X100 Flashcards
(500 cards)
1
Q
jus in bello (justice in war)
A
Limiting who can be deliberately attacked and how war can be legitimately conducted
2
Q
What are the three key national security policy advisory councils to the President of the United States?
A
The National Security Council (NSC), the Homeland Security Council (HSC), and the National Economic Council (NEC)
3
Q
According to Joint Publication 1, the “instruments” of national power are:
A
Diplomatic, Informational, Military, Economic
4
Q
Which of the following questions best defines the concept of acceptability?
A
Are the consequences of cost justified by the importance of the effect desired?
5
Q
Which instrument of national power is the principal instrument for engaging other states and foreign groups in order to advance U.S. values, interests, and objectives?
A
Diplomatic
6
Q
Which of the following questions best describes the concept of feasibility?
A
Can the strategic concept be executed with the resources available?
7
Q
Which statement describes the operational chain of command within the Department of Defense?
A
Secretary of Defense to the Commanders of Combatant Commands
8
Q
Which of the following is a JSPS product?
A
The Joint Strategic Campaign Plan
9
Q
Which best describes “jus ad bellum” (justice of going to war)?
A
Going to war for the right reasons, as a last resort, with a reasonable hope for success, and with legitimate authority
10
Q
The term “risk” means:
A
Assessment of the probable consequences of success and failure
11
Q
Which of the following documents is produced by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) as part of the Joint Strategic Planning System?
A
National Military Strategy
12
Q
What instrument of national power uses actions, words, or images to advance national interests by engaging key audiences?
A
Informational
13
Q
Which document produced by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff translates strategic policy end states from the Contingency Planning Guidance into military campaign and contingency plan guidance?
A
Joint Strategic Campaign Plan
14
Q
Which official did the Goldwater-Nichols Department of Defense Reorganization Act of 1986, make the statutory principal military advisor to the POTUS, the SECDEF, and the NSC?
A
The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
15
Q
Which of the following questions best defines the concept of suitability?
A
Will the attainment of the objectives using the instruments of power in the manner stated accomplish the strategic effects desired?
16
Q
Strategies entail the fundamental logic of ends, ways, and means that lead to the achievement of the desired end state.In this construct, the term “means” is defined as:
A
Resources that are required to accomplish a sequence of actions
17
Q
Which branch of the US Government does the U.S. Constitution empower to declare war?
A
The Congress
18
Q
What is the primary benefit of understanding PMESII systems, their interaction with each other, and how system relationships will change over time?
A
Increasing the JFC’s knowledge of how actions within a system can affect other system components
19
Q
Using national strategies as a guide, combatant commanders develop ____________________ plans that execute day-to-day campaigning that address theater objectives as well as objectives directed by global campaign plans and functional campaign plans.
A
Combatant Command Campaign Plan
20
Q
Strategies entail the fundamental logic of ends, ways, and means that lead to the achievement of the desired end state.In this construct, the term “ends” is defined as:
A
The objectives that must be accomplished to reach the desired end state
21
Q
Which of the following documents is signed by the Secretary of Defense?
A
National Defense Strategy
22
Q
According to JP 3-0, what tool can help commanders and staffs gain a systems perspective and develop an understanding of the operational environment?
A
Political, Military, Economic, Social, Information, and Infrastructure
23
Q
Which document does the President approve that defines the responsibilities and areas of responsibility for combatant commanders?
A
Unified Command Plan
24
Q
Strategies entail the fundamental logic of ends, ways, and means that lead to the achievement of the desired end state.In this construct, the term “ways” is defined as:
A
A sequence of actions that is likely to achieve stated objectives
25
Across DOTMLPF-P, the services consider materiel solutions last because
They are generally the most expensive and take the longest to develop
26
The two most important organizations in Army acquisition are ____________.
The Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Army for Acquisition, Logistics, and Technology (ASA(ALT)) and Army Futures Command (AFC)
27
Which three methods does the Defense Acquisition System (DAS) use for materiel development based on immediacy of need?
Urgent, Emergent, and Deliberate
28
What represents a "Must-Do", or minimim requirements a capability?
Key Performance Parameter (KPP)
29
To streamline modernization, Army Futures Command has established ________, bringing all stakeholders into the conversation.
Cross-Functional Teams (CFTs)
30
Differentiate a TOE and MTOE
An MTOE is an authorizations document (MTOE) that details a resourced organization. A TOE is a requirements document that details the doctrinal requirements for an organization.
31
What process / decision-making forum do the Senior Leaders of the Army use to determine the best force to meet operational requirements that they can afford within endstrength limitations?
Total Army Analysis (TAA)
32
The future Army structure that the Army intends to resource
POM Force
33
A list of decisions made for resourcing the future Army's structure
Army Structure Memorandum (ARSTRUC)
34
A unit's organizational design that the Army has agreed to resource
Modified Table of Organization and Equipment (MTOE)
35
MTOEs are the usual authorizations document for the operating force (including BCTs). _________ are the usual authorizations document for the generating force (including CGSS).
Tables of Distribution and Allowance (TDAs)
36
After TAA, capabilities developers execute the __________ to document MTOEs and TDAs.
Command Plan
37
What process does the Army use to develop organizational designs?
Force Development
38
How do Force Integration Functional Area (FIFA) differ from DOTMLPF-P?
FIFAs assess friction points in integrating organizational change. DOTMLPF-P identifies options to solve capability gaps.
39
What is the process through which the Army develop and approves new (or modified) organizational designs.
The Force Design Update (FDU)
40
What analytical framework does HQDA use to assess an FDU prior to approval?
Force Integration Functional Area (FIFA) analysis
41
Replacing HMMWVs with JLTVs on TOEs requires a __________________ to update the TOE.
a Basis of Issue Plan (BOIP)
42
HQDA G8 aligning resources to requirements approved by the Secretary of the Army and CSA happens as part of ________.
Programming
43
What teo bills must be signed for DoD to be able to fund operations
Congress passes and the President signs both the Defense Appropriation Bill and the Defense Authorization Bill
44
The conclusion of TAA marks the transition from ________.
Planning to Programming
45
The Army Budget Office (ABO) monitors expenditures during ________.
Execution
46
A fiscal law that allows expenditure of funds; also, a color of money identified in an appropriations act that describes how the funds can be spent
Appropriation
47
An organization responsible for managing similar programs that align functionally (equipping, manning, etc.)
Program Evaluation Group (PEG)
48
Which line of authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?
ADCON
49
By law, Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) is limited in size. What organization(s) does it use to accomplish its Title 10 missions?
Army Commands (ACOMs), Army Service Component Commands (ASCCs), Direct Reporting Units (DRUs), and Field Operating Agencies (FOAs)
50
Which is a factor that guided the Army's organizational evolution after Vietnam?
A clearly defined threat: the Soviet Union
51
_______________ develops and fields capabilities that combatant commanders require to meet the demands of the contemporary operating environment
Force Management
52
Provide an example of Congress exercising its authority to organize the military.
Goldwater-Nichols Act established the structure that included geographic combatant commands
53
Within JCIDS, what construct do capability developers use to identify a wide range of possible solutions?
DOTMLPF-P
54
Which organization is responsible for guiding Army modernization and capability development?
Army Futures Command (AFC)
55
JCIDS considers all domains of DOTMLPF-P, but ultimately classifies solutions into two categories:
Materiel and non-materiel
56
A _______________ describes how the joint community wants to operate in future conflicts.
Joint Concept
57
What is the current Army Operating Concept?
Multi-Domain Operations 2028
58
Where can you find Army guidance on the percentage of personnel a Compo 1 unit should receive?
Active Component Manning Guidance
59
What is one reason that the Army cannot fully man units to MTOE even when it has enough personnel in rank and operational specialty?
Many Soldiers are contained in the Transients, Trainees, Holdovers, and Students (TTHS) account and unavailable for assignment to units.
60
Who manages the Army’s equipment distribution and redistribution?
Army Materiel Command (AMC)
61
What is an example of the Army considering Force Integration early in the development of a new capability?
Force Integration Functional Area (FIFA) analysis before approving a Force Design Update (FDU)
62
How does the Army publish its priorities for unit resourcing?
Integrated Requirement Priorities List (IRPL), and Dynamic Army Resource Priorities List (DARPL)
63
After TAA, capabilities developers execute the __________ to document MTOEs and TDAs.
Command Plan
64
The ___________ represents the total force that the Senior Leaders of the Army have identified for funding.
POM Force
65
Within Total Army Analysis (TAA), the Qualitative Analysis ______________.
Provides a human-in-the-loop view to apply operational experience and professional military judgment to the final Army force structure decisions
66
The Senior Leaders of the Army document TAA decisions on the total force structure in the ____________.
Army Structure Memorandum (ARSTRUC)
67
Who is responsible for National Military Strategy (NMS)
The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)
68
Who is responsible for National Security Strategy (NSS)
The President of the United States
69
Who is responsible for National Defense Strategy (NDS)
The Secretary of Defense
70
Who is responsible for The Army Plan (TAP)
The Chief of Staff of the Army (CSA)
71
Which line of authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?
ADCON
72
By law, Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) is limited in size. What organization(s) does it use to accomplish its Title 10 missions?
Army Commands (ACOMs), Army Service Component Commands (ASCCs), Direct Reporting Units (DRUs), and Field Operating Agencies (FOAs)
73
Which is a factor that guided the Army's organizational evolution after Vietnam?
A clearly defined threat: the Soviet Union
74
JCIDS can be considered part of ________.
Planning
75
If a program is unable to spend appropriated funds, the Army can shift the funds to another program through ____________, but only if it is less than the allowable threshold.
Reprogramming
76
Identifying DOTMLPF-P solutions is part of ________.
Planning
77
The conclusion of TAA marks the transition from ________.
Planning to Programming
78
The Army Budget Office (ABO) monitors expenditures during ________.
Execution
79
Replacing HMMWVs with JLTVs on TOEs requires a __________________ to update the TOE.
a Basis of Issue Plan (BOIP)
80
What analytical framework does HQDA use to assess an FDU prior to approval?
Force Integration Functional Area (FIFA) analysis
81
A primary decision-making forum for resourcing the future Army's structure
Total Army Analysis
82
The future Army structure that the Army intends to resource
POM Force
83
A list of decisions made for resourcing the future Army's structure
Army Structure Memorandum (ARSTRUC)
84
A unit's organizational design that the Army has agreed to resource
Modified Table of Organization and Equipment (MTOE)
85
Institutional knowledge of past decisions and familiarity with force management processes related to the Center of Excellence
Civilian
86
Recent operational experience in the warfighting function under consideration
Basic branch officer
87
Recent operational experience in a range of force management processes across the Army
Force management officer
88
________ is the process through which the Army develop and approves new (or modified) organizational designs.
The Force Design Update (FDU)
89
A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) is ______________________.
a requirements document
90
Across DOTMLPF-P, the services consider materiel solutions last because ______________.
They are generally the most expensive and take the longest to develop
91
Which three methods does the Defense Acquisition System (DAS) use for materiel development based on immediacy of need?
Urgent, Emergent, and Deliberate
92
The Army processes urgent acquisition requirements through Operational Needs Statements (ONSs). The Joint community uses ___________.
Joint Urgent Operational Needs (JUONs) and Joint Emergent Operational Neeeds (JEONs)
93
Acquisition programs are managed by ______________.
Program Executive Offices, Program Managers, Product Managers, and Project Managers
94
The two most important organizations in Army acquisition are ____________.
The Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Army for Acquisition, Logistics, and Technology (ASA(ALT)) and Army Futures Command (AFC)
95
What is an example of the Army considering Force Integration early in the development of a new capability?
Force Integration Functional Area (FIFA) analysis before approving a Force Design Update (FDU)
96
Differentiate the roles of G-3/5/7 and G-1 in manning an organization.
G-3/5/7 identifies how many spaces (authorizations) an organization has; G-1 provides the faces (personnel) to fill the spaces
97
Where can you find Army guidance on the percentage of personnel a Compo 1 unit should receive?
Active Component Manning Guidance
98
Who establishes priorities for Army force integration efforts?
G-3/5/7
99
FORSCOM (the Army’s force provider) follows ________, the model used to generate readiness to meet global demand.
Regionally Aligned Readiness and Modernization Model (ReARMM)
100
JCIDS considers all domains of DOTMLPF-P, but ultimately classifies solutions into two categories:
Materiel and non-materiel
101
A _______________ describes how the joint community wants to operate in future conflicts.
Joint Concept
102
What is the current Army Operating Concept?
Multi-Domain Operations 2028
103
The ___________ manages the Joint Requirements Oversight Council (JROC) and the ____________ manages the Army Requirements Oversight Council (AROC).
Joint Staff J-8; HQDA G-8
104
Which organization is responsible for guiding Army modernization and capability development?
Army Futures Command (AFC)
105
One of the enduring legacies of Helmuth von Moltke the Elder is
A professional staff
106
What type of operations are conducted in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to achieve military, diplomatic, informational, and/or economic objectives employing military capabilities for which there is no broad conventional force requirement?
Special Operations
107
According to the JP 4-0, “Using the _____ as a frame, the joint forces commander’s logistics staff elements develop and codify an overarching approach to theater operations in the ______.”
Theater Logistics Analysis (TLA)… Theater Logistics Overview (TLO)
108
Which of the following documents is produced by the Secretary of Defense?
National Defense Strategy
109
Which security operation should only be undertaken by a brigade level or higher formation?
Cover
110
What statement best describes organizational-level leaders?
Organizational-level leaders must develop and improve organizations while accomplishing the mission.
111
Strategies link ends, ways, and means to achieve the desired end state. In this construct, the term "ways" is defined as:
A sequence of actions that is likely to achieve stated objectives
112
A ____________________ is the point at which a force no longer has the capability to continue its form of operations, whether offense or defense.
Culminating Point
113
What are the criteria used to test the validity of each COA?
Suitable, Feasible, Acceptable, Distinguishable, and Complete
114
Identify the correct characteristics regarding cyberspace as a domain.
Cyberspace is man-made and part of every unit's operating environment
115
Which line of authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?
Administrative Control (ADCON)
116
As a unit transitions from an offensive to defensive focus, what, doctrinally, should its commander do?
Maintain contact and surveillance of enemy forces
117
Which statement below best reflects the "paradoxical" trinity discussed by Clausewitz in Book 1 of "On War"?
Probability, passion, and policy
118
A Military Revolution is
Uncontrollable, Unpredictable, and Unforeseeable.
119
Simultaneity, depth, phasing, and tempo are all considered during?
Arranging Operations
120
What is the purpose of operational art and operational design?
Provides a bridge between strategy formulation and tactical art, linking national strategic aims to tactical combat and noncombat operations.
121
What are the primary abilities essential to the accomplishment of the objective?
Critical Capabilities
122
What is the principle US Government organization that works with other nations on democratic reforms, economic development, and disaster assistance and recovery?
United States Agency for International Development (USAID).
123
According to Kotter’s 8-Stage Change Model, the first stage in creating successful change is:
Establishing a sense of urgency (to overcome complacency)
124
Which of the following staff products supports theater campaign plans (TCPs) by detailing support of strategic lift, infrastructure, distribution enablers, agreements, polices, processes and information systems?
Theater Distribution Plans
125
Which maritime zone extends up to 12 nautical miles from a country's baseline?
Territorial Sea
126
__________ includes the authority to task-organize subordinate forces, assign missions and functions, and geographic responsibilities to forces.
Operational Control (OPCON)
127
What is the source of power that provides moral or physical strength, freedom of action, or will to act?
Center of Gravity
128
The document that establishes the President’s guidance to combatant commanders on broad missions and responsibilities, physical boundaries, and specific combatant commander responsibilities.
The Unified Command Plan
129
The M1A1 Abrams Tank is an example of a successful materiel acquisition for the Army. For materiel acquisitions, which phase of the Defense Acquisition System (DAS) is often the longest and most costly?
Operations and Support phase
130
A sanctioning body establishes a/an ______________ to prohibit specified activities in a specific geographic area.
Exclusion Zone
131
Which joint function uses available weapons and other systems to create a specific effect on a target?
Fires
132
Respect, Rapport, Knowledge of Partners, Patience, Mission Focus, Trust and Confidence are tenets of:
Multinational operations.
133
According to the principles of joint operations, the purpose of ________________is to prevent the excessive use of force.
Restraint
134
When making decisions on how to achieve an effect on a target, planners consider such factors as lethal versus non-lethal, or the amount of force to use against the perceived military value of the target. Within just conduct in war (jus in bello) this principle is known as:
Proportionality
135
__________ attempts to synchronize, coordinate and align military operations with the activities of other governmental and nongovernmental entities to achieve unity of effort
Unified Action
136
The ________ should be established In a parallel command structure where coordination, deconfliction, etc. occurs between coalition partners.
Coalition Coordination Center (CCC)
137
The principle US Government organization that works with countries on democratic reforms, economic development and disaster assistance and recovery is?
United States Agency for International Development (USAID)
138
______ includes the authority for planning, programming, budgeting, and execution process input, and directive authority for logistics
Please review JP 1 Vol 2 Chapter IV, JP 3-0 Chapter III
139
_____________ is a menu of tasks in a common language, which serves as the foundation for joint operations planning across the range of military and interagency operations.
The Universal Joint Task List (UJTL)
140
Which joint function prioritizes and allocates resources, coordinates and controls the employment of joint lethal and nonlethal capabilities, and prepares plans and orders that include establishing appropriate command authorities among subordinate commands and the assigning of tasks and operational areas?
Command and Control
141
Which joint function is responsible for coordinating Operational Contract Support (OCS)?
Please review C302 and JP 3, page III-49
142
Which organization within the United Nations is responsible for maintaining international peace and security?
The Security Council
143
Which Command Relationship is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish assigned missions or tasks?
Tactical Control (TACON).
144
Which military service is considered expeditionary across all domains?
US Marine Corps
145
Which military operation, or activity, is conducted to contain armed conflict, force a change in antagonistic behavior, create an environment of reconciliation and rebuilding, and facilitate the transition from fragile to effective governance.
Peacekeeping Operations
146
National interests, the manner and extent of participation, limitations and constraints on the employment of forces are diplomatic and military considerations for the planning and execution of:
Multinational operations.
147
Which military operation or activity employs coercive measures to control the movement of designated items into or out of a nation or specified area?
Enforcement of sanctions or Sanction Enforcement
148
Joint functions are related capabilities and activities grouped together to help Joint Force Commander to:
Integrate, synchronize, and direct joint operations.
149
_________ are conducted by the Department of Defense, at the direction of the Department of State, to assist US citizens to leave a foreign nation when the security situation becomes dangerous.
Noncombatant evacuation operation
150
According to the principles of joint operations, the purpose of ________________is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time.
Mass
151
__________ includes the authority to organize commands and forces and to employ those forces as the commander considers necessary to accomplish assigned missions.
Operational control (OPCON).
152
Achieving shared understanding, informed decision making and unity of effort among various agencies of the US Government at the combatant command level is done through a:
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG) or similar enterprise
153
___________ is a range of DOD activities conducted outside the US and its territories to relieve or reduce human suffering, disease, hunger, or privation.
Foreign Humanitarian Assistance (FHA)
154
A multinational operation made up of a group of nations that have agreed to work together on an ad hoc basis for a narrow set of common interests is a/an _______.
Coalition operation.
155
According to the principles of joint operations, the purpose of ________________is to direct military action toward a clearly defined and achievable goal.
Objective
156
A multinational partnership based upon a formal agreement and broad, long term objectives and common interests is ___________.
Alliance.
157
Just conduct in war (jus in bello) requires distinguishing between combatants and non-combatants. This is particularly important in the fires function when selecting targets. This principle is known as:
Discrimination
158
Which joint function encompasses tasks including providing air, space, and missile defense; providing emergency management and response capabilities; and conducting OPSEC, cyberspace defense, and cybersecurity?
Protection
159
What is the integrated structure in a foreign country comprising all US agencies, not under the command of a US combatant commander?
The US Diplomatic Mission/Embassy
160
The Defense Acquisition System has ______ phases and _______ milestone decisions.
Five and Three
161
The _________ is the entry point into the acquisition process for all defense acquisition products.
Materiel Development Decision
162
The purpose of the ________________ phase is to reduce technology, engineering, integration, and life-cycle cost risk to the point that a decision to contract for Engineering & Manufacturing Development can be made with confidence in successful program execution for development, production, and sustainment.
Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction
163
The objective of the ___________ phase is the execution of a support program that meets materiel readiness and operational support performance requirements and sustains the system in the most cost-effective manner over its total life-cycle.
Operations and Support
164
The __________ is the balance of risk between cost, schedule and performance agreed to between the Program Manager (PM), the Program Executive Office (PEO), and the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA).
Acquisition Program Baseline (APB)
165
The _______________ is responsible for programmatics (materiel acquisition cost, schedule, and total system performance) and for the PPBE necessary to guide assigned programs through each Defense Acquisition System Milestone.
Program Executive Officer
166
The Capability Development Document and the Capability Production Document contain a required number of _____________ that capture the minimum operational effectiveness and suitability attributes (testable or measurable characteristics) needed to achieve the overall desired capabilities for the system during the applicable increment.
Key Performance Parameters
167
The _____ designation determines the level of review, and who will make the milestone decisions.
ACAT
168
The ____ validates all Army documents for JCIDS prior to submission to the Joint Staff, J-8 Deputy Director for Requirements for review and approval of joint requirements and ASA(AL&T) for materiel development.
AROC
169
The Joint Staff __________ is the gatekeeper of the JCIDS process at the joint level.
J8 Deputy Director, Requirements
170
The Army’s Force Management Model depicts which three DOD systems and two Army processes?
JCIDS, DAS, PPBE, and the force development process and force integration process
171
As the Army’s organizational design process, this five-phased process determines gaps, proposes new or modified organizational designs, and produces the Army’s force structure.
Force development process
172
JCIDS is most closely associated with which force development phase?
Develop capabilities
173
The FDU is initiated in which phase of the force development process?
Design organizations
174
HQDA conducts The FIFA analysis at the beginning of which phase of the force development process?
Develop organizational models
175
Generally developed by branch proponents, what package formally recommends a new or modified organizational structure?
Force design update (FDU)
176
The _____ and BOIP are finalized in the develop organizational models phase of the force development process.
TOE
177
The _______ lists the planned placement of quantities of equipment and associated support items as well as the reciprocal displacement of equipment and personnel.
BOIP
178
Part of the FDU, what document contains four critical elements: (1) unit mission/capabilities, (2) organizational structure/hierarchy, (3) key personnel, and (4) key equipment.
The unit reference sheet (URS)
179
In order to determine if the impacts of a proposed change are suitable, feasible, and acceptable to the Total Army, HQDA does what kind of analysis?
FIFA
180
A TOE prescribes the doctrinal wartime mission, the organizational structure, and the personnel and equipment __________ for a military unit.
Requirements
181
In order to create a mix of institutional knowledge, process understanding, and operational experience, capability development and integration directorates are staffed with a mix of:
DA civilians, functional area officers, and base branch Soldiers
182
What is the name of the requirements document that depicts a doctrinally correct organizational design and becomes a building block with which to build Army authorizations?
TOE
183
HQDA (does / does not) command Army units in combat
does not
184
ASCCs are heavily engaged in Title 10 management of units working for a combatant command
TRUE
185
ASCCs can further delegate ADCON to the senior Army HQ operating in a particular area
TRUE
186
ADCON is a command relationship
FALSE
187
the process the Army uses to manage change while balancing needs (today and in the future) with resource constraints
Force Management
188
Force management uses many processes, including three critical Department of Defense (DOD) decision support systems. They are:
JCIDS / PPBE / DAS
189
Title 10, Section 7013 lists 12 functions that the Secretary of the Army (SECARMY) must perform. List four of them:
Recruiting, Organizing, Supplying, Training, Servicing, Mobilizing, Demobilizing, Maintaining, Equipping (including research and development), Administering (including the morale and welfare of personnel), the construction, outfitting, and repair of military equipment, the construction, maintenance, and repair of buildings, structures, and utilities and the acquisition of real property
190
Although the President is the Commander-in-Chief, Congress also has authorities in relation to the Army. One power Congress has over DOD is
organization, funding and oversight
191
The Army retains _______ over Army units assigned or allocated to a combatant commander. This is the relationship that allows it to meet its Title 10 responsibilities
ADCON
192
__________________ is the 5-part Army document that refines national strategy and combatant command requirements into an executable plan.
The Army Plan (TAP)
193
HQDA has four types of organizations that help them to meet their Title 10 functions. They are
ACOM / ASCC / DRU / FOA
194
The five parts of The Army Plan (TAP) are
a.Army Visionb.Army Strategyc.Army Planning Guidance (APG)d.Army Programing Guidance Memo (APGM)e.Army Campaign Plan (ACP)
195
The three categories of joint concepts are: ______________________________________, _________________________________ and _____________________________________.
Capstone Concept for Joint Operations (CCJO) / Joint Operating Concepts (JOC) / Supporting Concepts
196
What is JCIDS
A capabilities-based approach to identify current and future capability gaps
197
Collectively, the __________________________ defines the ___________________ of how it will operate in the future and provides the __________________________ needed to determine the capabilities required across the Army to ensure future force effectiveness
Army Concept Framework / Army’s Vision / Conceptual Framework
198
(Identify required capabilities and task) Describes how the force will operate, the timeframe and environment in which it must operate, its required capabilities (in terms of missions and effects), and its defining physical and operational characteristics. Its output is a description of the mission and the military problem being assessed as well as a list of required capabilities and associated tasks to meet the mission objectives
Needs Analysis / FAA
199
The second phase of the CBA (identify the gaps). It assesses the capabilities of the current and programmed force to meet the military objectives from chosen scenarios. Problems and risk.
Gap Analysis / FNA
200
The last phase in the CBA (capture solutions using DOTMLPF-P as a lens). An operationally-based assessment of all potential DOTMLPF-P approaches to solving or mitigating one or more capability needs or gaps.
Solution Analysis / FSA
201
The DOTMLPF-P domain used to analyze a unit structure is
Organization
202
What are the three primary DOD decision support systems?
JCIDS / PPBE / DAS
203
The Army documents its fundamental ideas about future joint operations in the
Army Concept Framework (AFC)
204
The current Army Operating Concept is
TP 525-3-1 The U.S. Army in Multi-Domain Operations (MDO 2028)
205
Capabilities are investigated and analyzed for solutions within the “domains” of
DOTMLPF-P
206
JCIDS accounts for ___ different requirement lanes to process capability gaps. The lanes are
3 / Urgent / Emergent / Deliberate
207
Results of the JCIDS process are identified as primarily _____________________ or ____________________ solutions which are documented respectively as a ________________or ___________________
non-materiel or materiel // DCR or ICD/CDD
208
Manages the AROC and captures the staffing for the JCIDS documents
HQDA G-8
209
Assesses, validates, and prioritizes DOTMLPF-P solutions.
AROC
210
Grouping of capability developers used for capabilities development and documentation efforts that are temporary in nature.
Integrated Capability Devlopment Team (ICDT)
211
Eight teams built around the 6 Army priorities for modernization, designed to develop focused capability requirements development and documentation efforts for the Army.
Cross-Functional Teams (CFTs)
212
The Defense Acquisition System has ____ phases and ____ milestone decisions
5 and 3
213
The __ _________ is the entry point into the acquisition process for all defense acquisition products
Materiel Development Decision
214
The purpose of the _____ _____ phase is to reduce technology, engineering, integration, and life-cycle cost risk to the point that a decision to contract for Engineering & Manufacturing Development can be made with confidence in successful program execution for development, production, and sustainment.
Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction
215
The objective of the ____ _______ phase is the execution of a support program that meets materiel readiness and operational support performance requirements and sustains the system in the most cost-effective manner over its total life-cycle.
Operations and Sustainment
216
The ______ __________ is the balance of risk between cost, schedule and performance agreed to between the Program Manager (PM), the Program Executive Office (PEO), and the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA).
Acquisition Program Baseline (APB)
217
The _______ _______ is responsible for programmatics (materiel acquisition cost, schedule, and total system performance) and for the PPBE necessary to guide assigned programs through each Defense Acquisition System Milestone.
Program Executive Officer
218
The Capability Development Document and the Capability Production Document contain a required number of _______ ____ ____ that capture the minimum operational effectiveness and suitability attributes (testable or measurable characteristics) needed to achieve the overall desired capabilities for the system during the applicable increment.
Key Performance Parameters
219
The _____ __ designation determines the level of review, and who will make the milestone decisions.
ACAT
220
The ____ ___ validates all Army documents for JCIDS prior to submission to the Joint Staff, J-8 Deputy Director for Requirements for review and approval of joint requirements and ASA(AL&T) for materiel development.
AROC
221
The Joint Staff ______ ____ __ is the gatekeeper of the JCIDS process at the joint level.
J8 Deputy Director, Requirements
222
Total Army Analysis (TAA) first determines the total Army requirements and then the force to be resourced based on priorities, budgetary constraints, and guidance. The resulting force structure is known as the:
Program Objective Memorandum (POM) Force
223
You know you require a better understanding of specifically what cyber capabilities, to Standard Requirements Code (SRC) level of detail, the Army plans for both the operating and generating forces across the uniformed components in the next two to five years. Your best source for finding this information is the:
Army Structure Memorandum (ARSTRUC)
224
After senior Army leadership approves the resourced force structure during TAA, the ____________ manages the process of documenting the decision(s).
USAFMSA
225
USAFMSA develops authorization documents through the Force Management System (FMS). This process results in the generation of organizational authorizations documented as ___________ or ________.
MTOEs / TDAs
226
An objective of TAA is to provide the Army with the proper mix of organizations, resulting in a(n)_________ and __________ force structure to meet future requirements.
balanced / affordable
227
Another objective of TAA is to:
Provide the analytical underpinnings for the POM force
228
The ________ is the post-TAA process that develops the personnel, and equipment requirements and authorizations at MOS/grade and LIN level of detail for the Master Force.
Command Plan
229
The baseline for the command plan submission is the latest HQDA Master Force lock point and the latest HQDA approved _____________.
ARSTRUC
230
____________ is the force structure database of record and accounting system for all current and planned MTOE and TDA units in the total Army.
SAMAS
231
The Army documents the programmed and budgeted force to _______level of detail to ensure that organizations may place demands on the Army’s functional systems.
UIC
232
___________________ is the Army lead organization to synchronize force integration efforts.
HQDA DCS, G-3/5/7
233
Operational guidance prioritizing specific Army missions
IRPL
234
Tactical guidance assigning UICs to specific IRPL missions
DARPL
235
Prioritizes and aligns Active Component manning with synchronized Army Priorities.
ACMG
236
Manpower management is a _____ function and deals with “__________.
G3 / Spaces
237
Personnel management is a ____ function and deals with “___________.”
G1 / Faces
238
The Army Active Component total strength is composed of ____________________ and _____________.
Operating Strength / TTHS
239
The Army __________________________________ establishes levels of fill based on unit missions and provides a mitigation strategy for personnel shortages to the Army community.
Active Component Manning Guidance
240
There are ______ manning cycles a year.
two
241
The _______________ validates, prioritizes and resources urgent requirements (ONS) to provide timely Army support to the force.
AROC
242
This individual is responsible for oversight of the Army PPBE process
Assistant Secretary of the Army, Financial Management & Comptroller (ASA(FM&C))
243
Colors of money, or how resources are allocated across programs
Appropriations
244
The month during which the President’s Budget is usually submitted to Congress
February
245
The abbreviated name for the five-year PPBE submission from the Army to DOD
POM/BES
246
The first year of the five-year program is known as the ______________ year
budget
247
These are sub-elements of programs, and are used by the Army to allocate resources
Army Program Elements (APE)
248
Tenets of ULO
SimultaneityDepthSynchronizationFlexibility
249
Principels of ULO
Mission Command, Develop the situation through action, Combined arms, Adhearance to LoW, Establish and manintain security, Create multiple dilemmas for the enemy
250
Operational Variables
PMESII-PT - Political, Military, Economic, Social, Inforamtion, Infrastructuer, Physical envrionment, Time
251
Mission Variables
METT-TC - Mission, Enemy, Terrain, Troops, Time, Civil considerastions
252
Army operations to consolidate gains are
activities to make enduring any temporary operational success and to set the conditions for a sustainable security environment, allowing for a transition of control to other legitimate authorities
253
Operational initiative is
the setting of tempo and terms of action throughout an operation
254
Principles of Joint Operations
SUPERMOM LOSS - Security, Unity of command, Perserverance, Economy of force, Restraint, Mass, Objective, Maneuver, Legitimacy, Oddensive, Surprise, Simplicity
255
A center of gravity is
the source of power that provides moral or physical strength, freedom of action, or will to act (JP 5-0).
256
A decisive point is
a geographic place, specific key event, critical factor, or function that, when acted upon, allows commanders to gain a marked advantage over an enemy or contribute materially to achieving success (JP 5-0)
257
A line of operations is
a line that defines the directional orientation of a force in time and space in relation to the enemy and links the force with its base of operations and objectives
258
line of effort is
a line that links multiple tasks using the logic of purpose rather than geographical reference to focus efforts toward establishing a desired end state
259
Operational art is
the cognitive approach by commanders and staffs—supported by their skill, knowledge, experience, reativity, and judgment—to develop strategies, campaigns, and operations to organize and employ military forces by integrating ends, ways, and means (JP 3-0).
260
Unified land operations is
the simultaneous execution of offense, defense, stability, and defense support of civil authorities across multiple domains to shape operational environments, prevent conflict, prevail in large-scale ground combat, and consolidate gains as part of unified action.
261
Decisive action is
the continuous, simultaneous execution of offensive defensive, and stability operations or defense support of civil authority tasks
262
Organizing your staff into Plan cells, Future Operations cells, and Current Operations Integration cells is using what kind of organization?
Integrating cells.
263
The G-3 (S-3) is the chief of which warfighting function?
Movement and Maneuver.
264
What definition best describes Army command relationships?
Superior and subordinate relationships between unit commanders that identify the degree of control of the gaining commander, and the degree of administration and suport that the gaining and losing commanders provide.
265
The Armored Brigade Combat Team (ABCT) is organized around what type of forces?
Mechanized infantry and armored companies.
266
What definition best describes the “general support” support relationship?
A relationship in which support is given to the supported force as a whole and not to any subdivision of it.
267
Which if the following best describes the Infantry Brigade Combat Team (IBCT)?
Combined arms formation organized around dismounted infantry, and optimized for dismounted operations in complex terrain.
268
Which component of the operational framework helps commanders and staffs define where they accomplish their missions, how they may influence a geographical area, and what is of concern to the commander?
Area of Operations
269
q273Which of the following is not a role of doctrine?
Serve as strategy for the US
270
_______________ – the Army's approach to command and control that empowers subordinate decision making and decentralized execution appropriate to the situation.
Mission command
271
Army planners use _______________ to describe military and nonmilitary characteristics of an operational environmental which may differ from one operational area to another and affect operations.
Operational variables
272
Which operational framework articulates the operation in terms of purpose?
Decisive, shaping, and sustaining operations
273
_______________ – a composite of the conditions, circumstances, and influences that affect the employment of capabilities and bear on the decisions of the commander.
Operational environment
274
_______________ – the continuous, simultaneous execution of offensive, defensive, and stability operations or defense support of civil authority tasks.
Decisive action
275
The four major activities of the operations process are:
Planning, preparing, executing, and assessing
276
_______________ – fundamental principles, with supporting TTPs, and terms and symbols, used for the conduct of operations and as a guide for actions of operating forces, and elements of the institutional force that directly support operations in support of national objectives.
Army doctrine
277
“The relative speed and rhythm of military operations over time in relation to the enemy” best defines what element of operational art?
Tempo
278
What is a hostile party against which the use of force is authorized?
Enemy
279
What best describes depth (tenet of unified land operations)?
Extension of operations in time, space, or purpose to achieve definitive results.
280
The US Army supports homeland security through which element(s) of decisive action?
Defense support of civil authorities
281
What type of military actions occur at the tactical level of warfare?
Engagements and battles
282
_______________ – the employment, ordered arrangement, and directed actions of forces in relation to each other.
Tactics
283
Which of the following statements best describes the science of tactics?
Aspects of tactics that can be measured and codified.
284
What type of task is always included in the mission statement?
Essential
285
An attack differs from a movement to contact ___________________.
In that during attacks, the commander knows more about the enemy’s disposition.
286
_______________ – form of maneuver in which an attacking force uses stealth to move undetected through or into an enemy-occupied area to occupy an advantageous position behind those enemy positions while minimizing exposure to enemy defensive fire to only small elements.
Infiltration
287
What are the main purposes for conducting offensive operations?
Defeat and destroy enemy forces as well as gain control of terrain, resources, and population centers.
288
What differentiates a spoiling attack from a counterattack?
A spoiling attack seriously impairs a hostile attack while the enemy is still forming or assembling for an attack.
289
Why might a commander employ the frontal assault?
No assailable enemy flanks
290
_______________ is massing effects of combat power in both time and space at the decisive point to achieve a single purpose.
Concentration
291
Which of the following is a shared characteristic of a demonstration and a feint?
Attempt to deceive the enemy
292
What is a variation of the retrograde?
Retirement
293
The simultaneous application of combat power throughout an area of operations describes which characteristic of the defense?
Operations in Depth
294
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the reverse slope defense?
The enemy has the advantage of attacking downhill
295
_______________ is employing actions that impede an enemy force’s ability to synchronize its combined arms. (Choose the term that best applies)
Disruption
296
This type of defense employs a striking force and is typically executed by divisions and larger echelons.
Mobile defense
297
_______________ – planned retrograde operation in which a friendly force in contact disengages from the enemy and moves in a direction away from the enemy that does not require friendly forces trading space for time.
Withdrawal
298
What is the most significant difference between security and reconnaissance operations?
Security focuses on the protected force or facility, reconnaissance focuses on the enemy and terrain.
299
As we increase through Screen, Guard, and Cover in security operations, what risk do we assume with greater levels of combat power employed towards security?
We leave insufficient combat power in the main body to accomplish our mission.
300
Which of the following best describes security operations?
Protect a force from surprise and reduce the unknowns in any situation.
301
Doctrinally, why do Commanders conduct enabling operations?
To transition between phases or elements of decisive action, or compliment current operations.
302
What forces are capable of conducting reconnaissance and security operations?
All forces are capable with proper guidance and augmentation.
303
Which of the following best describes reconnaissance operations?
Obtain information about enemy activity and resources or geographic characteristics of an area.
304
_______________ – protects the main body by fighting to gain time while preventing enemy ground observation and direct fire against the main body; can operate independently; requires the most resources.
Cover
305
What does doctrine call a deliberate combat operation aimed at discovering or testing the enemy’s dispositions, strength, and reactions or to obtain other information?
Reconnaissance in force
306
The most time- and resource-intensive type of reconnaissance is the _______________?
Zone reconnaissance
307
Of the line companies in a Brigade Support Battalion, which unit is attached to each Battalion in the Brigade?
FSCs
308
Which sustainment units are considered Operational level units?
TSC and ESC
309
Regarding echelon support within the BCT, which type of trains best describes a movement from a combined arms battalion’s supporting FSC to the maneuver company area of operations?
Combat trains
310
The US Army has how many classes of supply?
10
311
Doctrinally, which integrating cell will develop a branch plan if the commander directs the staff to address a potential enemy counterattack during the current operation?
Future operations cell
312
Why do commanders use defeat mechanisms?
Devlop an Operational Approach
313
What does the application of combined arms allow commanders to do?
Create an effect greater than using elements separately or sequentially
314
What are the strategic roles of the US Army?
Shape environments, prevent conflict, prevail in LSCO, and consolidate gains
315
Which of the following is a tenet of unified land operations (ULO)?
Depth
316
Command Forces, Control Operations, and Drive the Operations Process are tasks associated with?
The command and control warfighting function
317
What is a location or the establishment of a favorable condition within the area of operations that provides the commander with temporary freedom of action to enhance combat power over an enemy or influence the enemy to accept risk and move to a position of disadvantage?
A position of relative advantage
318
What term means sustained combat operations involving multiple corps and divisions?
Large-scale ground combat operations
319
What is the simultaneous execution of offense, defense, stability, and defense support of civil authorities across multiple domains to shape operational environments, prevent conflict, prevail in large-scale ground combat, and consolidate gains as part of unified action?
Unified land operations
320
When commanders have tactical control (TACON) over forces, they have the authority to do which of the following?
Give detailed direction to accomplish missions with the area of operations
321
What components of the operational framework describe the operation in terms of resources and priorities of support?
Main effort and supporting effort
322
Which of the following is one of the major command and control activities performed during operations?
Preparing
323
Which of the following terms are tactical mission tasks? (select all that apply)
Attack by fire / Block
324
Which of the following is a principle of mission command?
Shared understanding
325
ULO focused on ______________ with the current force and capabilities
large scale combat operations
326
Mission Command is the Army’s approach to
command and control
327
information filtered from operational variables during mission analysis to refine situational understanding
METT-TC
328
aspects of an operational environment, both military and nonmilitary, including the population’s influence, that may differ from one operational area to another and affect operations.
PMESII-PT
329
Types of Offensive Operations
• Movement to contact. • Attack. • Exploitation. • Pursuit.
330
Types of Defensive Operations
• Mobile defense. • Area defense. • Retrograde operations.
331
Stability Operations Tasks
Establish civil security. • Establish civil control. • Restore essential services. • Support to governance. • Support to economic and infrastructure development. • Conduct security cooperation.
332
DSCA Tasks
Provide support for domestic disasters. • Provide support for domestic CBRN incidents. • Provide support for domestic civilian law enforcement agencies. • Provide other designated support.
333
Execution of related and mutually supporting tasks at the same time across multiple locations and domains
Simultaneity (Tenets)
334
The extension of operations in space, time, or purpose to achieve definitive results
Depth (Tenets)
335
The arrangement of military actions in time, space, and purpose to produce maximum relative combat power at a decisive place and time.
Synchronization (Tenets)
336
The employment of a versatile mix of capabilities, formations, and equipment for conducting operations.
Flexibility (Tenets)
337
An approach to command and control
Mission Command
338
Mission Command (Principles)
➢Competence ➢Trust ➢Shared understanding ➢Commander’s intent ➢Mission orders ➢Disciplined Initiative ➢Risk acceptance
339
Commanders fight for information while in contact with the enemy and gain information through close association with the population
Develop the Situation Through Action (Principles)
340
The synchronized and simultaneous application of all elements of combat power that together achieve an effect greater than if each element was used separately or sequentially.
Combined Arms (Principles)
341
Protect combatants, noncombatants, and civilians from unnecessary suffering.
Adherence to Law of War (Principles)
342
Ensure freedom of movement and action. • Deny the enemy the ability to disrupt operations. • Commanders protect populations, friendly forces, installations. • US Army forces integrate with partner military, law enforcement, and civil capabilities.
Establish and Maintain Security (Principles)
343
What are the 5 ways to Create Multiple Dilemmas for the Enemy (Principles)
• Simultaneous operations across multiple domains. • Military deception. • Degrade enemy freedom of action. • Reduce enemy flexibility and endurance. • Upset enemy plans and coordination.
344
The pursuit of strategic objectives, in whole or in part, through the arrangement of tactical actions in time, space, and purpose.
US Army Operational Art
345
supports operational art with a general methodology using elements of operational design for understanding the situation and the problem.
Operational design
346
Operational design
defeat mechanisms and stability mechanisms
347
The source of power that provides moral or physical strength, freedom of action, and will to act
Center of Gravity (COG) (Elements of Operational Art)
348
A geographic place, specific key event, critical factor, or function that, when acted upon, allows commanders to gain a marked advantage over an adversary or contributes materially to achieving success
Decisive Points (DPs) (Elements of Operational Art)
349
define the directional orientation of a force in time and space in relation to the enemy and links the force with its base of operations and objectives
Lines of operations (LOO) ((Elements of Operational Art))
350
link multiple tasks and missions using the logic of purpose rather than geographic reference to focus efforts toward establishing operational and strategic conditions
Lines of effort (LOE) ((Elements of Operational Art))
351
is the relative speed and rhythm of military operations over time with respect to the enemy
Tempo (Elements of Operational Art)
352
is a planning and execution tool used to divide an operation in duration or activity
Phasing and Transitions (Elements of Operational Art)
353
is the time or location when a force no longer has the capability to continue its form of operation, offense or defense
Culmination (Elements of Operational Art)
354
The distance and duration over which a force can successfully employ military capabilities
Operational Reach (Elements of Operational Art)
355
a function of intelligence, protection, sustainment, endurance, and relative combat power. It balances the natural tension between endurance, momentum, and protection
tether
356
the ability to employ combat power anywhere for protracted periods. It stems from the ability to create, protect, and sustain a force.
Endurance
357
seizing the initiative and executing high-tempo operations that overwhelm enemy resistance.
Momentum
358
closely relates to endurance and momentum. Commanders anticipate how enemy actions and environmental factors might disrupt operations and then determine the protection capabilities required to maintain sufficient reach.
Protection
359
s the probability and severity of loss linked to hazards (JP 5-0).
Risk (Elements of Operational Art)
360
describes the command and staff activities for developing and conducting operations.
Operations process
361
cognitive tool to assist commanders and staffs in clearly visualizing and describing the application of combat power in time, space, purpose, and resources in the concept of operations.
Operational framework
362
total means of destructive, constructive, and information capabilities that a military unit or formation can apply at a given time.
Combat power
363
describes the physical arrangement of forces in time and space
Deep, close, rear, and support areas
364
– where the commander sets conditions for future success in close combat
Deep area
365
the portion of the commander’s AO where the majority of subordinate maneuver forces conduct close combat.
Close area
366
that area in a unit’s AO extending forward from its rear boundary to the rear boundary of the area assigned to the next lower level of command.
Rear area
367
the portion of the commander’s AO that is designated to facilitate the positioning, employment, and protection of base sustainment assets required to sustain, enable, and control operations.
Support area
368
directly accomplishes the mission
Decisive operation (DO)
369
creates and preserves conditions for success of the DO through effects on the enemy, other actors, and the terrain.
Shaping operation (SO)
370
enables the DO or SO(s) by generating and maintaining combat power
Sustaining operation
371
the designated subordinate unit whose mission at a given point in time is most critical to overall mission success.
Main effort (ME)
372
designated subordinate unit with missions that support the success of the ME.
Supporting effort (SE)
373
the total means of destructive, constructive, and information capabilities that a military unit or formation can apply at a given time.
Combat power
374
Army's approach to command and control that empowers subordinate decision-making and decentralized execution appropriate to the situation
Mission command (MC)
375
the exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission.
Command and control (C2)
376
MC principles:
➢ Competence ➢ Mutual trust ➢ Shared understanding ➢ Commander's intent ➢ Mission orders ➢ Disciplined initiative ➢ Risk acceptance
377
forces assigned to and forming an essential part of a military organization; listed in its table of organization.
Organic
378
relatively permanent placement in an organization (typically years); based on the needs of the Army; formalized by orders rather than organizational documents; includes administrative control (ADCON) unless otherwise directed.
Assigned
379
relatively temporary placement in an organization (months); gaining unit is responsible for attached unit’s administration and sustainment
Attached
380
temporary placement for assigned mission (days); gaining unit can taskorganize and direct forces but is not responsible for logistics, administration, discipline, internal organization, or training.
Operational Control (OPCON)
381
temporary placement for assigned mission (days); gaining unit can direct but cannot task-organize the TACON unit; often used between other Services and multinational forces, but rarely between Army forces.
Tactical Control (TACON)
382
a relationship requiring a unit to support another unit and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported unit’s request for assistance; supporting unit retains its command relationship with its parent unit, but is positioned by and has priorities of support established by the supported unit.
Direct Support (DS)
383
support which is given to the supported unit as a whole and not to any particular subunit; positioned and have priorities established by their parent unit
General Support (GS)
384
a relationship requiring a force to support another supporting unit; only like units (for example - artillery to artillery); reinforcing unit retains command relationship with parent unit, but is positioned by and has priorities of support established by the reinforced unit, then the parent unit
Reinforcing (R)
385
relationship assigned to a unit to support the force as a whole and to reinforce another similar-type unit. Positioned by parent unit and has priorities first established by its parent unit, and then by the reinforced unit.
General Support-Reinforcing (GSR)
386
a short sentence or paragraph that describes the organization’s essential task(s) and purpose (action to be taken and reason for doing so)
Mission Statement
387
specifically assigned to a unit by its higher headquarters
Specified task
388
must be performed to accomplish a specified task or mission but is not stated in the higher HQs’ order
Implied task
389
specified or implied task that must be executed to accomplish the mission
Essential task
390
commanders drive the Operations Process through
understanding, visualizing, describing, directing, leading, and assessing (UVDDLA)
391
is an issue or obstacle that makes it difficult to achieve a desired goal or end state
A problem
392
is a set of desired conditions the commander wants to exist when the operation is concluded.
End state
393
is a description of the broad actions the force must take to transform current conditions into those desired at end state (JP 5-0).
Operational approach
394
A methodology for applying critical and creative thinking to understand, visualize, and describe problems and approaches to solving them
Army Design Methodology (ADM)
395
Iterative planning methodology (detailed) to understand the situation and mission, develop a course of action, and produce an operations plan/order.
Military Decision Making Process
396
measures actions tied to a task
Measurement of Performance
397
measures the changes in a system state
Measurement of Effectiveness
398
The continuous assessment of the current situation used to determine if the current operation is proceeding according to the commander’s intent and if planned future operations are supportable.
Running Estimates
399
Mission undertaken to – ➢ Obtain, by visual observation or other detection methods, information about the activities and resources of the enemy. ➢ Secure data concerning the meteorological, hydrographic, or geographic characteristics of a particular area
Reconnaissance
400
Operations undertaken to – ➢ Provide early and accurate warning of enemy operations. ➢ Provide the force being protected with time and maneuver space within which to react to the enemy. ➢ Develop the situation to allow the commander to effectively use the protected force.
Security
401
The main difference between security operations and reconnaissance operations is
that security operations orient on the protected force or facility, while reconnaissance is enemy and terrain oriented
402
Reconnaissance Fundamentals
• Ensure continuous reconnaissance. • Do not keep reconnaissance assets in reserve. • Orient (focus) on the reconnaissance objectives. • Report information rapidly and accurately. • Retain freedom of maneuver. • Gain and maintain enemy contact. • Develop the situation rapidly
403
Most time-consuming method. • Permits the most detailed information collection about the enemy, terrain, civil considerations, and infrastructure.
Dismounted Reconnaissance
404
Enables a more rapid tempo, but increases the potential compromise of recon efforts. • Should take advantage of standoff capabilities provided by surveillance and weapon systems to observe and engage from greater distances and or the speed associated with mounted movement.
Mounted Reconnaissance
405
Serves as a link between sensors and mounted or dismounted recon and used to cue other recon methods to specific areas to increase the overall tempo of the operation. • Complex terrain, adverse weather, enemy air defense systems, and deception/countermeasures degrade the effectiveness of aerial reconnaissance.
Aerial Reconnaissance
406
Recon elements place direct or indirect fire on positions where there is a reasonable suspicion of enemy occupation to cause the enemy to react by moving or returning fire and disclose their disposition or willingness to fight. • Used when enemy contact is expected and time is limited, or when the unit cannot maneuver to develop the situation.
Reconnaissance by Fire
407
using two or more different assets to collect against the same intelligence requirement.
Mixing
408
using two or more like assets to collect against the same intel requirement.
Redundancy
409
the integration of one or more types of recon or surveillance systems to provide information that directs follow-on collecting of more detailed information by another system.
Cueing
410
directed effort to obtain detailed information of a specified route and all terrain from which the enemy could influence movement along that route.
Route
411
a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a zone defined by boundaries.
Zone
412
focuses on obtaining detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity a prescribed area.
Area
413
a deliberate combat operation designed to discover or test the enemy’s strength, dispositions, and reactions or to obtain other information.
Reconnaissance in force
414
conducted as a special operation in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces.
Special reconnaissance
415
primarily provides early warning to the protected force.
Screen
416
protects the main body by fighting to gain time while preventing enemy ground observation of and direct fire against the main body. Units conducting a guard cannot operate independently because they rely upon fires and other support assets of the main body.
Guard
417
protects the main body by fighting to gain time while preventing enemy ground observation of and direct fire against the main body. Units conducting a cover operate independently of the main body
Cover
418
conducted to protect friendly forces, lines of communication, and activities within a specific area.
Area security
419
How does the commander drive the operations process?
Thru his/her activities of understanding, visualizing, describing, directing, leading, and assessing
420
At the division level, what integration cell is most likely responsible for conducting RDSP and issuing FRAGORDs based upon a change in the plan?
Current operations cell
421
What best describes the integrated efforts of the commander’s broad approach and the staff’s scientific approach to produce a plan?
Conceptual planning and detailed planning
422
What type of decisions are based upon anticipated conditions (CCIRs) and captured on the unit’s decision support matrix to aid the commander?
Execution decisions
423
Each staff section is responsible for assisting the commander with understanding the situation, assessing progress, and making decisions. This is a continuous process. What tool best supports the staff in this responsibility?
Running estimates
424
What best describes the content of a doctrinally correct end state?
Desired condition of friendly forces with relationship to the enemy, terrain, and civilian populace
425
What is the main difference between security and reconnaissance operations?
Reconnaissance operations are enemy and terrain oriented, whereas security operations orient on the protected force or facility
426
UAS platforms have limited effectiveness in locating which of the following?
Enemy forces that are well covered or concealed
427
What is the deliberate process of transferring information and responsibility from one element to another to facilitate observing a specific target, enemy, or NAI/TAI?
Reconnaissance handover
428
If the commander as part of planning considerations wants to destroy, defeat or repel all enemy reconnaissance, which tactical mission task would you assign a formation?
Counterreconnaissance
429
What type of reconnaissance management should the commander employ to improve the chances the reconnaissance element collects the required information?
Redundancy
430
Which of the following is a cavalry squadron constraint?
Limited sustainment assets that regularly operate over protracted distances
431
The ____________ is the related tasks and systems that provide ______ and ________ to ensure ___________, extend ______ and prolong endurance
Sustainment Warfighting Function / support / services / freedom of action / operational reach
432
______ is planning and executing the movement and support of forces. It includes those aspects of military operations that deal with: design and development; acquisition, storage, movement, distribution, maintenance, and disposition of materiel; acquisition or construction, maintenance, operation, and disposition of facilities; and acquisition or furnishing of services
Logistics
433
____________ leverages fiscal policy and economic power across the range of military operations. Financial management encompasses finance operations and resource management. For additional details, see FM 1-06
Financial management
434
________ are sustainment functions that man the force, maintain Soldier and Family readiness, promote the moral and ethical values of the Nation, and enable the fighting qualities of the Army.
Personnel services
435
_______ encompasses all support and services performed, provided, and arranged by the Army Medical Department to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the behavioral and physical well-being of Army personnel and as directed, unified action partners (UAPs)
Health service support
436
________ is combining all of the sustainment elements within operations assuring unity of command and effort
Integration
437
_____ is the ability to foresee operational requirements and initiate necessary actions that most appropriately satisfy a response without waiting for operations orders or fragmentary orders
Anticipation
438
_____ is the ability to react to changing requirements and respond to meet the needs to maintain support
Responsiveness
439
_____ relates to processes and procedures to minimize the complexity of sustainment
Simplicity
440
_____ is providing sustainment resources in an efficient manner that enables the commander to employ all assets to the greatest effect possible
Economy
441
______ is all aspects of protecting personnel, weapons, and supplies while simultaneously deceiving the enemy
Survivability
442
______ is the uninterrupted provision of sustainment across all levels of wa
Continuity
443
______ is the ability to adapt sustainment operations to unexpected situations or circumstances affecting a mission
Improvisation
444
What unit supports a BCT and is designed specifically to support a SBCT, IBCT, or ABCT?
Brigade Support Battalion (BSB)
445
The BSB ________ consists of the command group, coordinating staff, and headquarters company. The BSB provides C2, administrative, and logistics support for all organic, assigned, and attached units. The staff executes planning and synchronization for all assigned and attached units in the BSB
headquarters and headquarters company (HHC)
446
The role of the _______ is to plan, direct, and supervise supply support operations and supply distribution to the brigade combat team or multifunctional brigade units. The BSB employs the distribution company in the BSA and its subordinate units operate throughout the supported brigade area of operations. The company executes a supply support activity that includes managing the daily receipt, storage, and issue of supply class I, II, III, IV, V and IX. The company also executes distribution, distribution integration, and transportation operations.
BSB distribution company
447
The role of a __________ is to provide field-level maintenance support to the BSB and BCT. The field maintenance company provides repair capability for automotive, ground support, communications and electronics, land combat missile systems, and armament systems. The company provides services including welding and machine shop support and recovery support
field maintenance company
448
The role of a ______ II is to provide medical support to a BCT. The BSMC provides medical area support to all BCT units that do not have organic medical assets. The BSMC consists of a company headquarters, preventive medicine section, mental health section, medical treatment platoon, medical evacuation platoon, and a brigade medical supply office
brigade support medical company (BSMC) / Role
449
The role of the ________ is to provide logistics in direct support to maneuver, fires, and engineer battalions. The FSC provides the supported commander with dedicated logistics assets organized to meet the battalion’s requirements. An FSC provides field feeding, bulk fuel, general supply, ammunition, and field-level maintenance to the maneuver battalion
Forward Support Company (6x)
450
_______ is a support relationship requiring a force to support another specific force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force’s request for assistance (joint doctrine considers direct support as a mission rather than a support relationship). BSB to BCT or FSC to Maneuver BN
Direct Support
451
_______ is a support relationship requiring a force to support another supporting unit. SBDE to BSB or BSB to FSC.
Reinforcing support
452
_________ is a support relationship assigned to a unit to support the force as a whole and to reinforce another similar-type unit.
General Support Reinforcing
453
______ is that support which is given to the supported force as a whole and not to any particular subdivision thereof.
General Support
454
What are at least four considerations used when determining the location of the BSA?
Close enough to provide responsive support, Close to MSR, Out of enemy medium artillery range, Away from likely enemy avenues of approach
455
__________ is a method of distributing supplies to the receiving unit at a supply point. The receiving unit then moves the supplies to its own area using its own transportation
Supply point distribution
456
______ is the routine distribution method the BSB uses to support the BCT. Unit distribution is a method of distributing supplies by which the receiving unit is issued supplies in its own area, with transportation furnished by the issuing agency
Unit distribution
457
_______ is a method of distribution that bypasses one or more intermediate supply echelons in the supply system to avoid multiple handling (ATP 4-11). The BSB or a DSSB may execute throughput distribution in the BCT’s area of operations when needed.10.
Throughput distribution
458
Why would a unit decide to echelon their sustainment support?
Balancing METT-TC, the principles of sustainment, and the concept of maneuver
459
What are the two categories of Army health support and what warfighting function (WfF) do they support?
Force Health Protection and Health Service Support Sustainment
460
______ is the first medical care a Soldier receives. Role 1 care includes immediate lifesaving measures, disease and non-battle injury prevention, combat and operational stress prevention measures, patient location and collection, medical evacuation from supported units to a supporting medical treatment facility, and treatment by designated combat medics or treatment squads
Role 1
461
_______ medical treatment facility provides a greater capability and capacity to resuscitate trauma patients than is available at a Role 1 medical treatment facility. The mission of the patient holding squad is to provide nursing care for patients awaiting evacuation or for patients who are expected to return to duty within 72 hours
Role 2
462
______ coordinates for an echelon above brigade ground ambulance company
Role 3
463
______ care is the most definitive level of care and is provided by fixed hospitals in CONUS or other Safe Havens
Role 4
464
______ is an estimated amount of ammunition needed to sustain tactical operations, without ammunition expenditure restrictions, over a specified time period. RSR computation is a bottom-up not a logistics function.
Required Supply Rate (BCT S3)
465
_____ is the rate of ammunition consumption that can be supported considering availability, facilities, and transportation
Controlled Supply Rate (G4)
466
The movement of patients on dedicated and properly marked medical platforms with en route care provided by medical personnel
MEDEVAC
467
The movement of casualties aboard nonmedical vehicle or aircraft without en route medical care
CASEVAC
468
Where are sustainment requirements captured during planning and communicated?
Para 4 of OPORD, Staff Estimates, Sustainment Synch Matrix, Sustainment Overlay
469
Organizational-level leaders must develop and improve __________while operating on day to day requirements to accomplish the __________. (L101)
Organization and mission
470
The ethical triangle informs organizational level decision making and provides leaders with a(n)__________to evaluating ethical dilemmas (L102)
Integrated approach
471
The ethical triangle consists of
Principles, Consequences, Virtues
472
Virtues Ethics are best described as
Ethics of character or moral identity; moral actions of what a virtuous person would do; development of exemplary character
473
The type of ethics that are best described as the ethics of moral duty; found in following rules that are absolute with no exceptions
Principle ethics
474
The __________ is the factor or core issue that sets in motion the cause-and-effect reaction that leads to the problem (s). (L101)
Root cause
475
Conforming to a requirement or demand is __________; and requires a change in behavior
Compliance
476
_____________leadership is the demonstration of leader behaviors that violate one or more Army core leader competencies or Army Values, preventing a climate conducive to mission accomplishment:
Counterproductive
477
There are 3 types of culture:
national, organizational, micro-culture
478
A shorter term experience and reflects how people currently think and feel about their organization. Based on shared perceptions and attitudes, affects mutual trust, cohesion, and commitment to the mission:
climate
479
If climate is the tree; culture is the___________
roots
480
Beer’s Theory or Formula for Change:
C = D x M x P > R
481
The practice over time of accepting behavior or events that are in violation of existing norms or standards but with no apparent negative consequences, which gradually expands the boundaries of acceptable risk.(L106)
normalization of deviance
482
Mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive in-group, or when members strive for unanimity override motivation realistically appraise a situation. (L106)
groupthink
483
We learn so we can ___________; learning explains our experiences and learning should lead to ___________ (L106)
change and improvement
484
Common Values, Aligned Interests, Benevolence, Competence, Predictability & Integrity, and Communication are the 6 factors of__________? (L107)
Organizational Trust
485
Areas to assess in an organization to ensure you achieve organizational trust include_________(L107)
Structure, Strategy, Culture
486
What are the US Army's strategic roles in support of the joint force
Shape the operational environment / Prevent conflict / Prevail in large-scale combat / Consolidate gains
487
Why do we conduct offensive operations?
To defeat enemy forces, destroy enemy forces, and gain control of terrain, resources, and population centers
488
The _____ is the decisive form of war
offense
489
What are the Characteristics of the Offense
SCAT - Surprise / Concentration / Audacity / Tempo
490
Willingness to take bold risks commensurate with the value of the objectives
Audacity
491
Massing the effects of combat power in time and space at the decisive point to achieve a single purpose
Concentration
492
Attacking at a time, place or in a manner enemy forces did not prepare for or expect
Surprise
493
The relative speed and rhythm of military operations over time with respect to the enemy
Tempo
494
Normally resourced only if the attack leaves flanks or rear of attacking force open or vulnerable
Security Forces
495
Organized into combined arms formations to conduct the decisive operation (DO) and necessary shaping operations (SOs)
Main Body
496
A _____ is that portion of a body of troops which is withheld from action at the beginning of an engagement, in order to be available for a decisive movement
Reserve
497
Types of Offensive Operations
Movement to Contact / Attack / Exploitation / Pursuit
498
Types of MTC
Search and Attack / Cordon and Search
499
Types of Attacks
Ambush ▪ Counterattack ▪ Demonstration ▪ Spoiling Attack ▪ Feint ▪ Raid
500
_____ is an offensive task designed to develop the situation and establish or regain contact
Movement to contact
