Wrong Questions. Flashcards
(375 cards)
1
Q
*Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?
A
YMCA 3-minute step test
2
Q
Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?
A
Central to the left and anterior to the spine
3
Q
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
A
Posterior pelvic tilt
4
Q
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins?
A
Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
5
Q
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
A
Stabilization-focused exercise
6
Q
Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise?
A
Bench press
(Not pull-up)
7
Q
Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete’s macrocycle annual training plan?
A
Cardio training
8
Q
Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine?
A
Lower crossed syndrome
9
Q
What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body’s sprinting direction in response to that stimulus?
A
Agility
10
Q
Why is third-party verification important?
A
It provides unbiased testing for a product.
11
Q
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
A
Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck
12
Q
Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?
A
Vestibular system
13
Q
A client who is training with you to improve his body composition states that he only sleeps 4 or 5 hours a night because he thinks that any more is a waste of time. How might you respond to him in view of his body composition goals?
A
Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.
14
Q
What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?
A
It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
15
Q
In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
A
Zone 2
16
Q
What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?
A
12 inches
17
Q
What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate?
A
208 - (0.7 x age)
18
Q
What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?
A
1,200 kcal
19
Q
What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate?
A
Radial pulse
20
Q
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
A
15 to 60 seconds
21
Q
Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines?
A
Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.
22
Q
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?
A
Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
23
Q
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?
A
Autogenic inhibition
24
Q
Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?
A
Troponin
25
What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person?
80 beats per minute
26
How many B vitamins are there?
8
27
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Self-efficacy
28
Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining?
High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment
29
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?
Type I
30
Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Vestibular system
31
The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
Strength
32
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
Increased lipolysis
33
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
Long
34
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
Power
35
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward
36
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?
Biomechanical ankle platform system
37
Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury?
Golgi tendon organs
38
What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body
Regional interdependence
39
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?
Veins
40
Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?
Bench press and stability ball push-ups
41
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms?
Platelets
42
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?
Slow to fatigue
43
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Mechanical and neurophysiological response
44
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?
Pushing
45
According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis?
1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
46
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Local muscles
47
How can diastolic blood pressure be defined?
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded
48
Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?
Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
49
At what age is total peak bone mass reached?
30
50
What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change?
Provide them with education and knowledge
51
Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency.
Preparation
52
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
53
Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how?
More efficently
54
Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?
Pes planus distortion syndrome
55
Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded?
Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
56
What is adaptive thermogenesis?
Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
57
Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program?
BOSU ball
58
What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
140 Beats per minute
59
Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion?
Iliopsoas
60
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?
Eccentric
61
What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?
A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
62
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?
0.6
63
The PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process reflects what three health indicators?
An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity
64
According to the “iceberg effect,” which of the following training adaptations are considered “surface level”?
Endurance
65
What are the three branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs)?
Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
66
What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion
67
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?
2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
68
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?
The exercise is intense.
69
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?
Nonaxial
70
Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients?
Peripheral heart action system
71
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Visual System
72
At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest?
Maintenance
73
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed
Free hydrogen ions
74
You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?
6 to 10 drills
75
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?
Nociceptor
76
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
Self-myofascial techniques
77
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Back extension
78
How many pages are most appropriate for a resume?
One to two pages
79
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility
Self-myofascial techniques
80
What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high-impact nature?
Supportive shoes
81
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized?
Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
82
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Hip abductors
83
Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training?
SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.
84
Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise?
Push-ups
(Not Machine Leg Extension)
85
What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids?
Animal proteins
86
A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform?
Standing cobra
87
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?
The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
88
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?
Muscular Development
89
What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial?
Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
90
What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure?
Hypertension
91
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?
6 to 8 drills
92
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
93
Which of the following would be considered a process goal?
Run three times a week
94
Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?
Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.
95
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
96
What is the most effective way to learn more about a large health club company before an interview with a hiring manager?
Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered
97
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
98
Which of the following is iron considered to be?
Trace mineral
99
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?
Frontal plane
100
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?
Coping responses
101
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Motor unit recruitment
102
How many vertebrae make up the thoracic spine?
12
103
What is glycogen?
The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
104
Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next?
Phase 2
105
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Bracing
106
Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?
Acetyl CoA
107
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
Stage 1
108
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
Instrumental support
109
What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury?
Proprioception
110
What is the Valsalva maneuver?
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
111
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Cleaning
( Activities of Daily Living )
112
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?
Visual system
113
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do
The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
114
Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
115
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
116
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
117
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?
Pyruvate
118
When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
119
What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone?
Ligament
120
Where is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement?
At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)
121
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
5 times a week
122
Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body?
Autonomic nervous system
123
A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following?
Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
124
Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product?
The nutrition facts panel
125
Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?
Vertical jump
126
The posterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
127
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
At least 3 times a week
128
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Adductor complex
129
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?
Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
130
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
Growth and volume
131
The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following?
Heart health
132
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?
Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
133
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
Baseline value
134
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?
Brachioradialis
135
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?
o connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
136
Which term best describes the observable movement of the limbs?
Osteokinematics
137
Flexibility is defined as the following:
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
138
When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?
As exhaled carbon dioxide
139
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?
Thumbs pointing up
140
Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?
Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation
141
Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability?
Strength machines
142
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?
Osteokinematics
143
Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?
Parasympathetic nervous system
144
The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally
inferiorly
145
Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?
Osteoarthritis
146
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power?
Medicine ball chest pass
147
Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?
Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
148
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
Validity
149
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?
Increased ventricular filling
150
Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations?
Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
151
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?
Forward head and protracted shoulders
152
Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?
Frontal and sagittal
153
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder
Muscular Development Training
154
How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)?
30 minutes
155
What area of the chest contains the heart
Mediastinum
156
Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Pushing test
157
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
Speed
158
Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified?
Preventive care
159
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Multifidus
160
What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw?
First class
First class lever – the fulcrum is in the middle of the effort and the load.
(Fulcrum)
Second class lever – the load is in the middle between the fulcrum and the effort.
(Load)
Third class lever – the effort is in the middle between the fulcrum and the load.
(Effort)
161
What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?
Reliability
162
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer?
Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.
163
Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?
Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
164
Which statement about cancer is most accurate?
Cells in the body grow abnormally.
165
Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?
Appendicular
166
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement?
Erector spinae
167
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Davis's law
168
During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action?
Eccentric
169
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
170
How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?
1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
171
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?
A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
172
Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication?
Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
173
Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions?
Collagen synthesis and immunity
174
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?
0.1
175
Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways?
Neuroplasticity
176
From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity?
Body composition
177
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?
Activation
178
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine
Sternocleidomastoid
179
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?
Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
180
Which of the following is not a component of an integrated approach to exercise?
Diet supplementation
181
What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats?
Diastolic blood pressure
182
What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top?
Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
183
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
3.5 mL/kg/min
184
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Peripheral vasodilation
185
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?
Sport and exercise psychology
186
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
Mechanical specificity
187
Which of the following is a ketone body?
Acetoacetic acid
188
Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain?
Posterior chain
189
What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Brachial artery
190
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?
4-2-1-1
191
Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint?
Type II
192
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex
193
What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?
Deceleration
194
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Peripheral vasodilation
195
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"?
Sinoatrial node
196
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
40-yard dash
197
What three joint actions comprise triple extension?
Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
198
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following?
The group feels distinct from other people.
199
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
Alveolar sacs
200
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?
Duodenum of the small intestine
201
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?
Gluconeogenesis
202
What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels?
Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.
203
Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?
Resting metabolic rate
204
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD?
Leg pain
205
Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?
Somatosensory system
206
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Small jumps
207
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?
Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
208
Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management?
Hormones and medications
209
What is end-diastolic volume?
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
210
How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?
It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.
211
What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?
The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
212
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model?
Cable machines
213
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Zone 3
214
Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?
Registered dietitian nutritionist
215
How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Four
216
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
Lateral subsystem
217
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Abdominals
218
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Erector spinae
219
How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise?
In a neutral position
220
Which type of motivation would be characterized by a client who enjoys the process of becoming more fit?
Intrinsic motivation
221
One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division?
Peripheral nervous system
222
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?
It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
223
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic" curves?
Thoracic and sacral
224
What is end-systolic volume?
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
225
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?
Landing mechanics
226
Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase?
Postural alignment
227
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
Quickness
228
Which vitamin is the most transient?
Vitamin C
229
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
230
Which joints are most associated with human movement?
Synovial
231
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Ankle plantar flexion
232
What are the fat-soluble vitamins?
A, D, E, and K
233
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
1 or 2 sets
234
What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin?
0.5
235
What is the primary action of the multifidus?
Stabilize and extend the spine
236
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max
237
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
238
What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?
Eccentric loading
239
What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent?
Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
240
You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?
1 to 3 times per week
241
Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?
Dynamic posture assessment
242
Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause?
Place a small board under the heels
243
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?
As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
244
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?
Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
245
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
246
How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production?
It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.
247
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
248
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?
Semi-dynamic balance
249
Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process?
Identifying a customer's needs
250
What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs?
They act as shock absorbers.
251
How is a general warm-up best defined?
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
252
What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?
Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
253
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
254
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?
hose with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
255
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
ATP and water
256
Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism?
B vitamins
257
If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing?
Unrealistic goals
258
Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain and pituitary gland?
Hypothalamus
259
What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on?
Speed of force generation
260
What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles?
Fascia
261
At her annual physical, Claire found out her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. According to this information, which statement is true?
Her diastolic pressure is 70.
262
Which regions of the spine demonstrate "lordotic" curves?
Cervical and lumbar
263
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?
Thoracic spine
264
Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?
Medicine ball soccer throw
265
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?
Activation
266
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Two-arm push press
267
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
268
Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?
Flexibility and joint ROM
269
Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles?
Somatosensory system
270
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
271
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Amortization
272
What is the peripheral heart action system?
A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
273
Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation?
Intrinsic motivation
274
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
Upper trapezius
275
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?
Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
276
A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her?
Extrinsic motivation
277
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?
Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
278
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
279
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
Transverse
280
Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"?
Select one:
Stability
281
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever?
Third class
282
Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier?
Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.
283
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?
4 seconds
284
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed?
2 seconds
285
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
286
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?
Short-term contractions
287
Which is a primary adaptation of the Strength Endurance training phase?
Muscular endurance
288
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
Hip flexor complex
289
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions?
Posterior
290
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?
Posterior chain
291
When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?
Sympathetic nervous system
292
Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body
The approximate midpoint of the body
293
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
Step-ups
294
he standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?
Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
295
What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
296
A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function?
Motor function
297
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?
Transverse abdominis
298
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?
Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
299
-Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following
Less braking force
300
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Reciprocal inhibition
301
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
302
Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which of the following functions?
It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.
303
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder?
Shoulder impingement
304
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Hamstrings and erector spinae
305
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?
Brachioradialis
306
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
307
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Beta-oxidation
308
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
309
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?
Reciprocal inhibition
310
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
311
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?
Coping responses
312
How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?
9
313
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Motor unit recruitment
314
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
315
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?
Low-impact activity
316
Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?
Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
317
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
Serratus anterior
318
What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?
Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
319
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
1 or 2 sessions per week
320
What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach?
Processes
321
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?
Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
322
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?
Sagittal
323
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
324
Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?
Maximal Strength Training
325
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Abdominals
326
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
327
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Stage 2 training
328
Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate?
It is not a curable disease.
329
Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?
Interval phase
330
The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring?
Flexion and extension
331
Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations?
Self-efficacy
332
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
333
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
334
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
335
Which of the following hydration options would be most appropriate for exercise lasting over 90 minutes, or shorter-duration exercise in warm temperatures with heavy perspiration?
Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water
336
What are the two components of a sarcomere?
Actin and myosin
337
Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements?
Multifidus
338
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults?
Family
339
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?
Frank Starling Law of the Heart
340
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?
Vitamin A
341
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following?
The built environment
342
Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall?
Elevated
343
(OHSA)
Joint: Foot and ankle
Viewpoint : anterior
Movement impairment: Turnout
"Overactive"
-Gastrocenimius / soleus (calves)
-Hamstrings complex
"Underactive"
-Anterior and posterior tibialis (shin muscles)
-Gluteus maximus and medius
344
(OHSA)
Joint: Knee
Viewpoint: Anterior
Movement impairment: Valgus(cave in)
"Overactive"
-Tensor fascia latae (TFL)(muscle near front of hip)
-Adductor complex (inner thigh muscles)
"Underactive"
-Gluteus Maximus and medius
-Anterior and posterior tibialis
345
(OHSA)
Joint: LPHC
Viewpoint: Lateral
Movement impairment: Low-back arches
"Overactive"
-Hip flexors (rectus femoris, psoas, TFL)
-Lumbar extensors (low-back muscles)
-Latissimus dorsi (large back muscle)
"Underactive"
-Gluteus maximus
-Hamstrings complex
-Abdominals
346
(OHSA)
Joint: LPHC
Viewpoint: Lateral
Movement Impairment: Excessive forward trunk lean
"Overactive"
-Hip flexors
-Gastrocnemius/soleus
-Rectus abdominis and external obliques (superficial abdominal muscles)
"Underactive"
-Gluteus maximus
-Hamstrings complex
-Lumbar extensors
347
(OHSA)
Joint: LPHC
Viewpoint: Lateral
Movement Impairment: Arms Fall forward
"Overactive"
-Latissimus dorsi
-Pectoralis major and minor (chest muscles)
-Teres major (posterior shoulder muscle)
"Underactive"
-Middle and lower trapezius (mid-back muscle)
-Rhomboids (muscles near shoulder blades)
-Posterior deltoids (back of shoulder muscles)
-Portions of the rotator cuff (small muscles that stabilize the shoulder)
348
(Pushing Assessment)
Joint: LPHC
Viewpoint: Lateral
Movement Impairment: Low Back Arches
"Overactive"
-Hip flexors (rectus femoris, psoas, TFL)
-Lumbar extensors
"Underactive"
-Gluteus maximus
-Hamstrings complex
-Abdominals
349
(Pushing Assessment)
Joint: Shoulder
Viewpoint: Lateral
Movement Impairment: Scapular elevation
"Overactive"
-Levator scapulae (posterior neck muscles)
-Upper trapezius
"Underactive"
Lower trapezius
350
(Pushing Assessment)
Joint: Head and Neck
Viewpoint: Lateral
Movement Impairment: Head juts forward
"Overactive"
-Levator scapulae
-Sternocleidomastoid (anterior neck muscles)
"Underactive"
-Deep cervical flexors (deep neck stabilizer muscles)
351
(Pulling Assessment)
Joint: LPHC
Viewpoint: Lateral
Movement Impairment: Lower Back arches
Overactive
-Hip flexors (rectus femoris, psoas, TFL)
-Lumbar extensors
Underactive
-Gluteus maximus
-Hamstrings complex
-Abdominals
352
(Pulling Assessment)
Joint: Shoulder
Viewpoint: Lateral
Movement Impairment: Scapular elevation
"Overactive"
-Levator scapula
-Upper trapezius
"Underactive"
-Lower trapezius
353
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
1 or 2 sets
354
What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?
The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
355
What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)?
The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
356
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
SMR/static stretching
357
What is acidosis in muscle?
A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
358
Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement?
120/80 mm Hg
359
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2?
Glucose
360
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
Having more mitochondria in their muscle
361
What is plyometric training also known as?
Reactive training
362
Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise?
Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.
363
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
Cervical and lumbar
364
What is the RDA for protein?
0.8 g/kg of body weight
365
Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?
Medicine ball
366
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
367
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Pro shuttle
368
What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?
A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
369
Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?
Resistance training
370
Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise?
Incline plank
371
The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following?
Heart health
372
Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?
Cross-country runner
373
What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration?
Concentric
374
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity
Glycolysis
375
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
