grant of a right must be made between a capable grantor and grantee; and
  2. The right:
    (a) must not be too wide or vague in
    character;
    (b) must not amount to a right of joint
    occupation or substantially deprive the
    servient owner of proprietorship or
    legal possession; and
    (c) must possess the quality of utility or
    benefit
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165
Q

What is the most likely form and content of the Certificate of Title in a large commercial property transaction?

A

The Certificate will contain a summary of the pre-contract searches and enquiries and will confirm that (subject to any Disclosures made in the Certificate) the property has a “good and marketable title”. The solicitor will have used the City of London Society Certificate of Title.

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166
Q

What is the most likely form and content of the Certificate of Title in a common residential transaction?

A

The Certificate will confirm that the property has a “good and marketable title”. The solicitor will have used a form approved by the Law Society and UK Finance.

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167
Q

The solicitor is happy with the terms of the draft contract and has reported to his client on the results of title investigation and all searches and enquiries. The solicitor is intending to exchange contracts over the telephone, and completion will take place two weeks after exchange. What else should the solicitor ensure before exchanging contracts?

A

The solicitor should ensure that the deposit is sitting in his client account in cleared (emphasis on cleared!) funds.

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168
Q

Both sides in a property purchase have agreed to adopt The Law Society Code for Completion by Post (2019). Where will completion take place?

A

Completion is likely to take place at the office of the seller’s solicitor.

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169
Q

When is form TA13 used in a property transaction?

A

Form TA13 is mostly used in residential transactions to address the practicalities for completion.

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170
Q

A solicitor is acting for the seller of a registered freehold commercial property. What will be included in the completion statement?

A

The amount payable for the property and amount payable for any furniture - not amount required to discharge the seller’s mortgage.

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171
Q

When drafting the PoC for a damages claim, do you need to include an interest calculation?

A

This is only a requirement when a claim is specified - damages is an unspecified claim.

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172
Q

What is implied actual authority?

A

If the transaction is in the usual authority of such person’s position, then they have implied actual authority to make the purchase.

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173
Q

If Article 8 (right to privacy) & Article 10 (right to privacy) come into conflict, what will the position be?

A

The court will look at the comparative importance of Article 8 and Article 10 on the facts, the justification for interfering with those rights and apply the proportionality test to each.

Test in Baroness Hale in Campbell v MGN.

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174
Q

If a trust deed excludes maintenance and advancement, can the executor pay any money if the beneficiary has not reached the contingent age?

A

The trust deed excludes the statutory provisions of maintenance and advancement that would otherwise grant the trustees the power (and, in certain circumstances, impose a duty on the trustees) to pay money to the student before they reach the age of 25. Note that the statutory provisions of maintenance and advancement apply in the absence of any countervailing provisions in the trust deed / will, and the settlor is therefore at liberty to exclude them.

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175
Q

What are the characteristics of unlawful act manslaughter?

A

The unlawful act must be dangerous as set out in R v Church [1966]. The act must be one that ‘all sober and reasonable people would inevitably recognise must subject the other person to at least the risk of some harm…albeit not serious harm’. Given that the victim of the burglary, the young woman, looks fit and healthy and the boyfriend is unaware of her serious heart condition, the objective test is unlikely to be satisfied.

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176
Q

When is a lease protected by the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954?

A

Whilst fixed-term tenancies not exceeding six months are not protected, if the tenancy includes a provision allowing for renewal, it will have the protection of the 1954 Act.

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177
Q

When can exclusion clauses from b2b never be excluded?

A

An exclusion clause can never exclude remedies for:

death or personal injury;
breach of statutory implied terms in consumer contracts.

Under UCTA!

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178
Q

What test do exclusion clauses have to pass to not be void under UCTA?

A

The reasonableness test.

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179
Q

What is recoverable under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934?

A

The Act allows a claim to be made by the deceased’s estate for losses which the deceased would otherwise have been able to recover themselves had the injuries not proven fatal.

It also allows for the continuance of a claim which the deceased may have already brought themselves but not concluded prior to their death.

Very often, compensation included in this Act include compensation for pain, suffering and loss of amenity, just as in any other personal injury claim.

Though the damages are limited up to the date if death but are assessed in the same way as a conventional personal injury claim.

The Act also allows the estate to recover the financial losses which the deceased would otherwise have been permitted to recover themselves including any loss of income up to the date of death, loss of personal effects and other items of loss including any treatment costs or the value of any services given to him prior to death such as care or nursing services.

Funeral costs are often recoverable by the estate, subject to the cost being deemed reasonable and also subject to the costs of the funeral having been incurred by the estate in the first instance.

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180
Q

What is recoverable under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976?

A

A claim can be brought on behalf of the dependants of the deceased, a fresh cause of action is created, although the claim will only succeed if it can be shown that the deceased would have recovered damages if they were still alive.

Who can bring a claim:
1. spouse or civil partner;
2. formed spouse or civil partner (even if annulled, declared void or dissolved);
3.

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181
Q

What is recoverable under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976?

A

A claim can be brought on behalf of the dependants of the deceased, a fresh cause of action is created, although the claim will only succeed if it can be shown that the deceased would have recovered damages if they were still alive.

Who can bring a claim:
1. spouse or civil partner;
2. formed spouse or civil partner (even if annulled, declared void or dissolved);
3.any person who:
◦was living in the same household as the
deceased immediately before the date
of death
◦had been living there for at least two
years, and
◦was living during the whole of that
period as if they were the deceased’s
husband or wife or civil partner
4. any parent or other ascendant of the deceased
5. any person who was treated by the deceased as their parent
6. any child or other descendant of the deceased
7. any person (not a child of the deceased) who, in the case of any marriage/civil partnership to which the deceased was at any time a party, was treated by the deceased as a child of the family in relation to that marriage/civil partnership
8. any brother, sister, uncle or aunt of the deceased
9. any children of the deceased’s brother, sister, uncle or aunt

Financial dependency is needed to bring a claim.

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182
Q

Who can claim statutory bereavement damages when someone dies?

A

the deceased’s husband, wife, or civil partner
*if the deceased was younger than 18 and had never married or had a civil partner, their:
◦parents, if they were legitimate
◦mother, if they were illegitimate

For deaths that occur on or after 6 October 2020, a claim for a bereavement award may also be made for the benefit of the cohabiting partner of the deceased who:

*was living with the deceased in the same household immediately before the date of the death
*had been living with the deceased in the same household for at least two years before that date

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183
Q

When did easements become registrable dispositions?

A

October 2003

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184
Q

What is the test for exclusion notes under the Consumer Rights Act (2015)?

A

Traders will be subject to the controls under the Consumer Rights Act 2015 and are unable to exclude liability for a consumer visitor’s personal injury. They may be able to exclude liability for other losses (the damage to the car), providing the notice is held to be fair under s62 of the Act.

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185
Q

when you create a dangerous situation, what is your duty under the criminal law?

A

Having created a dangerous situation of which you are aware, you are under a duty to take reasonable steps to mitigate the results of your own actions.

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186
Q

What is a Section 26 request under the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954?

A

This is a notice given by the tenant requesting a new tenancy upon termination of the old one. A section 26 request must specify a date on which the existing lease is to end.

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187
Q

When can a tenant serve a Section 26 notice under the Landlord and Tenant act 1954?

A

As in the case of the landlord’s section 25 notice the date of termination cannot be earlier than six months after the date of the section 26 request nor more than 12 months after that date. A section 26 request cannot bring the existing lease to an end before its normal expiry date.

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188
Q

What are the consequences of a client signing a disclosure statement that is wrong?

A

If that statement is wrong, you could be imprisoned for contempt of court.

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189
Q

What is form DS3 used for?

A

Form DS3 is used to release part of the land that is subject to a registered charge.

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190
Q

What is the electronic discharge (e-DS1) used for?

A

Discharging the whole mortgage.

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191
Q

What can you not claim for under the Consumer Protection Act?

A

Loss or damage to the product itself
Damage to business products not ordinarily intended for private use
Damage to property with a value below £275

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192
Q

A positive covenant has been breached in a lease assigned 3 times. Who can the landlord sue?

A

The original tenant and current tenant. This is an old lease, as it was created before 1 January 1996. There is privity of contract between the freehold company and the original tenant. There is also privity of estate between the freehold company and the current tenant. Therefore, there is an action against both the original tenant and the current tenant.

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193
Q

What is the test for defence of lawful excuse for criminal damage?

A

The woman honestly believed that the property was in immediate danger and the damage was reasonable in the circumstances - this is a subjective not objective test.

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194
Q

When does the duty of disclosure continue until?

A

The END of a trial.

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195
Q

If a client whose will you are drafting says they are giving you £5,000 in the will, what should you do?

A

The SRA ethics guidance on drafting wills indicates that where a solicitor is asked to draft a will for a client which includes a gift to the solicitor which is of significant value in relation to the size of the client’s overall estate, or is of significant value in itself the solicitor will usually need to cease acting if the client does not agree to taking independent legal advice.

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196
Q

If a defendant is granted legal aid, will he be required to contribute towards his defence costs in the magistrates’ court and crown court?

A

The man should consent to summary trial because if granted legal aid in the magistrates’ court, a defendant is not required to contribute towards his defence costs. The

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197
Q

Will the defendant ever be obliged to contribute to the prosecutions costs if convicted?

A

If a defendant is convicted in either the magistrates’ court or the Crown Court, he is likely to be ordered to make a contribution towards the costs incurred by the prosecution.

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198
Q

which criminal Court are not bound by their own decisions

A

Magistrates

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199
Q

Which criminal courts are not bound by their own decisions?

A

Magistrates

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200
Q

In what circumstances can a contract to be void for mistaken identity?

A

Cundy v Lindsay. If a rouge company represents itself as a different good a respectable company, the contract is VOID due to mistaken identity (unilateral mistake) and therefore the rouge can never acquire title to the goods so it doesn’t matter if the goods are sold to an innocent third party

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201
Q

If someone has a beneficial interest of a constructive trust under what circumstances is this an overriding interest?

A

If they are an actual occupation, and said, occupation, would be obvious my reasonable inspection of the property. The overriding interest would be overridden if the purchase money was paid to 2 trustees.

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202
Q

When is recision of a contract for fraudulent misrepresentation barred?

A

If an innocent party had bought the goods in good faith

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203
Q

What type of resolution is needed for a company to enter into a contract?

A

Board resolution

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204
Q

What type of shareholder resolution is needed to approve a substantial property transaction?

A

If a director is connected to another company and owns at least 20% of the voting shares, this is considered a substantial property transaction. In such circumstances in order to approve the the transaction ab ordinary shareholder resolution will be required.

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205
Q

What is an innominate term?

A

One that can be either a condition or warranty, depending on the facts

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206
Q

If a declaration of trust does not provide any specific provision regarding payment for trustees, in what circumstances can a trustee be paid?

A

Professional trustees may receive a reasonable remuneration from the trust, provided there is more than one trustee, and they all agree in writing

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207
Q

With regards to assets that form the subject matter of a gift under a will, when is the will said to speak from?

A

The world is said to speak from the date of death. The basic rule is the assets, which form the subject matter of gift, are determined, according to those in existence of the date of death.

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208
Q

Will a specific legacy under a will fail if the testator no longer owns that property at death.

A

If the testator uses the word ‘my’ to refer to the gift, it is possible that the court could interpret this to mean the gift that was in existence when the testator wrote the will. Specific legacy will therefore fail, if the testate are no longer owns this property at the date of death. The gift is said to be adeemed. However, if the asset concerned is generic in that it is capable of increase or decrease between the date of the will and the date of death, for example, my jewellery will be taking to mean the jewellery owned into the date of death.

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209
Q

If a claimant was seeking damages for distress and inconvenience in relation to a holiday, can he claim damages for himself, and other members of his family, even if he was the one that entered into the contract?

A

When a contract with the object of leisure and enjoyment is made by one party on behalf of the group the party to the contract can claim on the group’s behalf. This principle was established in Jackson v horizon holidays, 1975

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210
Q

Can a police officer claim breach of the peace for a joke made by the defendant

A

No, the joke should have no weight attached to it. In any event the results of the searches and interviews should have outweighed the woman’s comments.

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211
Q

If an old tenant enters into an AGA, will it cease to have a effect upon the subsequent assignment at the lease by the new tenant

A

Yes

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212
Q

Are previous tenants who have entered into a lease before 1996 liable for breaches of covenant, even if they have not entered into an AGA?

A

In relation to leases granted prior to 1996, a tenant who assigned the lease remains liable to the landlord of the covenants in that lease, regardless of any assignment. Tenants of leases entered into after this year are not liable once the lease has been assigned, unless they have entered into an AGA.

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213
Q

What notices need to be served on former tenants, who have entered into AGAs, or have entered into a lease before 1996, to ensure they are liable?

A

A section 17 notice needs to be served on the previous tenant for payment of fixed sums. These tenants need to be notified of the breach within six months of the sum falling due or the landlord must commence an action against the former tenant within that time.

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214
Q

What condition must be satisfied for the court to order pre-action disclosure against the prospective defendant?

A

One of the conditions for pre-action disclosure under CPR 31.16 is that the documents sought would come within the scope of standard disclosure.

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215
Q

When may a third-party be accountable for accessory liability in relation to a breach of trust?

A

A third party may be liable as an accessory if he assisted the breach and was dishonest

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216
Q

When can a tenant apply for relief from forfeiture?

A

The court has discretion to grant withhold relief, which is generally exercised in favour of the tenant if the tenant acts quickly, pays any arrears, remedies any breaches of covenant and pays the landlord costs.

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217
Q

What is a qualified covenant and fully qualified covenant?

A

A qualified covenant allows the tenant to alter the use of the premises for a permitted use to some other use with the landlords prior consent, usually required to be given in writing.

A fully qualified covenant ensures that the leaseholder has the legal right to undertake planned works, and those works cannot be unreasonably with held by their freeholder

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218
Q

What is a qualified covenant under the landlord and tenant act 1927

A

Covenants not to assign or underline it without the landlords consent often described as qualified covenants. In such cases, there is an implied term that consent cannot be unreasonably withheld. Landlords can however, still require payment of a reasonable sum in respect of any legal or other expenses incurred.

The LTA turns the qualified covenant into a fully qualified covenant.

A FULLY QUALIFIED COVENANT REQUIRES THE LANDLORD NOT TO UNREASONABLY WITH HELD ITS CONSENT. This may be an express term of the lease or maybe implied by the landlord and tenant act.

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219
Q

If a trustee is self-dealing can the beneficiaries set aside the transaction?

A

Yes, so long as the beneficiaries set aside the transaction within a reasonable timeframe

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220
Q

Can a defendant in the magistrates appeal his conviction and sentence?

A

If a defendant has pleaded not guilty, he may appeal against his conviction to the crown court as of right, and he may also appeal against sentence. He may appeal on a point of either fact or law.

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221
Q

Does the civil partner, who is not the registered proprietor and is refusing to move out of the house, have any right to remain in the house that is binding on the purchaser?

A

in order to be binding on the purchaser, the entitlement of the civil partner who is not the registered proprietor to remain in occupation under the Family Law Act 1996 would need to be registered as a notice on the charges register before the purchaser was registered.

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222
Q

When can the Claimant make an application for an interim payment?

A

the claimant need to serve the claim form and wait for the period for the defendant to file an acknowledgement of service to expire.

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223
Q

What is an interim payment application?

A

An interim payment is a payment made by a defendant on account of a claimant’s monetary claim before the court has made a final determination on the amount of that claim. Defendants often make interim payments for tactical reasons where liability is not in dispute, for example to reduce their liability to pay interest.

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224
Q

If there is a safety guard around a sharp section of a machine, but someone can move the safeguard, is this a breach of duty?

A

the duty to provide a safe system of work is relevant and the client should not have been able to move the safety guard and continue working on the machine (the usual safeguard is that such machines should automatically switch off if a safety guard is moved).

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225
Q

How can a defendant can discharge her evidential burden for the defence of alibi?

A

Whilst a defendant is not obliged to place any evidence before the court to show that she is innocent of the offence with which she has been charged, as she is raising a specific alibi defence, and wishes the jury to consider that defence, she must place some evidence of that defence before the court if she wishes the court to consider that defence when deciding the verdict. This is an evidential burden. It is relatively simple for her to satisfy this burden, all she needs to do is give details of her defence in the witness box.

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226
Q

What is the actus reus of ABH?

A

the actus reus of assault occasioning actual bodily (s.47 of the Offences Against the Person Act 1861) is that an assault is committed (here, a physical assault) and that harm is caused which is more than ‘transient or trifling’, R v Savage; R v Parmenter [1991] 1 AC 699. ‘Significant bruising’ would satisfy this.

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227
Q

When did a legal easement become a registerable disposition?

A

expressly granted legal easement or profit and under section 27(2)(d) LRA 2002 it is a registrable disposition.

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228
Q

When is a legal easement or profit an overriding interest?

A

legal easements and profits created by implication or prescription after 12 October 2003 are overriding interests. Such easements/profits do not require a deed in order to be legal

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229
Q

How is an easement created by implication?

A

In some cases, an easement may be created by implication. An easement will only be implied if:

  • It is necessary to so imply it;
  • The parties had a common intention at the time of the sale of the land that there would be an easement;
  • By the operation of s.62 of the Law of Property Act 1925;
    Where the land was previously in common ownership and:
    the common owner exercised over one part of the plot a right which could have been an easement if the plots were in separate ownership;
    the exercise of the right was continuous and apparent; and
    the exercise of the right is necessary for the reasonable enjoyment of the dominant land. (This is known as the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows (1879) 12 Ch D 31)
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230
Q

How is an easement created by prescription?

A

In its simplest terms prescription is about acquiring a right through long use or enjoyment. To bore you with some law, prescriptive easements can be acquired through common law, by “lost modern grant” or under the Prescription Act 1832. What we really need to know is that to acquire a prescriptive easement there needs to have been 20 years of continuous use “as of right”. The 20 years use must be “continuous” in that there cannot be unexplained periods of non-use. The use must be “as of right” which means that it must be “without force”, “without secrecy” and “without permission”

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231
Q

What happens if testator does not sign/acknowledge his signature in the presence of two witnesses.

A

The will is therefore invalid. As a result, the estate would pass under the intestacy rules,

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232
Q

Is insurance a factor in the reasonableness test in UCTA?

A

he limitation clause will be subject to the Unfair Contract Terms Act (UCTA) and will be effective if a court judges the clause to be reasonable. The reasonableness test is set out in s 11 and depends not only on the parties’ knowledge (actual or constructive) at the time the contract was entered into (and whether in the light of that knowledge the clause was a fair and reasonable one to be included) but also on other factors such as those set out in s 11(4), Schedule 2 of UCTA and in case-law. The availability of insurance is a factor recognised by the courts when determining reasonableness.

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233
Q

Does a WP letter need to be disclosed in standard disclosure?

A

Nprivilege attaches to the letter as it is correspondence between the parties and any privilege would have been waived when the letter was sent, so it should be listed in Part 1. The list of documents will not form part of the trial bundle and the judge will not be aware of the offer.

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234
Q

If a variation is made under duress, is the whole contract voidable or just the variation?

A

Just the variation

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235
Q

What is the two parts of the test for a duty of care to be owed for negligent statements.

A

Has the defendant assumed responsibility and was it reasonable for the claimant to rely on the defendant for advice.

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236
Q

When two co-owners buy a property will they sign the transfer?

A

The seller always needs to sign the transfer, but the buyer only needs to sign in certain situations. The relevant reasons why the buyers need to sign on this occasion is that they will make a declaration of trust (as they will be co-owners) . Another reason is if they need to give an indemnity.

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237
Q

What is an extrinsic aid?

A

An extrinsic aid is something found outside the Act. The judge can use the extrinsic aid to help them understand what a word they are interpreting means. A well-known example of a simple extrinsic aid is a dictionary.

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238
Q

What is an internal aid?

A

an internal aid means that the court is referring to another part of the same Act which is being discussed as part of the court case

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239
Q

When may a bank have constructive of undue influence in relation to a charge over a property of a married couple, in which the charge does not benefit the wife?

A

The Bank should have been put on inquiry as the relationship between the client and debtor was non-commercial and the loan was not for their joint benefit. The Bank does not appear to have had a private meeting with the client to explain the risks and she did not take independent advice: so the Bank would have constructive notice of the undue influence.

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240
Q

If trying to pass a shareholder resolution by way of written resolution, when do the votes have to be in by?

A

By the lapse date be in 28 days beginning with the circulation date

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241
Q

Can an account who contracted with a company be liable to a shareholder of the company, who relied on the negligent accounts and lost money as a result?

A

Yes, provided that the accountants are aware that the shareholder would read the accounts when deciding whether or not to further invest in the company. It would be necessary for the claimant to establish that the accounts knew that the shareholder would be likely to rely on the account without independent enquiry, and it was reasonable to do so.

The loss suffered relates to pure economic loss, and therefore a duty of care for negligent misstatement must cause the loss it the shareholder must prove there was was a Headley burn special relationship responsibility with an assumption of responsibility and reasonable reliance

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242
Q

What is the fourth stage Caparo test?

A

Test to see if a special relationship and formed and the defendant had assumed responsibility to the claimant:

  1. Was the advice acted on to the claimant’s detriment;
  2. Did the defendant know the advice was to be communicated to the claimant;
  3. Did the defendant know the claimant would rely on the advice without independent inquiry; and
  4. Did the defendant know for what purpose the advice would be used for.
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243
Q

Is pure psychological harm recoverable from a breach of duty owed from a driver to a pedestrian?

A

If the psychological harm has been caused as a result of a physical impact, then it is recoverable however, if it is pure psychological harm, then no

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244
Q

In order for a primary victim to be owed duty of care, what criteria needs to be satisfied?

A
  1. The risk of physical injury must be foreseeable, however, the psychiatric harm does not need to be.

• Page v Smith (1995) the claimant was in a car crash. Whilst he did not suffer physical injury the shock induced a psychiatric illness - duty of care was owed as the physical injury to claimant was foreseeable (the duty of care included PSH)

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245
Q

In order for pure psychiatric harm to be recoverable for secondary victim what criteria needs to be satisfied?

A
  1. Psychiatric harm needs to be foreseeable - i.e a person of normal fortitude could expect to suffer the PSH;
  2. Close proximity - the relationtionship between the secondary victim and the person involved in the incident needs to be a close one - e.g husband/wife, parent/child. If not one of these then evidence may need to be provided to show close proximity;
  3. Close proximity in space and time - claimant needs to witness incident or the aftermath; and
  4. Close proximity of perception - claimant needs to witness the event or aftermath with their own senses.

The difference with this and a primary victim is that with a primary victim, the pure psychological harm does not need to be foreseeable

Above 4 conditions are the Alcock control mechanisms

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246
Q

Can a dad, who witnesses a young child suffer a fit at the hospital, as a result of medical negligence occurring 1 hour before, whilst the dad was out the room, be able to claim as a secondary victim for pure psychiatric harm?

A

Yes, if the dad suffers a recognisable psychiatric condition that results from a shocking event or a violent assault on the senses, close ties of love and affection to victim, proximate in time and space [he is directly in aftermath], and appreciation of incident with unaided sense

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247
Q

Can an employer delegate duty to provide a safe system of work for its employees

A

No, it is nondelegable

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248
Q

Can employers be vicariously liable for independent contractors?

A

No employers can only be held vicariously responsible for their employees

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249
Q

When is an employer vicariously liable for employee?

A

Worker must be an employee, worker must have committed a tort, worker must have acted in the course of their appointment.

Also, consider causation and remoteness of loss

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250
Q

What was established in the case of Murphy V Brentwood?

A

The cost of replacing or repairing a defective product is treated in law as pure economic loss caused by acquiring a defective item of property

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251
Q

Can an employee be held to be acting within the course of the appointment, even if they act contrary to express instructions

A

Yes, if they’re negligent, actions furthered their employees business

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252
Q

What percentage of damages, as found in the case of Froome v butcher, will be deducted from the claimant as a result of contributory negligence for not wearing a seatbelt, if a claimant suffered injuries which would have been less severe

A

15%

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253
Q

Do you need exclusive possession of land to make a claim in private nuisance?

A

Yes, need to be a tenant or owner who lives in the house

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254
Q

If a passenger knowingly gets in a car with someone who has been drinking, and subsequently crashes, what defences may be available for the defendant?

A

Contributory negligence, passengers, who accept a lift from a driver, who they know to be drunk, can expect to have their damages reduced, if they are injured in an accident, caused by the drivers, intoxicated state, even if they were too drunk to appreciate the drivers intoxication.

The defensive, voluntary assumption of risk being raised by the driver, will not work on any motor-vehicle claim where there is compulsory insurance

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255
Q

What criteria must be satisfied for a successful claim for dependency under the fatal accidents act 1976?

A

There are two criteria. Firstly, the claimant must be both on the statutory list of people who can claim and be financially dependent on the deceased.

Generally a child period of dependency ends when they reach the age of 18. However, this is extended by the child is in or is expected to be in full-time education.

Money, the claimant may inherit from the deceased are disregarded under the fatal accident act .

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256
Q

Under the tort of public nuisance what types of harm can be recovered?

A

Personal injury and property damage

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257
Q

What is the criteria for proving private nuisance?

A

Private nuisance is not based upon proving that the defendant has taken reasonable care. private nuisance concerned with whether the consequences of the defendants use of the land is unlawful, causes substantial and unreasonable interference with a claim with the land

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258
Q

Are the actions of a third-party relevant to the defence of contributory negligence?

A

No, only a claimant can be contributory negligent

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259
Q

What is the test for remoteness of law in tort of negligence?

A

Legal causation is different from factual causation which raises the question whether the damage resulted from the breach of contract or duty. Accordingly, once factual causation is established, it is necessary to ask whether the law is prepared to attribute the damage to the particular breach, notwithstanding the factual connection.

test for remoteness of damage is whether the kind of damage suffered was reasonably foreseeable by the defendant at the time of the breach of duty. The defendant will be liable for any type of damage which is reasonably foreseeable as liable to happen even in the most unusual case unless the risk is so small that a reasonable person would in the whole circumstances feel justified in neglecting it

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260
Q

What is required for the defensive illegality in the tort of negligence?

A

Illegality requires a close connection between the claimants wrongdoing and their loss so that the damage arises directly out of the illegal activity.

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261
Q

If a mother has left a child unrestrained near a busy road, and a child causes a car accident, who will be contributory negligent?

A

The mother cannot be contributory negligence, as only the claimant can be. However, the claimant is a child. Therefore the mother, who is the one that owes the duty of care to the child, can be added as a joint tortfeasor or additional defendant, so as to reduce the amount payable by the defendant to the child. This is in accordance with the civil liability contribution act.

262
Q

What is the employees liability, defective equipment act? .

A

Employee can sue the employer instead of manufacturer or supplier of defective equipment
• Must show:
1. Fault on part of third party (manufacturer or supplier); and
2. Causation.

263
Q

Can an employer be liable to its other employees for negligence of independent contractors?

A

Yes, the employer has a non-delegable duty to ensure reasonable care is taken.

264
Q

What are the three elements require before an employer will be held vicariously liable for its employees?

A

The employee committed a tort during the course of their employment; there was a sufficiently close connection between the employee’s job and the tort they committed to make it fair and just for the employer to be held liable for the employee’s actions.

265
Q

In a claim for personal injury of a man, if his mum gives up her job to care for the man (due to the medical condition suffered as a result of the PI) is the mother’s loss of earnings recoverable?

A

Damages are payable where a relative gives up work to provide care. In Housecroft v Burnett [1986] 1 All ER 332 the court held that the starting point was the loss of earnings suffered by the carer. However, the costs cannot exceed the commercial rate for providing the services.

266
Q

What are damages for loss of earning capacity?

A

Loss of earning capacity would apply if the claimant was currently still working but would suffer a disadvantage on the job market in the future.

267
Q

If a PI claimant decides to get private health care instead of NHS care, does this amount to a failure to mitigate their loss?

A

s2(4) of the Law Reform (Personal Injuries) Act 1948 states that a claimant cannot be found to have failed to mitigate their loss by paying for private treatment rather than obtaining free treatment under the National Health Service.

268
Q

Does running and failing to notice a large hole (that the claimant subsequently trips in) amount to contributory negligence?

A

Yes - the claimant was careless for their own safety by running for the lift etc and not paying full attention to the floor. This carelessness contributed to the injury that they suffered.

269
Q

Can you exclude liability under OLA 1957?

A

Occupiers can extend, restrict, exclude or modify their duty to visitors in so far as they are free to do so. If the occupier is a business, the ability to exclude liability is subject to the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977. If it relates to trader/consumer, subject to fairness test. Can exclude liability for PI or death.

270
Q

When is a warning notice adequate for OLA 1957?

A

Under the 1957 Act, a warning will not discharge the occupier’s duty of care unless it is adequate, ie it enables the guest to be reasonably safe and warns them of the specific danger.

271
Q

What is the common law position on exclusion notices?

A

You have to take reasonable steps to draw it to the attention of the claimant.

272
Q

Under the OLA 1957, do you have to adequately warn visitors of obvious dangers in order to discharge your duty of care?

A

No - not if they are obvious risks.

273
Q

What is the difference between OLA 1957 & 1984

A

The 1957 is in relation to a duty of care to lawful visitors, and damage to property as well as PI is recoverable. 1984 act is in relation to unlawful visitors and only PI is recoverable. Can’t exclude liability for 1984 act.

274
Q

Are occupiers liable for acts of third party contractors under OLA 1957?

A

Firstly, if it was reasonable to entrust the work to an independent contractor in the first place. Secondly, where the occupier took reasonable steps to ensure the independent contractor was competent. Thirdly, where the occupier took reasonable steps to check the work of an independent contractors.

275
Q

When has an employer breached its duty to provide competent staff?

A

If it either knew that the team leader was not properly supervising the male employee, or that it ought to have known (as per Hudson v Ridge Manufacturing Co Ltd [1957] 2 QB 348).

276
Q

What is a better mechanism for the your client, selling a property, who has been informed the buyer will not be ready to complete on time: 1. Serve a notice to complete immediately. If the buyer does not comply with the notice then forfeit the deposit, re-sell the shop and claim damages, or 2. Claim compensation for delay under the SCPCs and then sue the buyer for breach of contract to recover any additional losses.

A

If the client is keen to get funds quickly, then option 1 is better as it forfeits the deposit, however, if the property marker is bad then option 2 may be better.

277
Q

If a trustee mixes trust money with is own money in his bank, what can the equitable tracing rules do?

A

Re Hallett creates a presumption of a trustee spending his own money first, and applies where there are sufficient funds left over in a bank account to satisfy a claim by a beneficiary. If this does not work, Re Oatway says it might be said that an investment in successful investments would be deemed to be an investment made out of the trust property

278
Q

If a trustee steals money and gives it to his partner who asks no questions, is the partner an innocent volunteer?

A

he partner is unlikely to be an innocent volunteer; his failure to ask questions about where the money came from despite his surprise at the amount, may make it unconscionable for him to retain the receipt (BCCI v Akindele). In any event, the beneficiaries would have a proprietary claim against him, even if he was an innocent volunteer.

279
Q

Stolen trust money give to an innocent volunteer, can the beneficiaries assert a proprietary claim over what the innocent volunteer bought with the trust money?

A

A beneficiary of may trace trust money into mixed funds held by an innocent volunteer but cannot trace into the physical property of the volunteer on which the trust money was spent on alterations - re Diplock

280
Q

Tracing rules for taken trust property

A

Owner may be seeking to recover their original property from the defendant

Owner may be seeking to recover their original property PLUS any profit which may have been realised from the defendants use of the property

Owner may seek to establish a proprietary right in some other property which the defendant has acquired by using the original property (when not able to require the original property

281
Q

When is rescission for misrepresentation likely to be barred

A

It is likely to be barred for undue delay and if restitution would be impossible.

282
Q

If rescission is barried for misrepresentation, what remedy may a claimant be awarded instead

A

Assuming that the misrepresentation was made negligently (e.g if the seller of a business grossly exaggerated net profits), the client would be awarded damages for loss of net profit calculated on a tortious basis.

283
Q

What is the position with regards advancement of share capital to a contingent beneficiary who is over 18?

A

If he trust was created before 1 October 2014: the trustees can make a capital advancement under s32 Trustee Act 1925 because the son has an interest in capital and the proposed use is for his benefit. As the trust was created before 1 October 2014, they can advance up to half of the amount of the son’s potential share of the trust. This is discretionary. Consent is only needed from a beneficiary if they have a prior interest i.e a life tenant.

After 1 October 2014: The beneficiary can get the whole share pursuant to the Inheritance and Trustees Powers Act 2014

284
Q

Is a trust interest in a property (i.e if someone invested money in the house) overriding?

A

This trust interest may be overriding if she is also in actual occupation of the house and the conditions of paragraph 2 of Schedule 3 of the Land Registration Act 2002 are satisfied. Overriding interests bind even though there is no mention of them on the registered title.

Finally, whilst a beneficiary can register a restriction on the Proprietorship Register, this does not protect the trust interest, instead, it alerts a potential buyer of the need to overreach the trust interest.

285
Q

What are the overriding interests in schedule 3 to the Land Registration Act 2002?

A

Schedule 3 relates to interest which override registered dispositions:

  1. Leasehold estate (legal) in land not exceeding seven years unless it is a registerable disposition;
  2. Interests of people in actual occupation (unless he had actual/implied knowledge, or failed to enquire when he should have done);
  3. A legal easement or profit a prendre, except for an easement, or a profit a prendre which is not registered (except if known due to actual/implied knowledge or should have made enquiries);
  4. Local land charge;
  5. Interests in coal or mine; and
  6. A right in respect of the repair of a church chancel (not after 12 October 2013)
286
Q

Can someone who has had their rights breached under the ECHR proceed with their claim before the ECtHR

A

Yes if they have exhausted their domestic remedies and apply within time - i.e if they have brought a case within the UK which has been rejected and has been refused permission to appeal, so they have exhausted their domestic remedies. They can then started proceedings within the four month time limit for bringing an individual claim before the ECtHR.

287
Q

If during a trial, you find a case that adversely effects your claim must you bring it to the attention of the trial judge?

A

They should draw the new legal authority to the attention of the Court because they have a duty to inform the Court of relevant cases which are likely to have a material effect on the outcome of proceedings.

288
Q

Can a court , in the interests of justice, anticipate future changes to legislation when coming to their decision?

A

No, because a judge’s role is to apply the rule of law.

289
Q

How long under the CRA do you have to reject goods that do not conform to the contract. What remedies are available after this.

A

Section 19 CRA applies a pecking order of remedies where the goods do not conform to the contract. The short-term right to reject non-perishable goods and claim a full refund is lost after 30 days from installation (section 22 CRA). However, the man would still have a right to request replacement and if not, then a final right to reject and claim a partial refund.

290
Q

When looking at the epitome of title, what land charges searches does the solicitor have to undertake?

A

The solicitor must search all the pre-root owners of whom they are aware, and any personal reps (if they aren’t sure of the year then up to 1926). It is not necessary to search against a lender only estate owners (unless the lender is in possession but check the facts to see if this is suggested).

291
Q

What happens to a will when someone divorces?

A

Under s18A Wills Act 1837, the will is treated as if the ex-spouse died on the date the divorce was finalised.

292
Q

What best reflects the position in relation to the payment of dividends by the company (MA - not amended)

A

Once a final dividend has been declared, it must be paid to the shareholders.

293
Q

Does the chair get a casting vote at a general meeting?

A

No - only board meetings.

294
Q

Who can call a poll vote at a general meeting?

A

a poll vote can be requested by two shareholders (MA44(2)), a single shareholder needs 10% of the voting shares (MA44(2)).

295
Q

What is a priority period in property law?

A

The priority period afforded by the OS1 search gives a fixed time within which a buyer will take a property free from any subsequent entries which may be placed on the register after the date of the search but before the buyer is registered as proprietor, provided that the buyer submits his application for registration within the priority period.. If the application to register is not received by the Land Registry before 12 noon on the last day of the priority period, priority is lost to any prior applications.

296
Q

On which register on the title will a legal easement sit?

A

The easement was expressly created by deed after October 2003 and is, therefore, a registrable disposition. As the easement benefits the property, it would appear in the property register

297
Q

Does the high court have to take account of judgments in the HCtHR

A

domestic courts ‘must take into account’ judgments of the ECtHR but are not bound to follow them.

298
Q

Can children be beneficiaries under the intestacy rules?

A

Yes - the legacy will be contingent until 18

299
Q

Can accepting a gift be an act of theft?

A

A gift could be appropriation where the grantee had acted dishonestly. Furthermore, the Court held that an act does not require to be unlawful under the general law to constitute an “appropriation.”

300
Q

Who cannot vote in ratifying a directors breach/

A

The votes of the breaching director or the votes of any connected person will be disregarded if their votes resulted in the resolution passing. The director’s mother is a connected person under

301
Q

Can the police ban a static demonstration in advance?

A

No, but they can with public processions

302
Q

When can police ban public processions in advance?

A

If the Chief Constable reasonably believes that imposing conditions will not prevent the procession from resulting in serious public disorder.

303
Q

What are the evidential burdens on the defendant for defences?

A

There is an evidential burden on the defendant if relying upon self-defence or loss of control, but a legal burden to discharge for diminished responsibility (balance of probs)

304
Q

If the victim has made an identification from viewing photos (batches of 12 who fit description) what is the next step?

A

The victim should now be asked to take part in an identification procedure - the suspect cannot be compelled to take part in such procedure.

305
Q

Does tenants in common apply to the legal estate?

A

No - the equitable

306
Q

A woman appears in the magistrates’ court charged with an offence of assault occasioning actual bodily harm and an offence of theft. At the plea before venue hearing she indicates a not guilty plea to the assault matter and a guilty plea in relation to the theft matter. The magistrates accept jurisdiction to deal with the assault, but the woman elects trial on indictment. Which court will sentence the woman for the offence of theft?

A

The magistrates’ court will have a choice to either sentence the woman for the offence of theft or to commit her to the Crown Court to be sentenced there. This will often depend on whether the two offences are linked or not. If they are not, the magistrates’ court may be more likely to sentence the offender, whereas if they are linked, the magistrates may be more likely to send them both up to the Crown Court to be dealt with.

307
Q

Does foreclosure end the mortgage?

A

Foreclosure would end the mortgage. However, it is not in the Bank’s interest to foreclose as this would extinguish the mortgage and leave the Bank with no remedy to recover any shortfall from the owner

308
Q

Difference between power of sale and foreclosure?

A

What’s the difference between the power of sale and foreclosure? In a Power of Sale, the lender forces a sale on the public market and gets all funds owed to them, while the current owner keeps any excess profit. In a Foreclosure, the lender takes ownership and also keeps all profits from the sale. Equity of redemption is extinguished in foreclosure.

309
Q

What is equity of redemption?

A

The right in equity which a mortgagor or chargor has on full repayment of the secured debt, to recover the assets which are subject to the mortgage or charge.

310
Q

Can delay of legal advice be authorised for summary only offence?

A

No, indictable only

311
Q

Who can authorise delay legal advice?

A

superintendent.

312
Q

What is the remedy for undue influence?

A

the only remedy for undue influence is rescission (not damages too).

313
Q

What are the features of a substantial property transaction in business

A

the sale of a non-cash asset (the property); of substantial value because the value exceeds 10% of the company’s net asset value (the sale price is £95,000 which exceeds £90,000, i.e. 10% of the company’s net asset value of £900,000);to a person connected to a director (the director’s mother (ss252, 253 Companies Act 2006)

314
Q

When, under the Fraud Act, must a person disclose specific info?

A

The duty to disclose under s.3 of the Fraud Act 2006 arises when the defendant is under a legal duty to disclose that information. Although ‘legal duty’ is not defined in the Act, the Explanatory Notes confirm that it includes duties under written contracts. In this instance, the man is under a legal duty to disclose his disciplinary offence due to the express term of the employment contract.

Option A is wrong because the actus reus of the offence of failing to disclose information is committed when a person fails to disclose information which they are under a legal – not a moral – duty to disclose.

315
Q

What is a right of entry?

A

a right of entry is either the right of a landlord to forfeit a lease or a rentcharge owner’s right to reclaim the land if the periodic payment charged on the land is not paid.

316
Q

What rate of CGT do PRs pay?

A

gain is taxed at 20% (PRs always pay CGT at the higher rate).

317
Q

What is mens rea for crim damage?

A

The mens rea for criminal damage is to intend or be reckless as to the damage or destruction of property and know or be reckless that the property belongs to another. The sister is reckless as she saw there was a risk that the phone would be damaged (albeit “highly unlikely”) but she went on to take that risk anyway. This is the subjective test as per Cunningham [1982] and R v G [2004].

318
Q

What is ratio decidendi

A

a proposition of law within some key reasoning

319
Q

What is ratio decidendi

A

a proposition of law within some key reasoning

320
Q

What is commercial arrears rent recovery

A

Commercial Rent Arrears Recovery (CRAR) is a statutory procedure which allows landlords of commercial premises to recover rent arrears by taking control of the tenant’s goods and selling them. CRAR came into force on 6 April 2014 and applied with immediate effect to all new and existing commercial leases from that date onwards.

In order to use CRAR, a landlord must provide 7 days’ notice of enforcement. Once this period has expired, Certificated Enforcement Agents may enter the property (through an open or unlocked door) to seize goods.

CRAR applies whether or not reference is made to it in the lease.

There are anti-avoidance provisions in place which prevent landlords from creating contracts which modify CRAR or otherwise including alternate ways to recover rent arrears by seizing goods. However, the landlord and tenant can agree to limit the application of CRAR.

321
Q

What is self help clause in a lease

A

A Lease which contains a properly drafted Jervis v Harris clause, grants the Landlord a right to first serve notice on a Tenant, specifying any breaches of covenants relating to the condition of a property.

If the Tenant then fails to proceed diligently with remedying the breaches and/or to remedy the breaches identified in the notice within a specified period, (as set out in the Jervis v Harris clause – usually within 2-3 months), the clause grants a right for the Landlord to enter the property to carry out the works and to then recover the costs in doing so from the tenant, as a ‘debt’.

322
Q

What is a certificate of title?

A

The approved certificate of title is the document the conveyancing solicitor gives to the lender to confirm certain statements about the property.

323
Q

What are the 7 heads of illegality for JR?

A

seven heads of illegality which are acting without legal authority; wrongful delegation; fettering discretion; acting for an unlawful purpose or for dual purposes; taking account of irrelevant factors and/or not taking account of relevant factors; error of law and error of fact.

324
Q

What are the 7 heads of illegality for JR?

A

seven heads of illegality which are acting without legal authority; wrongful delegation; fettering discretion; acting for an unlawful purpose or for dual purposes; taking account of irrelevant factors and/or not taking account of relevant factors; error of law and error of fact.

325
Q

Will co-defendants have their trial in the same Court?

A

CrimPR, r 9.2(6)(a) provides that where the court is dealing with two or more defendants charged with the same offence, if one of the defendants elects trial in the Crown Court, all of the defendants will be sent to the Crown Court for their joint trial regardless of the other defendant(s)’s decision on venue. The trial will therefore only take place in the magistrates’ court if the magistrates decide the offence to be more suitable for summary trial and both defendants consent to summary trial.

326
Q

Can an individual claim against a local authority acting correctly and an AoP that infringes the convention rights?

A

No - Public authorities must act in a way which is compatible with Convention rights except where to do so would contravene a UK Act of Parliament

327
Q

Does a solicitor have to let the Court know about a case that hurts its case?

A

Under Paragraph 2.7 a solicitor is under a duty to draw the court’s attention to cases which are likely to have a material effect on the case. Compliance with the duty is not dependent on the client’s consent

328
Q

What type of aids are schedules to AoP?

A

intrinsic aids

329
Q

What is an extrinsic aid?

A

an extrinsic aid is external to the legislation but useful to courts in helping decide the issues.

330
Q

Can chief of police restrict public assemblies?

A

The Chief of Police is the most senior officer and can impose conditions on public assembly if he reasonably believes that the meeting may result in serious public disorder, serious damage to property or serious disruption to the life of the community, (or because the purpose of the organiser is intimidation) (s.14(1) POA).

Placing restrictions and conditions on the group is the most proportionate responses, as the police have no power to impose a ban. The right to hold non-religious beliefs is protected by Art 9, however the right to manifest your beliefs is qualified. This means it can be interfered with in certain situations - for example, to protect the rights of others as is the case here (in this example assembly to be held outside church)

331
Q

What satisfies breach of the peace?

A

harm to be done or likely to be done to a person or in his presence to his property’ or for them to fear harm through an unlawful disturbance (R v Howell)

332
Q

What constitutes a public assembly?

A

Consists of two or more people in a public place.

333
Q

What rate of income tax do PRS pay on dividends?

A

PRs pay income tax on dividends at basic rate only (7.5%)

334
Q

If an event causing a contract to be frustrated is unforeseeable, can frustrating still be a remedy?

A

frustration may still be available where an event is foreseeable but was not in fact foreseen by the parties.

335
Q

What action can the Legal Ombudsman take for firm not considering complaint, even if complaint wasn’t justified (Senior Partner didn’t consider complaint(?

A

Although the complaint was unjustified, it has not been dealt with properly and so the Legal Ombudsman may still take action, including requiring the client to be compensated for inconvenience and so on. The senior partner is in breach of Paragraph 8.5 because the complaint has not been dealt with promptly and the Legal Ombudsman may report the senior partner to the SRA for that reason.

336
Q

How much of a company must a director own to be a person with significant control?

A

Over 25% voting rights in company, or right to appoint/remove majority of the board directors, or have right to exercise (or who actually exercise) significant influence or control over company.

337
Q

What is Mens Rea for attempted murder?

A

For attempted murder, the defendant must intend to kill the victim (not just injure)

338
Q

A company is buying a freehold property. The contract incorporates the Standard Commercial Property Conditions (Third Edition) without variation. What are remedies for delay?

A

The seller will be able to claim compensation at the contract rate on the purchase price less the deposit and may be able to claim damages for breach of contract, only if the seller can establish that it has suffered a loss and any damages awarded will be reduced by the amount of compensation paid.

339
Q

Commercial landlord’s lease contains forfeiture clause. Repair covenant breached, how does the landlord forfeit lease?

A

Yes, because the tenant is in breach of a repair covenant, the landlord must serve a s.146 notice on the tenant and include notification of the tenant’s right to serve a counter notice within 28 days.

A s.146 notice (LPA) warns a tenant who is in breach of covenant (other than the covenant to pay rent) of the landlord’s intention to forfeit the lease. You must notify the tenant of the breach and provide the tenant with a reasonable time to remedy it; if the breach is capable of being remedied. If a landlord does not provide the tenant with this ‘reasonable period of time’ for remedy, there is a risk that the section 146 notice will be deemed invalid.

Leasehold Property (Repairs) Act 1938 - if a lease is granted for a term of at least seven years and there are at least three years left to run, a notice must be served on the tenant at least one month before bringing the action to forfeit the lease. The tenant can serve a counter notice, although there is a time limit of 28 days in which they must do so. If the tenant does serve a counter notice, the landlord cannot proceed to forfeit the lease without the court’s consent.

340
Q

What criteria is there to justify making an application without notice?

A

1) where there is exceptional urgency,

(2) where the overriding objective is best furthered by doing so,

(3) by consent of all parties,

(4) with the permission of the court,

(5) where paragraph 2.10 above applies (fixed date for trial no time, inform other side and court in writing then say orally at hearing), or

(6) where a court order, rule or practice direction permits

341
Q

Rules in re Oatway for tracing?

A

Re Oatway enables the beneficiary to assert a charge over the mixed fund and any withdrawals made from that fund

342
Q

What does apparent authority mean?

A

The agent may have had apparent authority but that simply stops the principal (the client in this instance) denying the agent’s authority if the principal is sued by the third party.

343
Q

How does overreaching apply in a case where a widow wants to sell her house held as tenants in common with her dead spouse?

A

Where the equitable title to a property is held by co-owners as tenants in common and one of those co-owners dies, another legal owner (also referred to as a trustee) needs to be appointed to overreach the equitable interest of the deceased co-owner before completion.

344
Q

What costs are recoverable in small claims?

A

Fixed costs e.g claim form cost, witness travel expenses etc

345
Q

Is the High Court bound by its own decisions

A

No, but usually follow

346
Q

Is the Court of Appeal bound by its own decisions

A

Yes, except in 3 circumstances:

  1. Where the decision of the Court of Appeal conflicts with a later decision of the House of Lords the Court of Appeal must follow the House of Lords;
  2. Where there are two earlier conflicting decisions of the Court of Appeal then the later Court of Appeal in a third case must choose between them;
  3. Where an earlier decision of the Court of Appeal was made per incuriam i.e. the earlier Court of Appeal overlooked something that was binding on it such as a statute the later Court of Appeal are not bound to follow their earlier decision.
347
Q

What is the Mens Rea of a s20 assault

A

Mens rea of a S20 offence is maliciously. In Savage (1991) it was confirmed maliciously meant intentionally or recklessly.

It is sufficient to prove the defendant intended his act to result in some unlawful bodily harm, even minor or was subjectively reckless as to the risk.

348
Q

Who is a connected person to a director for the purposes of a substantial property transaction?

A

Connected persons include the following members of a director’ family: their husband, wife or civil partner or partner with whom they have an ‘enduring relationship’, parents, children (and step-children)

349
Q

What is definition of burglary under section (1)(a)

A

A person is guilty of burglary if—
(a)he enters any building or part of a building as a trespasser and with intent to commit any such offence

Even if did not actually steal anything, only need intent and tresspass

350
Q

What is definition of burglary under section (1)(b)

A

A person is guilty of burglary if—
(b)having entered any building or part of a building as a trespasser he steals or attempts to steal anything in the building or that part of it or inflicts or attempts to inflict on any person therein any grievous bodily harm.

Trespass needed, steal/attempt to steal or inflict/attempt to inflect GBH also needed.

351
Q

When does the parol lease exemption not work?

A

Over 3 year lease, no exclusive possession, fine/premium paid

352
Q

What is an estate contract and what does it create?

A

A document that complies with s.2 of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1989 - is in writing, signed by both parties and contains all the terms. It will therefore be equitable under s.1(3) of the Law of Property Act 1925.

Can create equitable leases

353
Q

What is included in the completion information form (TA13) from Seller’s solicitor in sale of freehold?

A

Details of the whereabouts of the keys to the property, an undertaking given by the seller’s solicitors to redeem the mortgage with Barclay’s Bank and confirmation of the exact amount required to complete the purchase.

354
Q

When is a witness subject to the Turnbull Guidelines?

A

A witness becomes a turnbull witness when one of the 3 things happens:

  1. Witness identifies suspect informally;
  2. Witness identifies suspect through formal identification procedure at the police station; or
  3. Witness identifies suspect as is known to him personally.

The turnbull guidelines only apply if the suspect disputes identification.

Witness picking suspect from photographs does not count. Police need to arrest and hold identification procedure if necessary.

355
Q

What are the turnbull guidelines and when are they used?

A

They are used when identification evidence is contested. Applicable to voice recognition or identification. Aimed at assessing quality of identification.

Warn jury to treat disputed ID evidence with caution since anyone can make an error.

Guidlines:
1. Is ID in issue? – when case against D depends wholly or substantially on correctness of ID which defence alleges to be mistaken, judge must warn jury of special need for caution before conv D based on poss false id;
2. Is case wholly or substantially dependant on ID evidence? – judge direct jury to closely examine circs which the identification came to be made by the W;
3. Judge should warn of risks and reason for warning - Consider: how long did W have to see the D?, distance of observation, lighting at time of observation, was observation hindered in anyway by people, traffic etc?, had W ever seen D before and if so how often?, did D have any special reason for remembering accused if Whad seen him before?, time elapsed between original observation at offence and id at police station, was there any discrepancies of accused given by W when first seen and then from his actual appearance?, any specific weaknesses in ID evidence;
4. Jury must consider all circs of the ID – remind jury when a W is purporting to recognise someone he knows, mistakes in recognition of close relatives/friends sometimes made;
5. Good ID evidence – E.g. ID made over long observation, satisfactory conds etc. evidence can be left to jury to safely assess even where there is no other supporting evidence. Adequate warning must have been givenabout special need for caution;
6. Poor UNSUPPORTED ID evidence – E.g. fleeting glimpse, difficult conds. JUDGE SHOULD WITHDRAW CASE FROM JURY AND ORDER ACQUITTAL UNLESS THERE IS SUPPORTING EVIDENCE TO SUPPORT CORRECTNESS OF ID (corroboration evidence)
7. Poor SUPPORTED ID evidence - Judge should identify to jury the evidence capable of supporting ID. Judge should identify to the jury the evidence capable of supporting the ID. If there is any evidence/circs which the jury may think was supporting when it was NOT, judge should inform them.
8. False alibis – care should be taken by judge when directing jury about the support for an Id which may be derived from fact that they have rejected an alibi. False alibis may be put forward for many reasons e.g.: fear own evidence not enough, genuine mistake dates times. If jury satisfied that the sole reason for fabrication of alibi was to deceive them and there is no other explanation that fabrication can provide any sort of supporting ID evidence.

356
Q

What is article 2?

A

Right to life - absolute (Note that deprivation of life
resulting from the use of no more force than is absolutely necessary in narrowly defined circumstances does not
constitute an interference with this right)

357
Q

What is article 3?

A

Freedom from torture, inhuman and depredating treatment - absolute

358
Q

What is article 4?

A

Freedom from slavery - absolute (Note that certain activities are excluded from the scope of compulsory labour and so do not constitute an interference with
this right)

359
Q

What is article 5?

A

Right to liberty and security of person - limited (exceptions in relation to lawful arrest and detention)

360
Q

What is article 6?

A

Right to fair trial - absolute as to fair trial, limited in relation to public trial.

361
Q

What is article 7?

A

Right to punishment according to existing law- absolute ( Article7 does not preclude the trial and punishment of
acts that are criminal according to general principles recognised by civilised nations.)

362
Q

What is article 8?

A

Right to respect for private and family life - qualified

363
Q

What is article 9?

A

Right to freedom of thought - qualified

364
Q

What is article 10?

A

Right to freedom of expression - qualified.

365
Q

What is article 11?

A

Right to freedom of assembly and association - qualified

366
Q

What is article 12?

A

Right to marry - absolute (according to governing law exercising the right)

367
Q

Is a person with a reassigned gender auto added as a daughter under a will

A

Not if the will predates the act (2005)

368
Q

Is a person who reassigns gender to woman auto added to a will as a daughter ?

A

Not if will predates gender assignment Act (4 April 2005)

369
Q

What contracts are not contracts of necessaries?

A

Trading contracts and contracts not for the child’s benefit

370
Q

Procedural impropriety JR

A

Bias, fair hearing, acting without lawful authority and lack of reasons

371
Q

Ground g - landlord intends to occupy tenant himself. When can’t be used ?

A

Mandatory ground, must have owned premises for at least 5 years

372
Q

Does breaching bail condition result in offence?

A

Not offence (whether imposed by court or police) but likely to be arrested and detained, must be brought before mag in 24 hours

373
Q

How is a deposit held SCCP?

A

By solicitor as stakeholder - can’t hand over until completion

374
Q

Must the custody officer provide solicitor with custody log and detention record?

A

No only needs to allow solicitor to inspect

375
Q

When must new leases be registered at the land registry?

A

Within two months, regardless of if the freehold has been registered

376
Q

When does the general law allow the undertenant to call for the freehold title?

A

When the head tenants lease is not registered and for term of more than seven years

377
Q

What songs did the buyers solicitor obtained from the buyer before completion?

A

Any balance of the purchase price to be provided by the buyer, and any stamp duty land tax due on the property and the relevant land registry fee

378
Q

What is a recorder?

A

The most Junior circuit judge, they can only work on a part-time basis in the Crown Court. They can’t fit in the County Court, but they usually start by sitting in the Crown Court.

379
Q

When will the court of appeal allow an appeal (2 bases)

A

Where decision of a lower Court was:

  1. Wrong; or
  2. Unjust due to a serious procedural or other irregularity in the proceedings of the lower Court
380
Q

What is an extrinsic aid

A

For example, a dictionary

381
Q

What is an internal aid?

A

Looking at a different part of the act

382
Q

I director did not disclose his interest in a transaction, prior to the company entering into the transaction. What is his breach of duty before and after the company enter into the transaction?

A

The client is in breach of his duty to declare his interest in the proposed transaction, and his duty to declare his interest in existing transaction.

383
Q

What is the ultravirus doctrine in companies law?

A

Company set up prior to the company act 2006 was subject to the doctrine of ultraviolet, and therefore any act which was outside of the object specified in the companies memorandum of association would be ultraviolet and void.

384
Q

Does a directors duty to avoid conflict of interest apply to conflicts of interest arising in relation to a transaction with the company?

A

No 

385
Q

What income tax do personal representatives pay?

A

Personal representatives do not have a personal allowance, and they always pay at the basic rate

386
Q

What are the basic rate of income tax?

A

7.5% for dividends and 20% for other income.

387
Q

What are the higher rate of income tax?

A
  1. 5% for dividends and 40% for other income.
388
Q

What is the men’s Rayer for aggravated criminal damage?

A

Intend to damage or destroy property or be reckless as to such damage or destruction, and to intend to endanger life, or be reckless as to whether another life might be endangered

389
Q

What is the statutory procedure for tenants to carry out alterations?

A

Under section 3 of the landlord and tenant act 1927, the tenant has a right to serve notice and apply for authorisation to carry out alterations. It will then be up to the court to decide if the ads are letting value of the property if they are reasonable and suitable to the character of the property and do not diminish the value of any other property of the landlord.

If the alterations to add the Latin value of the property lease is likely to contain attendance covenant to remove all tenants alterations at the end of the term, so they’ll be nothing left in respect of what claim compensation

390
Q

What must the offer for pre-emption rights contain?

A

State the date for acceptance can’t be less than 14 days and can’t withdraw the offer in this time

391
Q

What is the exception to pre-emptive rights?

A

It does not apply to bonus shares. It does not apply if consideration is whole or part non-cash and it doesn’t apply if being allotted/transferred due to employee share scheme

392
Q

When will perso be bound by contract they sign?

A

In absence of misrep

393
Q

What to do if want to vary costs budget?

A

Where a party wishes to revise a costs budget, the budget variation summary sheet must first be submitted to the other party for agreement. The court will then decide whether to approve, vary or disapprove the revision.

394
Q

Do crown court trials have prelim hearings?

A

A Crown Court trial is always sufficiently important and complex to justify some preliminary hearings.

395
Q

Does a youth being arrested recently for different allegation mean he can’t get a youth caution?

A

the fact the boy has been arrested recently for a different allegation would not make him ineligible for a youth caution. The police took no further action in relation to this earlier matter.

396
Q

How old does a youth need to be to be given a caution without an appropriate adult being present?

A

17

397
Q

When is a youth caution possible?

A

If guilt is admitted

398
Q

Is a youth caution a crim conviction?

A

Although a youth caution is not a criminal conviction it does form part of the boy’s criminal record retained by the police and may be referred to if an employer makes a Criminal Records Bureau check.

399
Q

If a will contains a gift to the testators child, and the child dies, what happens?

A

S.33 Wills Act 1837 applies and provides that where a will contains a gift to the testator’s child and that beneficiary dies before the testator, leaving issue of their own who survive the testator, the gift does not lapse but instead passes to the beneficiary’s issue.

400
Q

When will negotiating damages be awarded?

A

Negotiating damages will only be awarded where there is no financial loss other than the chance to negotiate a release fee.

401
Q

Post death variation - how to ensure it is read back for CGT and IHT purposes?

A

The variation must be in writing, made within two years of the deceased’s death, contain an election that it is to be read back for IHT and CGT and must not be for consideration in money or money’s worth.

402
Q

What happens if for post death variation not all benes are adults and can’t consent?

A

Make an application under the Variation of Trusts Act 1958 - court can consent on their behalf

403
Q

When is SDLT payable?

A

The variation must be in writing, made within two years of the deceased’s death, contain an election that it is to be read back for IHT and CGT and must not be for consideration in money or money’s worth - not working days!

404
Q

Assignment of lease - SCPC - when can landlord’s consent be obtained before assignment?

A

The landlord’s consent can be obtained six months after the original completion date, failing which either party may rescind the contract by serving notice on the other

405
Q

If landlords consent for assignment hasn’t been approved by completion, what can be done? SCPC

A

SCPC 11.3.5 which actually provides that if the landlord’s consent has not been obtained by the completion date, completion is postponed until five working days after the seller notifies the buyer that consent has been given. - WORKING DAYS

406
Q

What is Hansard?

A

Official record of debates - can be used as extrinsic aid in certain circumstances: there is no parliamentary rule which prevents its use but the conditions for such use were set out in the case of Pepper v Hart [1993] AC 593, i.e. that a statute (or particular statutory provision) is ambiguous and that there is parliamentary material recorded in Hansard consisting of clear statements by a government minister (or other promoter) of the Bill.

407
Q

Can prosecutor appeal sentence in CC?

A

No - only Attorney General can refer sentence to Court of Appeal if he considers undue leniency

408
Q

What is an unsafe verdict?

A

Jury trial - jury’s verdict or conviction was not based on reliable evidence and is likely to constitute miscarriage of justice and should be overturned. Court of Appeal correct venue

409
Q

Can Pros appeal by way of case stated in CC?

A

only if the case originally commences in the magistrates’ (obvs needs to be error of law)

410
Q

When can pros ask Court of Appeal to quash an acquittal in CC?

A

If new and compelling evidence comes to light - not applicable to burglary. Can’t object on the basis of it being unsafe.

411
Q

When can defence appeal from CC to Court of Appeal?

A

When sentence is manifestly excessive

412
Q

If the woman is charged with assault occasioning actual bodily harm can she successfully rely on the defence of self-defence?

A

Judged on honest belief even if not reasonable - doesn’t count if voluntary intoxicated. reasonable force needed (objective)

413
Q

When is VAT reg comulsary?

A

Taxable supplies exceeds £85,000

414
Q

Are sale of books taxable supply?

A

Sale of books is 0 rated

415
Q

Are sale of property and prop insurance taxable?

A

The sale of property and property insurance are exempt services

416
Q

What does holding deposit as stakeholder mean

A

The SCPCs provide for the deposit to be held by the seller’s solicitor as stakeholder. This means that once received from the buyer, the deposit cannot be released to the seller until completion.

417
Q

How is deposit help SC resi?

A

SCs provides that the deposit shall be held as stakeholder save where the seller is purchasing another property in England and Wales, in which case the seller may use all or part of the deposit as the deposit on that purchase (agent)

418
Q

Does proof of payment need to be disclosed in standard disclsoure?

A

Only if there is a dispute that payment was made

419
Q

Standard of proof for pros when defence gives evidence of self defence

A

Assuming the man gives evidence during his trial of self-defence, then the prosecution must disprove it beyond reasonable doubt.

420
Q

When is cost budget due for claims valued less than £50,000?

A

For claims valued at less than £50,000 the Costs Budget in Precedent H must be filed with the directions questionnaire. Failure to file the costs budget within the prescribed period will result in an automatic sanction pursuant to r. 3.14 limiting recoverable costs to court fee only.

421
Q

When can police officer ban protest at the time?

A

Senior police officer on scene reasonably believes that the march will result in serious disruption to the life of the community; reasonably believes that the march will result in serious public disorder.

422
Q

Who can give directions on protest prior to protest?

A

directions prior to the march taking place can only be given by the Chief Constable.

423
Q

Who can ban trespassory assembly?

A

on private land in the open air conducted by 20 uninvited people which might result in significant damage to the land, it is the local authority that has the power to ban the meeting if supported by the Secretary of State.

Chief officer as reasonable belief protest will cause significant damage to land then can ask local authority

424
Q

What are the annual investment allowance and written down allowance?

A

Writing down allowances may be claimed where the AIA is not available, either because the limit has been used up or because the expenditure is of a type, such as that on cars, which does not qualify for the AIA. WDA on 18% of anything over AIA limit, or on pool of plant and machinery,

AIA = £1,000,000

425
Q

Must custody officer provide solicitor with custody record and detention log?

A

No just need to allow them to inspect

426
Q

How much info should police officer give solicitor when arrive at police station?

A

The police must give the solicitor sufficient information to enable them to understand the nature of any such offence and why they are suspected of committing it.

427
Q

If an agent has authority to enter a contract the agent will he have rights and obligations under it?

A

If an agent has authority to enter a contract the agent will have no rights and liabilities under it: the contract will be between the client and the buyer.

428
Q

What is doctrine of the undisclosed principal??

A

limited circumstances the agency may not be disclosed and the principal can adopt the contract by virtue of the doctrine of the undisclosed principal

429
Q

Apparent authority, who needs to make representation?

A

For apparent authority to arise the representation must have come from the principal. A false representation as to authority by an agent may lead to an action in deceit/ breach of collateral warrant but the principal would not be bound to the deal.

430
Q

SCs/SCPCs - how long to complete after Notice to complete served?

A

The Contract is to be completed within ten working days of this notice being given, excluding the day on which it is given.

431
Q

What happens when Notice to Complete served SCs?

A

The residential standard conditions also entitle the seller to an automatic top-up of the deposit to 10% of the purchase price. This means that if the deposit held is 5%, upon service of the notice to complete, the buyer must top this up with a further 5%. The standard conditions provide that if the buyer fails to complete after a notice to complete has been served, the seller may rescind the contract, and, if the seller does so, it may forfeit and keep the deposit and accrued interest.

432
Q

Crim damage less than £5,000 - which court?

A

Mag

433
Q

Aggravated burglary - what is definition of weapon of offence?

A

article made or adapted for use for causing injury to or incapacitating a person, or intended by the person having it with him for such use - intention is key.

434
Q

What does article 4 direction mean?

A

GDPO been excluded?

435
Q

What is GDPO grant?

A

Whilst the GDPO grants automatic planning permission for certain categories of development such as developments within the curtilage of a dwelling house (such as extensions below a certain size)

436
Q

When is a person an accomplice?

A

Aid and abet - e.g aided simple arson as she assisted by providing the matches. She intended to do the act (it was deliberate) and had knowledge of the circumstances as she was aware of sufficient facts to know a crime of simple arson would be committed (even if she did not know the exact property involved).

Just need to know enough to make conduct criminal

437
Q

What is mischief rule?

A

The judge considers the intention of the legislator when the statute was drafted.

438
Q

What is literal rule?

A

Words are given their plain, ordinary and literal meaning.

439
Q

What is Noscitur a Sociis

A

Words are interpreted according to the meaning of the words that surround them and their context.

440
Q

What is golden rule?

A

Where there are two possible meanings of a word, the court should choose the meaning which avoids an ‘obnoxious’ outcome in terms of public policy.

441
Q

Trust for life for woman remainder to son. Can buy son a warehouse?

A

Provided that the warehouse is based in the UK, the trustees could use their investment powers to purchase the warehouse in the name of the trust and lease it to the son. This might be a convenient way of helping the son – the son does not have to find a large sum of money to purchase the freehold, instead paying smaller and regular rental payments, and the rent will be a form of trust income that benefits the wife as life tenant.

442
Q

Does undertenant need to see freehold title if headlease reg with absolute easehold title?

A

Lease is registered with absolute leasehold title, the best class of title available, then there is no need for the undertenant to see the freehold title

443
Q

When must new lease be registered?

A

Within 2 months of grant regardless of if freehold is (if lease OVER 7 years)

444
Q

When does disposal of the client’s shareholding attracts business asset disposal relief?

A

to benefit from business asset disposal relief, the individual must have:

 held over 5% of the shares in a trading company; and

 been an officer or employee of that trading company; and

 those conditions must have been satisfied for two years prior to disposal of the shares.

445
Q

How to sever joint tenancy?

A

To avoid this, the client should, before death, serve on her cohabitee a notice in writing (Law of Property Act 1925, s.36(2)) severing the joint tenancy, thereby allowing her to dispose of her beneficial interest by will.

446
Q

What type of right is artile 5?

A

Right to liberty and security of person - limited right (can be interfered with by state in certain circumstances) One of these is the lawful detention of persons for the prevention of the spreading of infectious diseases, the other is jail

447
Q

If beneficiary consents to investment, can they bring personal claim against trustee if turns out badly?

A

The woman gave her valid consent to the investment and therefore the trustees would have a defence if she brought a claim.

448
Q

What is contract for necessaries?

A

Contract for necessaries – under 18s are bound by a contract for necessaries. The Sale of Goods Act 1979 defines them as ‘goods suitable to the condition in life of the minor and to his or her actual requirements at the time of the sale and delivery’. Necessaries includes food, clothes, accommodation and other essentials and the law says a minor who purchases such necessaries must pay a reasonable price for them.

449
Q

Apart from contract of necessaries, what other contracts bind under 18s?

A

Contract of apprenticeship, education and service – under 18s are bound by this type of contract if the minor will benefit from it.

450
Q

What if not contract for benefit (education etc) or for necessaries?

A

if the contract doesn’t fall into the above two categories it is voidable at the minor’s option. This means the contract can be avoided by the under 18 before they reach 18 years of age or within a reasonable time after. What is deemed a ‘reasonable time’ depends on the circumstances of each case.

451
Q

the grounds of procedural impropriety?

A

Bias, lack of reasons, fair hearing, natural justice (4 types)

452
Q

What will an applicant need to show to demonstrate that they have been a victim of an unlawful act by a public authority (bring proceedings under HRA if victim)

A

That they have been directly and personally affected by the act/measure complained of.

453
Q

What does someone need to have in order to have standing under JR

A

That they have a sufficient interest in the act/measure complained of.

454
Q

When is start up relief avaiible?

A

when the taxpayer suffers a loss in any of the first four tax years of the new business. That loss can be carried back and set against total income in the three years immediately prior to the tax year of the loss.

455
Q

What is carry back relief?

A

Carry back trading loss - Under general rules, businesses can carry back trading losses, and put them against profits in the previous 12-month period. This basically reduces the amount of profit for the previous period, and less profit means a lower tax bill. must be applied to total income

456
Q

What is attempted charge?

A

having done an act more than merely preparatory to the offence of XX.

457
Q

very large company (as defined for tax purposes) wants to know when it has to pay its corporation tax.

A

Very large companies must pay the tax in four instalments within the accounting period. The first instalment is due two months and 13 days after the start of the accounting period and the remaining instalments at three monthly intervals thereafter.

458
Q

A client bought a business. After 6 months the client discovered that the profit made by the business over the previous 3 years was not as had been represented to the client by the seller in the pre-contract negotiations. The client has been advised to sue for damages under s2(1) Misrepresentation Act (MA) 1967.

A

Damages would be assessed in the same way as if the misrepresentation had been made fraudulently. Damages are awarded for all consequential losses and assessed on a tortious basis.

459
Q

is resi land exempt for VAT?

A

Yes

460
Q

How to remove director?

A

the director can be removed by ordinary resolution (s 168 Companies Act 2006) passed at a meeting of shareholders. - written resolution cannot be used. This is because a general meeting to remove a director requires ‘special notice’ (under s 312 CA06) and the director threatened with removal is entitled to speak at the meeting.

461
Q

A private limited company, which has adopted the Companies (Model Articles) Regulations 2008 (unamended) as its articles of association,

has recently changed its registered name and appointed a new director.

Which of the following accurately reflects the documents that must be filed with the Registrar of Companies as a result of these changes?

A

The special resolution to change the company’s name, notice of appointment of the director, notice of the change of name and the prescribed fee.

462
Q

What will client have to offer witness if get a witness summons?

A

client should be advised that they will have to offer the witness their travel expenses and the amount specified in the relevant Practice Direction as compensation for loss of time.

463
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the type of mistake that will render a contract void for common mistake?

A

Common mistake requires that the mistake is a mistake made by both parties as to a fundamental matter in the contract at the moment the contract is made, e.g., the existence of the subject matter. Common mistake must not be the fault of either party, and the contract must not make express provision on the matter. It must be fundamental, ie a mistake that renders the contract fundamentally different from that which both parties anticipated.

BEFORE

464
Q

What is disregarded when drafting claim form for unspecified

A

When calculating how much the claimant expects to recover, the claimant must disregard that the court may make an award of interest or costs or make a finding of contributory negligence.

465
Q

When will personal claim be succesful against trustees?

A

a personal claim will only be successful if the trust has suffered a loss, or the trustee has obtained an unauthorised personal profit

466
Q

Where would an easement appear in the register if it a) benefited the property and b) burdened the proeprty

A

Benefitted - property register, burdened - charges reg

467
Q

Can professional trustees charge

A

In the absence of any express provision in the trust deed (as is the case here) a professional trustee is entitled to remuneration for their services as long as there is more than one trustee in office and the other(s) agree to the charge in writing. CAN’T BE RETIRED

468
Q

Is lawful excuse a defence to simple criminal damage?

A

Lawful excuse can be used as a defence to simple criminal damage if the defendant honestly believed that the owner of the property would consent to its damage if they knew of the circumstances. HONEST BELIEF

469
Q

What statutory power does s41 Admin of Estates 1925 give PRs

A

Section 41 of the Administration of Estates Act 1925 gives personal representatives the power to appropriate any assets in the estate in or towards satisfaction of any legacy - requires only the consent of the beneficiary to whom the PR is appropriating.

470
Q

When is CF deemed served?

A

Under the rules, the claim form is deemed served on the second business day after the step required (here sending by first class post) has occurred. Monday 5 April is a business day, as is Tuesday 6 April so the claim form is deemed served on the Tuesday. However, different rules apply to other documents.

BUSINESS DAY

471
Q

When is PoC deemed served?

A

Delivered to address before cut off of 4:30? That day.

if not - second business day

472
Q

When is power of sale exercisable ?

A

no repayments of interest for two months

473
Q

How long does claimant have to appeal county court decision?

A

the claimant has 21 days to appeal against a County Court decisio

474
Q

Which of the following best describes what steps (if any) the lender’s solicitor should take after completion to protect the legal charge - borrower is company?

A

The legal charge must be registered at Companies House within 21 days of its creation and at Land Registry within the priority period conferred by the OS1 search result.

475
Q

Is vol intox defence to crim damage?

A

Becoming intoxicated is a ‘reckless course of conduct’ (DPP v Majewski [1976]) sufficient to constitute the mens rea.

476
Q

Former partner didn’t know her name was on note paper - can she be pursued by creditor? (Was not partner when debt incurred)

A

No, because the former partner did not have knowledge that her name was still on the firm’s notepaper.

477
Q

No, because the former partner did not have knowledge that her name was still on the firm’s notepaper.

A

The PRs should place advertisements in the London Gazette and in a local newspaper and wait two months from the date of the advertisements before distributing the estate.

478
Q

Article 6 of the European Convention of Human Rights gives individuals a right to a fair hearing.

A

The accused can defend themselves in person or may be eligible for publicly funded legal assistance or pay for this privately if they can afford it. They must be granted adequate time and facilities for the preparation of their defence.

479
Q

The facts state that there is no evidence that the woman had read the will or had it explained to her. Which of the following best describes the position concerning the son challenging the validity of the woman’s will?

A

The son could challenge the validity of the woman’s will on the grounds that she did not know and approve the contents and also that she lacked testamentary capacity.

480
Q

Tracing rules - mixed trust asset

A

the mixed asset has been purchased using a mixture of funds taken from two innocent trusts, the beneficiaries of the family trust can only assert a proportionate interest in the car whether it has increased or decreased in value. The best result for the beneficiaries of the family trust therefore is a one-third interest in the car.

481
Q

Which of the following best describes whether the trustees will be liable for the loss in value to the trust fund (done by agent)?

A

The trustees will not be liable if they appointed the agent in writing and provided a policy statement and reviewed their work

482
Q

If a document falls in the definition of standard disclosure, but it is no longer in clients possession should it go on list?

A

The order form should be included in Part 3 of the claimant’s list of documents.

483
Q

If a document falls in the definition of standard disclosure, but it is no longer in clients possession should it go on list?

A

The order form should be included in Part 3 of the claimant’s list of documents.

484
Q

What is test for standard disclosure

A

Is the issue in dispute, will it support either C or Ds case on issue

485
Q

When are partners assessed for income tax in first year

A

The rule is that for the first year, partners are assessed on the trading profit from joining the partnership to the end of the tax year.

486
Q

Requirement for termination carry back relief

A

the company w its final 12 months of trading

487
Q

Can contingent interest bring trust to an end?

A

No - all benes need to be abslutely entiteld

488
Q

Security for costs - will Court take into account timing of application?

A

Yes

489
Q

Can a legal rep sign a statement of truth in CF, if so in what form?

A

Yes but in own name not in firm name

490
Q

When aggregating gains and loses for CGT, can you deduct annual exemption?

A

No - not if loss wipes out gain. Can carry remaining loss forward

491
Q

Minimum requirement to sign contract on behalf of business

A

Signed by the company by a person acting under implied or express authority

492
Q

What kind of interest is a mortgage?

A

It is capable of being legal provided it was created by deed, and it is a proprietary interest

493
Q

Contractor carried out building work but it is defective, is he entitled to the balance of the contract price?

A

Doctrine of complete performance - can the contractor show he substantially performed the contract and the works are only slightly defective ? If defects are going to cost more than 1/14 price then no as the contractor hasn’t performed the contract precisely and accurately

494
Q

What is procedure for removing an appropriate adult if acting incorrectly ?

A

Need rank of superintendent to approve, if not available then not below inspector

495
Q

How can person under 18 sue

A

Use litigation friend 

496
Q

What is best practice when solicitor needs to confirm witnesses can attend trial

A

Notify witnesses of trial, once received confirmation of attendance serve witness summons. Usually served by the court. Can be fined or imprisoned if in high court

497
Q

Are courts required to disapply conflicting UK leg when conflicts with retained EU law after Brexit ?

A

No

498
Q

Difference between aiding and abetting?

A

Aiding - assisting. Need to intend to do it and have sufficient knowledge to know crime will be committed.

Abetting - encouragement at time of offence

499
Q

Article 11 - freedom of assembly. When can it be interfered with?

A

Qualified right - only under certain conditions. Legitimate aim, necessary and proportionate. E.g violent behaviour. If not then props not

500
Q

Can a party withdraw its unilateral contract without paying the commission ? Think car dealer getting commission on sale

A

Yes if common intention of parties was that client should be able to withdraw. Unless it goes without saying and there is an implied promise to allow chance to earn commission (unlikely on facts)

501
Q

What is s28 PACE

A

Must inform suspect for reason for arrest at scene or at interview

502
Q

What is the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows

A
  • By the operation of s.62 of the Law of Property Act 1925;
    Where the land was previously in common ownership and:
    the common owner exercised over one part of the plot a right which could have been an easement if the plots were in separate ownership;
    the exercise of the right was continuous and apparent; and
    the exercise of the right is necessary for the reasonable enjoyment of the dominant land. (This is known as the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows (1879) 12 Ch D 31)
503
Q

TO be granted an injunction, damages need to not be an adequate remedy. Is this the case if someone’s business was going to close down?

A

Yes

504
Q

What is the purpose of the CMC

A
  • Review steps parties have taken to prepare the case
  • Check compliance with directions
  • Impose further directions for future conduct
505
Q

What are ouster clauses?

A

Seek to block judicial review and are contained in legislation. Only protect valid decisions. Up to court to decide if legally valid. Would be able to exclude with JR with clear and explicit words but this hasn’t happened yet - full ouster clause.
Partial ouster clause - courts more amenable e.g can only challenge in 6 weeks.

506
Q

When are PRs protected against unknown creditors/beneficiaries?

A

Advertise and don’t disburse assets for 2 months

507
Q

When are PRs protected against unknown known creditors?

A

Get Benjamin Order

508
Q

When are PRs protected against claims under Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975?

A

Don’t distribute assets for 6 months from date of grant - this is the time limit under the Act for making a claim

509
Q

What is Eiusdem Generis

A

Eiusdem Generis is when the judge has used a rule of language to interpret a general term alongside more specific terms listed in the statute.

For example, judge looking at other words in a statute to help decide what another word means

510
Q

Does a charging order need advance notice to anyone?

A

Charging order application does not need advance notice to debtor, any resi lenders or spouse of debtor - this would be counterintuitive.

The application will be served with supporting documents along with the interim charging order once made.

511
Q

After a breach of the general anti avoidance rule, if client doesn’t contest findings, what can HMRC do?

A

HMRC may request the taxpayer to make just and reasonable adjustments to the amount of tax paid.

No such thing as written warning, no power to impose fine, no need to refer matter to tribunal

512
Q

What are the cap on success fees on CFAs and DBAs?

A

Success fee is limited to 100% of the usual hourly rate in CFAs (in PI cases also a general cap of 25% of damages) and the contingency fee cannot exceed 50% of the awarded damages in DBAs inc VAT. Cap inc of cousnel’s fees but not other disbs. Cap doesn’t apply to appeals. Lower cap in PI cases = 25% of general damages for pain/suffering (other than future pecuniary loss). Employment cases = 35%.

513
Q

Trustee stole money and mixed with his, bought car, value decreased, what should victim do?

A

Equitable lien

514
Q

Article 9 ECHR - right to freedom of though and religion. Right to manifest religion. What type of right?

A

In terms of freedom of thought, conscience and religion, it is an absolute right, therefore any interference can never be justified.

The right to manifest religion or belief is a qualified right and therefore can be interfered with subject to justification. Interference:

  1. prescribed by law;
  2. pursuit of legitimate aim; and
  3. Proportionate.
515
Q

Court has issued declaration of incompatibility. What now?

A

The declaration of incompatibility is directed at the minister who introduced the original bill in Parliament. The minister has a remedial power to make the necessary changes, but she does not have to do so.

Aimed at minister, minister can change, not obliged, not aimed at parliament.

516
Q

What is a substantial property transaction

A
  • a director, in their personal capacity, or someone connected with a director
  • buys from or sells to the company
  • a non-cash asset
  • of substantial value.

Need ordinary res

517
Q

For purposes of SPT, what is a connected person?

A

Member of family, or a company director which the director or a connected person owns 20% or more of shares, or can exercise control of MORE THAN 20% of voting power at any general meeting.

So would either need to own at least 20% of all shares, or over 20% of shares that give voting rights.

518
Q

For purposes of SPT, what is ‘member of family’?

A

the director’s spouse or civil partner;
* the director’s child or stepchild;
* the director’s parents;
* any person who lives in an enduring relationship with the director as their partner; and
* any children of a person who lives in an enduring relationship with the director as their partner

E.g not grandparents, or siblings

519
Q

For purposes of SPT, what is non-cash asset?

A

This is defined as any property or interest in property, other than cash (s 1163 CA 2006). So,
for example, a loan would not be covered. Loans to directors are covered separately in the
CA 2006 (see 3.22.2).

520
Q

For purposes of SPT, what is substantial?

A

It will automatically be classed at substantial if its value is over £100,000.
* It will also be substantial if it is worth more than £5,000 and more than 10% of the
company’s net asset value.

BASED ON NET ASSETS - just satisfy one test.

First look for OVER100k, if not, look for OVER 5k, then see if it is OVER 10% of total net asset value.

521
Q

What does someone need to do to undertake pro-bono legal activities for members of the public on behalf of the charity.

A

Need practicing certificate, ensure charity has correct insurance in place

522
Q

Relief for trading loss: unincorporated business (partner/sole trader). What are they and are they applied automatically?

A

Taxpayer must apply for the relief – they are not applied automatically by HMRC.

  1. Start-up loss relief (also known as early trade losses relief)
  2. Carry-across/one-year carry-back relief for trading losses generally
  3. Set-off against capital gains
  4. Carry-forward relief
  5. Carry-back of terminal trading loss
  6. Carry-forward relief on incorporation of business
523
Q

What is start-up loss relief (also known as early trade losses relief)?

A
  • Suffered any loss in first 4 years of new business
  • Carried back and set off against total income in 3 years before tax year of year of loss
  • useful if start new business, made loss, but had income from former business/employment
  • Must be set off earlier years before later years
  • Must be made before the first anniversary of 31 Jan following the tax year loss incurred (not that long)
524
Q

What is carry-across/one-year carry-back relief for trading losses generally?

A

Trading losses in an accounting period are treated as losses of the tax year in which the accounting period ends. 4 options for this relief:

  1. set against total income for same tax year;
  2. set against total income for year before;
  3. set against total income from the same tax year until that income is reduced to zero, with the balance of the loss being set against total income from the tax year preceding the tax year of the loss (use up for this year than carry back 1 year);
  4. set against total income from the tax year preceding the tax year of the loss until that income is reduced to zero, with the balance of the loss being set against total income from the tax year of the loss (flipped around, last year first then this year)
    - losses must be set against TOTAL INCOME, LOSE BENEFIT OF PA
    - Must be made before the first anniversary of 31 Jan following the tax year loss incurred (not that long)
525
Q

What is set off against capital gains?

A

Applied when has claimed carry-across relief but not all of the loss has been absorbed.
- set trading losses against chargeable gains in same tax year as loss
- Must be made before the first anniversary of 31 Jan following the tax year loss assessed (not that long)
- unusual as allows relief from chargeable gains as well as income

526
Q

What is Carry-forward relief?

A
  • Carry forward loss and set it against subsequent profits
  • Must take off EARLIER YEARS FIRST
  • Carry forward indefinitely until loss is exhausted (no bar)
  • Notify HMRC of intention to carry forward relief no more than 4 years AFTER THE END OF THE TAX YEAR LOSS INCURRER
  • A taxpayer can use all of carry-forward, carry-across and carry-back reliefs in relation to the same loss, until the loss is wiped out.
527
Q

What is Carry-back of terminal trading loss

A
  • Any loss incurred in the final 12 months of trading
  • Can be carried across and set against trading profits AND THEN carried back and set against trading profits in the PRECEDING 3 YEARS
  • Must start with year of loss and move back sequentially until loss absorbed or the 3 year limit is reached
  • NO CAP ON AMOUNT
  • How can there be loss and profit in one year? the rules allow other sources of income which are connected to the trade but not a profit of trade
  • May get tax rebate
    This relief can only be applied to trading income, not to non-trading income or capital gains!!
  • Must be made no more than 4 YEARS AFTER THE END OF TAX YEAR OF LOSS
528
Q

`What is Carry-forward relief on incorporation of business

A
  • If incorp business by transferring to company wholly or partly in return for shares, trading losses not been relieved can be carried forward and set against any income they receive from the comp (e. g salary, dividends)
    80% of consideration must be SHARES in COMP
  • Can set loss against more than 1 type of income until absorbed
  • CAN CHOOSE ANY ORDER
  • NO CAP
  • Can be carried forward indefinitely
  • Notify HMRC of intention to carry forward in 4 years from end of tax year of loss
529
Q

What are the caps on income relief?

A
  1. Start-up relief and carry-across/carry back = Cap is greater of £50,000 or 25% of income in the tax tear in relation to which relief is being applied - doesn’t have great significance because the cap relates to income from sources other than the trade which produced the loss
530
Q

What is a defence for wrongful trading?

A

Defence under s 214(3). This is that director took every step she should have done with a view to minimising the potential loss to the client’s creditors if it went into insolvent liquidation

531
Q

Can the court grant or extend stay in proceedings for settlement discussions (beyond 1 month in questionnaire)

A

The court MAY extend the stay for such specified period as it thinks fit. Discretionary.

532
Q

What are grounds for appeal in County Court

A
  1. Appeal allowed if decision of lower court was wrong; or
  2. Unjust due to a serious procedural irregularity or other irregularity in proceedings.
533
Q

What is a divisional court?

A

The forum, when there is an appeal from circuit judge of county court to high court, is usually a ‘divisional’ court, meaning a panel of two judges.

534
Q

Where are insolvency matters appealed to?

A

High court regardless of circuit or district judge

535
Q

How long to apply for appeal from County Court?

A

21 days

536
Q

Traditions when appealing in county court?

A

Evidence: new evidence should not be introduced (focus on nature of decision rather than info and facts)
Success: only if have real chance of success, or some other strong reason
- consider: proportionality and efficiency

537
Q

Where will County Court appeal happen?

A

Depends on geography. It will be handled within the relevant circuit, ie the North East, North West, Midlands, Wales, South East and London, or South West.

538
Q

High court appeals - how many judges?

A

Decisions are by a majority, and so there will be an odd number of judges hearing the matter, usually three, but sometimes five or even seven, Lords or Lady Justices of Appeal

539
Q

High court - when is permission to appeal given?

A
  1. Real prospect of success; or
  2. Other compelling reason.
540
Q

When is an appeal of an appeal heard?

A
  1. Real prospect of success AND raises important point of principle or practice; OR
  2. Other compelling reason.
541
Q

What is procedure for appeal in High Court?

A
  1. Apply for permission from court making decision (time - in time frame stated by court or 21 days after decision (JUST TO APPLY);
  2. Serve on other side NOT LATER THAN 7 DAYS;
  3. respondent file and serve notice of their own in 14 DAYS after receipt of notice; and
  4. Court needs A’s grounds of appeal (skeleton atleast).
542
Q

Where are appeals from family court heard?

A

Usually higher judges in family court.

543
Q

What is a dissenting judgment?

A

Written opinion by judge in appeal case who disagrees with the Court’s decision.

544
Q

What dies civil division of high court hear?

A

The Civil Division hears appeals from the High Court, the Family Court and tribunals.

545
Q

How many judges in court of appeal case?

A

5 - can be as low as 3 or as high as 9

546
Q

What are the criteria for deciding if number of supreme court judges should be higher?

A
  1. being asked to depart from previous decision;
  2. high constitutional importance;
  3. great public importance;
  4. conflict between previous decisions or if previous decisions need to be reconcilled;
  5. case involving important point re ECHR.
547
Q

What directions does the supreme court follow?

A

Follows its own practice direction

548
Q

Does the supreme court have a role in hearing civil contempt of court cases?

A

Yes and also devolution matters

549
Q

When to apply from Court of Appeal to Supreme Court?

A

Application first made to CoA. If unsuccesful apply to Supreme Court. Done 28 days from date of Court of Appeal order. Appeal process does NOT suspend the decision of the court below.

550
Q

Do supreme court ever use 1 justice?

A

Major decisions by the Supreme Court involve the full Court, but some procedural decisions may be taken by a single justice and the Court Registrar. These include matters relating to time limits, non-compliance with rules, withdrawal of an appeal and certain costs matters.

The Registrar will normally make a decision without an oral hearing but may direct one to take place if deemed necessary.

551
Q

Who appeals to Judicial commitee of Privy Council

A

Courts from other jurisdictions

552
Q

Appeals from magistrates - what grounds? Where to? What type of judges?

A

A convicted defendant can appeal against conviction or sentence or both. Appeal to to Crown Court. Full rehearing in front of judge and at least 2 Mags. The judge provides legal analysis and the mag’s are obliged to follow.

553
Q

Will summary matter ever be appealed further?

A

Very unlikely

554
Q

Appeals from magistrates - Appeals against sentencing. What are the hearings like?

A

A similar bench of a judge and two magistrates also hears appeals against sentencing. There is less argument over the facts in this situation, and more attention to the law and practice of the sentencing regime

555
Q

Does defendant need leave to appeal from Mag?

A

No - is an auto right. File notice of appeal within 21 days of verdict.

556
Q

Who can appeal Mag by way of case stated?

A

D & P - Admin Division - QBD High Court. Basis of error of law, ruling in excess of jurisdiction, or insufficient evidence. Application made within 21 days,

557
Q

Can Mag deny request for case stated?

A

Yes - on frivolity. Can then apply direct to High Court for mandatory order.

558
Q

How many judges review matter in case stated?

A

2 - will take facts as decided in lower court.

559
Q

Is leave to appeal required for Crown Court appeal?

A

Leave to appeal is required, unless the trial judge has already
certified the matter is fit for appeal, in which case an appellant should serve notice within 28 days of conviction or sentence.

560
Q

Who can give permission to appeal Crown Court?

A

trial judge or CoA.

561
Q

What grounds should be established to appeal Crown Court?

A

The appellant should show solid grounds, in essence to establish the conviction was unsafe. For example:
1. Error of law (e.g when judge sums up to jury);
2. Material irregularity (e.g jury room discussions with outside world via social media);
3. Obtaining fresh evidence that was NOT available or relied on an trial.

The defendant can also appeal against sentence if the sentence is manifestly excessive, or if the court imposed a sentence it has no power to make. There is no full rehearing. However, the court may hear new evidence if it provides a basis for allowing an appeal.

562
Q

Can pros appeal crown court judgment?

A
  • The Attorney General, a Government minister, may refer a point of law to the Court of Appeal on behalf of the prosecution following acquittal. This does not change the original verdict, purely serving to clarify the law for future reference
  • The Attorney General to request the Court of Appeal to review an unduly lenient sentence.
563
Q

Who can appeal by way case stated from Crown Court to High Court QBD Admin?

A

Pros & D - rules and procedures very similar to Mag

564
Q

Where should appeals to Supreme Court be made from? (Crim)

A

Court of Appeal or the Administrative Court

565
Q

Who can appeal to Supreme Court? (Crim)

A

Defendant or Pros - must be exceptional case of public importance

566
Q

What does the supreme court need to hear application to Supreme Court for appeal after CoA refused it? (Crim)

A

For the Supreme Court to hear a matter, the court below must certify there is a point of law of general public importance, and it must appear to either that court or the Supreme Court the point is one that ought to be considered for appeal.

567
Q

Which areas of law do not need the Supreme Court not need to first hear criteria for CoA? (crim)

A

A select few appeals do not require such a certificate: for instance, an application for habeas corpus, appeals relating to declarations of incompatibility under the Human Rights Act 1998, and certain instances governing contempt of court

568
Q

When does the Notice of Appeal need to be lodges once permission is granted to Supreme Court (crim)?

A

14 days

569
Q

Wat are the Appeal options for Pros?

A
  1. Mag to High Court (case stated)
  2. Crown Court to CoA - need leave from trial judge or CoA (NO RIGH TO APPEAL AGAINST JUDGE MISDIRECTING JURY IN SUMMING UP)
  3. Attorney General from CC to CoA = unduly lenient sentence
  4. CoA - SC
570
Q

What is the judicial Committee of the Privy Council in Crim?

A

The JCPC is the court of last resort for criminal appeals from Commonwealth countries. It is unusual for the lower court to have the power to grant leave unless the case raises questions of great and general importance, or there has been some grave violation of the principles of natural justice. If permission is refused by the lower court, you can apply to the Privy Council itself for permission providing this is done within 56 days.

571
Q

What is an unsafe verdict?

A

“The Court of Appeal shall allow an appeal against conviction if they think that the conviction is unsafe; and shall dismiss such an appeal in any other case.”

in plain mans speaking if the court has some doubt about whether the guilty verdict was correct then they must allow the appeal. Think miscarriage of justice etc.

572
Q

Part 36 offers - how long does the offeree have to request clarifications of offer

A

Once a Part 36 offer has been made, the offeree has 7 days in which to request clarification of the offer (regardless of what the offer says).

573
Q

When and to whom is SDLT sent, and what form is sent?

A

As the property is situated in England, the tenant’s solicitor will need to check whether SDLT is due and, if it is, ensure that the SDLT1 and SDLT payment are submitted to HMRC within 14 days of completion of the grant of the lease/completion of sale.

574
Q

Manslaughter - when has an offender not gone beyond preparation and embarked on crime proper?

A

E.g not yet run at her husband, pointed the handgun or pulled the trigger.

575
Q

What does limited title guarantee mean?

A

an implied covenant that the seller has not incumbered the title to the property and the seller is not aware that anyone else has done so since the last disposition for value.

576
Q

What does full title guarantee mean?

A

Full title guarantee means that there is an implied covenant that the land is disposed of free from incumbrances other than those the seller does not know about and could not reasonably know about.

577
Q

How long is notice of general meeting?

A

14 clear days - if notice emailed or posted adds on 48 hours (consider weekends etc).

578
Q

Does committing a tortious wrong come into the meaning of ‘illegality’ in contract? Can you terminate?

A

It does but can only termination if incidental tot he main object of the contract

579
Q

What docs do tenants solicior need to send to assignee before assignment of lease?

A

Official copies of the tenant’s title to the lease, a draft contract for the assignment of the lease, a copy of the insurance policy for the property, a copy of the receipt for the last insurance premium due, a copy of the receipt for the last payment of annual rent and a copy of the tenant’s lease.

Think - does tenant’s title need to be deduced? If title absolute then no

580
Q

In assignment of lease, who drafts TR1?

A

The transfer of the registered leasehold title (the TR1) will be drafted by the prospective assignee’s solicitor.

581
Q

Can a spouse claim under Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975?

A

Yes (depending if) - yes because she is in one of the categories of people who can make a claim, has reasonable financial provision been made for her and she can claim such financial provision as is reasonable in the circumstances whether or not it is required for her maintenance.

582
Q

mens rea of arson?

A

Iintentionally or recklessly damage property belonging to another by fire.

583
Q

Do loans to directors need share older approval?

A

Yes - if director is also a director of holding company an ordinary res must be passed from holding co to authorise the loan.

584
Q

Approving loan to director - what needs to be available for inspection?

A

a memorandum setting out the terms of the loan and the company’s liability must be made available for inspection at the company’s registered office for 15 days prior to the general meeting at which the ordinary resolution will be proposed, and at the general meeting itself. If the board wishes to propose the ordinary resolution by written resolution, a copy of the memorandum must instead be sent out with the written resolution and does not need to be available for inspection at the company’s registered office

585
Q

What are the exceptions to the requirement for loans to directors to be approve by SHs?

A
  1. expenditure on company business. This covers expenditure for the purposes of the
    company or for the purposes of enabling the director to properly perform their duties. This exception is only available for a loan or loans up to a maximum of £50,000;
  2. expenditure on defending civil or criminal proceedings in relation to the company or an associated company;
  3. expenditure on defending regulatory proceedings or defending himself or herself in an investigation by a regulatory authority;
  4. minor and business transactions, as long as the transactions and any other relevant
    transaction or arrangement does not exceed £10,000.
586
Q

What happens if loan to director (without exception) is not approve by ordinary res?

A

If the company lends money to a director without the shareholders first passing an ordinary resolution, the transaction or arrangement is voidable at the instance of the company.

VOIDABLE NOT VOID

The director who loaned the money from the company and any director who authorised the transaction or arrangement are liable to account to the company for any gain they have made, and are jointly and severally liable to indemnify the company for any loss or damage resulting from the transaction or arrangement

587
Q

How often should a suspect be given a break from being interviewed at police station?

A

Approx every 2 hours - does not need to be exact

Suspects are to be given an eight-hour break if being interviewed over a 24 hour period. This should usually be at night.

Breaks are required at recognised meal times.

588
Q

What happens if defendant doesn’t issued directions questionnaire?

A

The court could grant an order that unless the claimant files full particulars of claim setting out their reasons for claiming the damages within seven days of service of the order, the claim will be struck out.
- WILL BE struck out, not could be

589
Q

What time does OS1R expire?

A

12 Noon

590
Q

What priority period does OS1R give?

A

30 WORKING day

591
Q

What are the pre-completion searches?

A

Bankruptcy Search (K16)
Land Charges Search (K15)
Official Search of Whole with Priority (OS1)
Official Search of Part with Priority (OS2)

592
Q

Can a party be punished for causing mediation to fail through its conduct?

A

One party may be ordered to pay or contribute towards the other party’s costs if it can be established by way of admissible evidence that its conduct caused mediation to fail where otherwise the mediation would have had a reasonable prospect of succeeding.

593
Q

If someone executes a will but signed without realising with it was, does this count as valid execution?

A

No

594
Q

If someone executes a will but signed without realising with it was, does this count as valid execution?

A

No

595
Q

How does a codicil need to be executed?

A

must be in writing and signed by the testator in the joint presence of two witnesses, who must then witness the testator’s signature by signing the codicil in the testator’s presence.

Same as other wills. If not executed correctly then invalid, will fail, and terms of origial will are unaffected

596
Q

Does the high court in its appellate role bind itself?

A

Although the High Court in its appellate role usually binds itself, it can depart from previous decisions where they are made through carelessness. This follows the principle adopted by the Court of Appeal in Young v Bristol Aeroplane [1944] KB 718. Incidentally there is no presumption the High Court in its first instance role binds itself.

Per incuriam - through carelessness

597
Q

Subject to specific provisions in will, who is responsible for making payment of funeral and testamentary expenses?

A

The personal representatives are responsible for paying the funeral and testamentary expenses from the residuary estate.

NOT MORTGAGE

598
Q

What are the illegality grounds of judicial review?

A
  1. Acting without legal authority
  2. The rule against delegation
  3. Fettering of discretion - Acting under dictation of another & Applying general policy in too strict a manner
  4. Using powers for improper/unauthorised purpose
  5. Dual purposes
  6. Taking account of irrelevant considerations or failing to take account of relevant considerations
  7. Errors of law
  8. Errors of fact
599
Q

What are the irrationality grounds of judicial review?

A
  1. so outrageous its defiance of logic or of accepted moral standards that no sensible person could have arrived at it
600
Q

What are the irrationalitygrounds of judicial review?

A
  1. so outrageous its defiance of logic or of accepted moral standards that no sensible person could have arrived at it
601
Q

What are the procedural grounds of judicial review?

A

Procedural impropriety is a ground for challenge based on the way in which a decision
has been reached:
1. Procedural fairness/natural justice; or
2. Procedural ultra-vires

602
Q

What is procedural (ultra-vires) in judicial review?

A

Statutory procedural requirements - some are mandatory some are directory.

603
Q

What are the common law grounds of judicial review for procedure?

A

(a) rule against bias; and
(b) fair hearing - forfeiture cases; legitimate expectation cases; application - consider right to reasons

These are common law

604
Q

Lord Hailsham described the United Kingdom’s government as being an “elective dictatorship”. How?

A

Every five years or so, the public elects a new Executive; until the public vote again the Executive can usually take control of the legislative agenda because the Executive dominates the Legislature when it has a majority in Parliament, and the public cannot remove the Executive from office.

605
Q

Can the implied terms of quality of goods be excluded from CRA?

A

No - exemption clause won’t be binding

606
Q

Are statements in parliamentary proceedings absolutely privileged?

A

Yes

607
Q

unregistered title of a freehold property. The transaction has been completed and the buyer’s solicitor is arranging to apply to the Land Registry for first registration of the title. What will the Land Reg send to buyer’s solicitor?

A

On completion of the registration the Land Registry will forward an official copy of the entries on the register, known as a Title Information Document to the buyer’s solicitor.

608
Q

When must application for registration of title be made in unreg title?

A

Within 2 months of completion

609
Q

since November 2016 certified copies of the original documents can be submitted with the application to the Land Registry for non reg properties. Is this mandatory?

A

No

610
Q

What application should the registration of title be made on (unreg)

A

FR1

611
Q

Article 1 of the First Protocol to the European Convention on Human Rights – protection of property - when is this right enagged>

A

only be engaged where the interference affects the financial value of property.

612
Q

Position under SCPCs if landlord’s consent hasn’t been given by completion?

A

completion is postponed until five working days after the tenant (defined in the SCPCs as the ‘seller’) notifies the assignee (defined in the SCPCs as the ‘buyer’) that the landlord’s consent has been given.

Note, 5 WORKING days

613
Q

Grounds of Fraud under Fraud Act?

A
  1. Fraud by false representation;
  2. Fraud by failing to disclose info; or
  3. Fraud by abuse of position.

Dishonestly makes (false rep, fails to disclose that which he is under legal duty to, abuses position to safeguard or not act against financial interest of another person); AND
Intends to make a gain for himself or another or cause loss to another (or expose another to a risk of a loss)

614
Q

Must Mag obtain pre-sentence report before sentencing?

A

generally not able to impose a custodial sentence without first obtaining a pre-sentence report (PSR). Further, in Rafferty [1999] 1 Cr App R 235, the Court of Appeal held that where a person who has been on bail enters a guilty plea at the ‘plea before venue’ hearing, the usual practice should be to continue the bail, even if it is anticipated that a custodial sentence will be imposed (by the Crown Court) unless there is good reason for remanding in custody

615
Q

What is exclusive cognisance?

A

Parliament controls its own processes and procedures.

616
Q

What is exclusive cognisance?

A

Parliament controls its own processes and procedures.

617
Q

Does a limited company need to tax on loans to dierctors?

A

Yes pay to HMRC and then reclaim when loan is repaid, waived, written off.

618
Q

When should a witness summons be served? (Civil)

A

The general rule is that it should be served at least seven days before the date on which the witness is required to attend court. Court can allow less time.

619
Q

How many shares needed to agree general meeting held on short notice?

A

Limited - AT LEAST 90%
PLC - At LEAST 95%

620
Q

When is a claimant likely to succeed in application for interim payment?

A

Once liability has been provided or admitted, or, court is satisfied that, if the claim went to trial, she would obtain a judgment.

621
Q

Before October 20114, how much advancement can beneficiary get?

A

Half of entitlement, after 2014 Oct, full

622
Q

What is a shadow director?

A

the definition of a shadow director is a person with whose directions the directors are accustomed to act

623
Q

Can a company assert a proprietary claim to recover property wrongfully taken in breach of fiduciary duty?

A

The company can assert proprietary claims to recover property wrongly taken in breach of fiduciary duty, in the same way that a beneficiary can assert proprietary claims to recover property wrongly taken in breach of trust.

Can claim from third party if had the requisite degree the money was stolen or was suspicious but didn’t ask questions.

624
Q

What is Article 5

A

Article 5 - right to liberty and security of person. It is a limited right which can be interfered with in certain situations. One of these is where an individual is arrested and detained to ensure that he complies with a court order.

625
Q

What type of rights are there under ECHR and what do these mean?

A

Absolute - can never be interfered with
Limited - Can be interfered with in certain situations
Qualified - Can be interfered with in the pursuit of legit aim, that is prescribed by law, and is proportionate

626
Q

Trustees delegate to agent Are they liable?

A

No, if:

  1. appointed in writing;
    agent given policy statement; and
  2. reviewed work regularly.
627
Q

When has power of sale arisen? Mortage.

A
  1. Legal date for redemption passed (usually 1 month in) or instalment of mortgage money as become due;
628
Q

When does power of sale exist?

A

Implied into a legal deed or may be express

629
Q

When is power of sale exerciseable?

A

(i) the lender has given the borrower notice to repay the loan amount and the borrower has not paid the sum for three months after such notice; or
(ii) interest is in arrears for two months after becoming due; or
(iii) the borrower has breached a term of the mortgage (other than the covenant to pay the mortgage money or the interest thereon).

630
Q

What is Part 3 of standard disclosure?

A

Part 3 of the list concerns those documents which a party is aware exists but no longer has control over

631
Q

How are new partners assessed on trading profit in first year?

A

The rule is that for the first year, partners are assessed on the trading profit from joining the partnership to the end of the tax year.

632
Q

Trustees of a will holding land on trust - who do they need to listen to?

A

must listen to any beneficiary who is of FULL AGE and beneficially entitled to an interest in possession in the land. Trustees must (as far as consistent with the trust) give effect to their wishes. Includes life tenants (right to income).

This is not the case for personalty - in that case benes cannot control the exercise of trustees discretions

633
Q

Does the rent covenant run with the reversion selling of freehold)?

A

As it is an old lease, s141 Law of Property Act 1925 governs the passing of the benefit of the covenant to pay rent to the current landlord.

634
Q

What is Spencer’s Case?

A

It establishes the rule that covenants in leases with a sufficiently close relation to the land “run with the land,” and will bind assignees of the leasehold. Applies to successor tenants (when tenant dies).

635
Q

On fast track how many experts will be appointed?

A

On the fast track the court will usually order a single joint expert, unless there is a good reason to appoint separate experts.

636
Q

Unreg land, man sold part of freehold - In the conveyance, the woman promised not to use the Property for any purpose other than a private residential house. Man took no steps to protect land charge. Woman sold on her part of the property to a manger. Is the manager bound?

A

The covenant made by the woman is a restrictive covenant and therefore equitable by nature – s.1(3) LPA 1925. Even though it has been made by deed, it retains its equitable nature and is therefore not good against the whole world.

Only the burdened land has changed hands. The manager is only bound by the covenant if the criteria in Tulk v Moxhay are met. The final criteria is that the purchaser, the manager, must have notice of the covenant. In unregistered land such a covenant is protected by a D(ii) land charge – s.2 LCA 1972. If it is not so protected, it will be void against a purchaser for money or money’s worth of the legal estate – s.4(6) LCA 1972.

The man can pursue the woman via privity of contract. The woman could then pursue the manager if there is an indemnity covenant in conveyance.

637
Q

What are conditions in Tulk v Moxhay

A

Decided that in certain cases a restrictive covenant can “run with the land” (i.e. a future owner will be subject to the restriction) in equity. Requirments:

  1. Cov - negative
  2. At date of cov, must benefit dominant land
  3. Must touch and concern the land
  4. The covenant must be made with the intention to burden the servient land.
638
Q

Can a landlord charge a conditional increase in rent for change of use?

A

section 19(3) Landlord and Tenant Act 1927 provides that an increase in rent cannot be charged by the landlord as a condition of giving consent, provided no structural alterations are involved in the change.

639
Q

What are statutory trusts?

A

The intestacy rules impose a trust over all the property (real and personal) in respect of which a person dies intestate (s 33 AEA 1925). That property is held on trust by the person(s) dealing with the estate – the personal representative(s) or PRs. This trust is similar to the usual express trust found in a will (see Chapter 5) and includes a power of sale.

Part of estate that doesn’t go to spouse will go to issue on a stat trust.

640
Q

What is the order of distributon if no spouse under intestacy rules?

A

Where there is no surviving spouse or civil partner, or where the spouse or civil partner dies within 28 days of the intestate, the residuary estate is divided between the intestate’s relatives in the highest category in the list below:

(a) issue on the ‘statutory trusts’, but if none,
(b) parents, equally if both alive, but if none,
(c) brothers and sisters of the whole blood on the ‘statutory trusts’, but if none,
(d) brothers and sisters of the half blood on the ‘statutory trusts’, but if none,
(e) grandparents, equally if more than one, but if none,
(f) uncles and aunts of the whole blood on the ‘statutory trusts’, but if none,
(g) uncles and aunts of the half blood on the ‘statutory trusts’, but if none,
(h) the Crown, Duchy of Lancaster, or Duke of Cornwall (bona vacantia).

Parents, spouse, grandparents and the Crown don’t have stat trust.

641
Q

How to apply stat trusts?

A

This means
that members of the specified class categories take the estate equally (children under 18 take their interest contingently upon attaining 18 or marrying earlier), and that issue of a deceased relative may take that relative’s share. (Again, a person with an interest under the statutory trusts who dies without attaining a vested interest but leaving issue, will be treated as having predeceased the intestate so that they can be replaced by their own issue. To be substituted, the issue must be living at the intestate’s death.)

This means that relatives not mentioned in s 46 (eg nephews, nieces and cousins) may inherit on intestacy if their parents died before the intestate

642
Q

What are the

A
643
Q

What are the Etridge Guidlines?

A

Applies when person exercising the undue influence is not the person for whose benefit the loan is made - e.g wife taking out guarantee for her husbands business.

The Etridge guidelines provide that the solicitor would need to obtain confirmation from the wife that she wants the solicitor to act for her and to advise her on the practical and legal implications of the transaction. This should occur at a face-to-face meeting between the solicitor and the wife in the absence of the husband.

644
Q

What is an excepted estate?

A

Don’t need IHT - there are 3 categories:

  1. Small estates;
  2. Exempt estates; and
  3. Non-domiciled estates.
645
Q

Does presumption in favour of bail apply to cc?

A

Not if committed to cc for sentencing

646
Q

Does the presumption in favour of bail apply to D’s who have been committed to Crown Court for sentence?

A

No

647
Q

when does takeover exclusion apply re FCA

A

if the transaction involves 50% or more of the voting shares in the company.

648
Q

Will assignor of lease need an indemnity cov in deed of assignment?

A

Yes if assignore will remain liable i.e if old lease or if gave AGA

649
Q

Man in Mag but sent to crown court, can he make another bail, app?

A

No best to appeal against bail decision in CC

650
Q

How long to appeal to Supreme Court? (Crim)

A

You should request permission from the court in question, or failing that,
the Supreme Court itself. The appellant has 28 days within which to apply for leave.