Yeoman Chapter 6 Security Flashcards
(302 cards)
1
Q
Define the role of the Department of the Navy Information Security Program Manual.
A
The Department of the Navy Information Security Program (ISP) Manual, SECNAV M-5510.36, provides the basis for the Navy’s program for safeguarding classified information, outlining procedures and requirements.
2
Q
How does the Navy ensure the safeguarding of classified information?
A
The Navy ensures the safeguarding of classified information through established policies and procedures, as well as the adherence to guidelines set forth in the ISP and Personnel Security Program manuals.
3
Q
List the key individuals involved in the Navy’s security program.
A
Key individuals involved in the Navy’s security program include the Department of Defense (DoD), Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV), Chief of Naval Operations (CNO), Commanding Officer (CO), command security manager, and the individual personnel with access to classified material.
4
Q
What are the responsibilities of individuals with access to classified information?
A
Individuals with access to classified information are responsible for following established policies to protect that information and ensuring it does not fall into the wrong hands.
5
Q
How should a Yeoman (YN) engage with the Navy’s security program?
A
As a Yeoman (YN), one must be directly involved in the security program and be aware of the regulations in the security instructions to effectively safeguard classified information.
6
Q
What is the significance of the DON Personnel Security Program Manual?
A
The DON Personnel Security Program (PSP) Manual, SECNAV M-5510.30, provides essential procedures and requirements for personnel security actions within the Navy.
7
Q
Explain the importance of reporting changes in personal circumstances for personnel with classified access.
A
Personnel with classified access must report changes in financial status, foreign contacts, disciplinary actions, foreign travel, marital status, and name changes to maintain security and mitigate risks.
8
Q
What techniques should personnel be familiar with to protect classified information?
A
Personnel should be familiar with techniques and devices used by foreign agencies to obtain classified U.S. information to better protect against espionage.
9
Q
Advise on the means of transmitting classified material.
A
Personnel are advised against using non-secure means of transmitting or discussing classified material to prevent unauthorized access.
10
Q
What is the significance of the Department of the Navy Security Classification Guides?
A
The Department of the Navy Security Classification Guides outline the procedures for proper classification, upgrading, downgrading, and declassification of information, ensuring consistent security practices.
11
Q
How does the Navy Security Program educate personnel about their security responsibilities?
A
The Navy Security Program educates personnel through security orientation, training, and reminders about their responsibilities to protect classified information and comply with security measures.
12
Q
Describe the responsibility of the SECNAV regarding the DON ISP and PSP.
A
The SECNAV is responsible for establishing and maintaining the Department of the Navy Information Security Program (DON ISP) and Personnel Security Program (PSP) in compliance with various security directives.
13
Q
How does the Special Assistant for Naval Investigative Matters and Security contribute to security compliance?
A
The Special Assistant for Naval Investigative Matters and Security (CNO N09N2) ensures an effective program that complies with all directives issued by higher authority.
14
Q
Define the role of the Director of Naval Intelligence (DNI) within the DON.
A
The DNI is the Head of the Intelligence Community Element for the Department of the Navy and is responsible for promulgating policies and procedures for the security, use, and dissemination of Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI).
15
Q
What is the responsibility of the Office of Naval Intelligence (ONI) regarding the DON SCI Security Program?
A
The ONI has been delegated management oversight for the DON SCI Security Program by the Director of Naval Intelligence (DNI).
16
Q
How does the Director, DoD Consolidated Adjudications Facility (CAF) support personnel security?
A
The Director, DoD CAF is responsible for adjudicating information from personnel security investigations to determine eligibility for access to classified information and sensitive national security positions.
17
Q
What is the role of the CO in safeguarding classified material?
A
The CO is responsible for the proper indoctrination and debriefing of personnel in safeguarding classified material.
18
Q
As a YN, what is your responsibility regarding personnel security?
A
As a YN, you are responsible for the proper indoctrination and debriefing of personnel under your supervision, ensuring they are aware of regulations and comply with security policies.
19
Q
Explain the importance of strict compliance with security regulations.
A
Strict compliance with security regulations is crucial to ensure the protection of classified information and the integrity of national security operations.
20
Q
What authority does the Special Security Officer (SSO) Navy hold in the context of SCI security?
A
The Special Security Officer (SSO) Navy is designated as the Cognizant Security Authority (CSA) responsible for implementing SCI security policies and procedures.
21
Q
How does the Director, DoD CAF assist DON commands?
A
The Director, DoD CAF assists DON commands with queries regarding the status of personnel security investigations and issues Letters of Intent (LOI) and Letters of Notification (LON).
22
Q
Describe the role of a security manager in the Navy and Marine Corps.
A
The security manager is responsible for managing the command’s security program, ensuring effective communication with the Commanding Officer (CO), and overseeing the handling of classified information.
23
Q
How must a command designate a security manager?
A
A command must designate a security manager in writing and forward a copy of the designation letter to the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) at N09N2.
24
Q
Define the eligibility criteria for a security manager in the Navy and Marine Corps.
A
The security manager must be a U.S. citizen, a commissioned officer or a civilian employee at GS-11 or above, and must have undergone a favorably adjudicated Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI) within the last five years.
25
What is the preferred method for sending the security manager's designation letter?
If practical, the command should scan the designation letter and send it via email to navysecurity@ncis.navy.mil, including the Unit Identification Code and return e-mail address.
26
Explain the possible employment status of a security manager.
A security manager may be assigned as full-time, part-time, or as a collateral duty.
27
What must Marine Corps commands do with the designation letter for the security manager?
Marine Corps commands will forward the designation letter via Headquarters, Marine Corps (ARS).
28
How does the security manager interact with the Commanding Officer (CO)?
The security manager has direct access to the CO to ensure effective management of the command's security program.
29
What is the significance of the Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI) for a security manager?
The SSBI is crucial as it ensures that the security manager has been favorably adjudicated, confirming their reliability and trustworthiness to handle classified information.
30
Describe the role of the security manager in a command.
The security manager is key in developing and administering the command's Information Security Program (ISP) and Personnel Security Program (PSP), serving as the principal advisor on information and personnel security, and is responsible to the Commanding Officer (CO) for security program management.
31
How should the security manager be identified within the command?
The command must designate the security manager by name and identify him or her to all members of the command on organization charts, telephone listings, rosters, etc.
32
Define the reporting structure for the security manager according to SORM.
The Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy (SORM) recommends that the security manager report to the Commanding Officer (CO) for functional security matters and to the Executive Officer (XO) for administrative matters.
33
What training is required for Commanding Officers regarding security managers?
Commanding Officers (COs) are required to obtain formal training for their security managers, which can be satisfied by the Naval Security Manager Course offered by the Deputy Under Secretary of the Navy.
34
How does the security manager ensure the security program is effective?
The security manager must be cognizant of the command's security functions and ensure the security program is coordinated and inclusive of all requirements.
35
List some key duties of the security manager.
Key duties include serving as the CO's advisor on classified information security, developing written command ISP and PSP procedures, formulating security awareness programs, ensuring security control of visits, and vetting personnel handling classified information.
36
What is the purpose of the Emergency Action Plan (EAP) developed by the security manager?
The Emergency Action Plan (EAP) integrates emergency destruction bills where required and is part of the written command ISP and PSP procedures.
37
How does the security manager handle visits to the command?
The security manager ensures security control of visits to and from the command when an authorized visitor requires access to classified information.
38
What is the security manager's responsibility regarding personnel handling classified information?
The security manager is responsible for ensuring that all personnel who will handle classified information or be assigned to sensitive duties are appropriately vetted through coordination with the DoD Central Adjudication Facility (CAF) and proper submission of requests.
39
Explain the importance of the security manager's role in personnel security.
The security manager serves as the direct representative of the CO in matters pertaining to the eligibility of personnel to access classified information and to be assigned to sensitive duties.
40
Describe the process for ensuring access to classified information.
Access to classified information is limited to individuals who are eligible and have a 'need-to-know' basis.
41
How is personnel security information recorded and managed?
Personnel security investigations, clearances, and accesses are recorded in the Defense Information System for Security (DISS) and subordinate commands are registered as necessary.
42
Define the role of continuous evaluation in personnel security.
Continuous evaluation assesses the ongoing eligibility of personnel for access to classified information or sensitive duties.
43
What is the importance of liaising with the command SSO/SSA?
Maintaining liaison with the command SSO/Special Security Assistant is crucial for ensuring compliance with information and personnel security policies and procedures.
44
How does the command Information Assurance Manager (IAM) contribute to security?
The IAM coordinates with the command on matters of common concern related to information assurance and security.
45
What must personnel complete when separating or retiring after accessing classified information?
Personnel must complete a Security Termination Statement (OPNAV 5511/14) before separating or retiring.
46
Where should the original Security Termination Statement be filed?
The original Security Termination Statement should be filed in the individual's Electronic Service Record (ESR) or Official Military Personnel Folder (OMPF), with a copy in the command files.
47
What agreement must personnel execute before gaining access to classified information?
All personnel must execute a Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement (SF 312) prior to being granted initial access to classified information.
48
How is the execution of the SF 312 documented?
The execution of the SF 312 is recorded in DISS.
49
What is the procedure for submitting the original Security Termination Statement in Marine Corps commands?
Marine Corps commands must submit the original Security Termination Statement to the Commandant of the Marine Corps (MMSB-20).
50
Describe the role of the Special Security Officer (SSO) in the Department of the Navy (DON).
The SSO is the principal advisor to the Commanding Officer (CO) on the Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) security program and is responsible for the management and administration of the SCI program.
51
How does the SSO contribute to the SCI security program?
The SSO oversees the operation and management of the SCI security program, ensuring compliance with relevant regulations and guidelines.
52
Define the responsibilities of the SSO as outlined in the Sensitive Compartmented Information Administrative Security Manual.
The responsibilities of the SSO include managing and administering the SCI program, as detailed in DoDM 5105.21-V1.
53
Describe the role of the SSO in relation to SCIF.
The SSO supervises the operation of the special security office and administers the SCI security program, ensuring oversight for local SCIFs and maintaining compliance with applicable directives and regulations.
54
Define the eligibility requirements for the SSO position.
The SSO must be a U.S. citizen, either a commissioned officer or a civilian employee (GS-9 or above), and must meet the standards outlined in Intelligence Community Directive (ICD) 704.
55
How does the SSO interact with the security manager?
The SSO administers the SCI program independently but must cooperate and coordinate with the security manager on personnel security matters, sharing information about clearance and access changes.
56
What are the responsibilities of the SSO regarding SCI dissemination?
The SSO ensures that SCI is disseminated only to personnel authorized access and having an established 'need-to-know'.
57
Explain the importance of maintaining the Defense Information Security System (DISS).
The SSO is responsible for maintaining the DISS to accurately reflect all personnel under their cognizance, which is crucial for tracking clearance and access.
58
What must the security manager do in relation to the SSO's activities?
The security manager must account for all clearance and access determinations made on command members and keep the SSO informed of any changes affecting eligibility.
59
List some duties of the SSO.
Duties include supervising the special security office, maintaining SCI directives, ensuring proper handling of SCI, certifying visitor clearances, and managing security actions.
60
How is SCI security oversight conducted for local SCIFs?
The SSO administers SCI security oversight for other local SCIFs under the organizational SCI security cognizance.
61
What is required for the destruction of SCI?
The SSO ensures that SCI is destroyed by authorized means as per DoDM 5105.21-V1.
62
Describe the need for cooperation between the SSO and security manager.
There is a great need for cooperation and coordination between the SSO and security manager, especially regarding personnel security matters and changes in security policies.
63
Describe the role of SCI security briefings and debriefings.
SCI security briefings and debriefings are conducted to inform personnel about security protocols and to ensure compliance with security measures.
64
How are Non-disclosure Agreements related to SCI security actions?
Non-disclosure Agreements are obtained to ensure that individuals understand their responsibilities in protecting sensitive information related to SCI.
65
Define the purpose of annual self-inspections for SCI security officials.
Annual self-inspections are conducted to assess compliance with security protocols and identify areas for improvement in SCI security practices.
66
What actions are taken in response to SCI security infractions?
SCI security infractions are reported, recommendations are made, and required reports are prepared to address and rectify the issues.
67
How is the dissemination of product requirements managed in SCI security?
Product requirements are validated and disseminated to authorized users to ensure that only those with the proper clearance have access to sensitive information.
68
Describe the importance of continuing education in SCI security.
Continuing education in SCI security is crucial to keep all SCI-indoctrinated individuals informed about the latest requirements and guidelines for protecting sensitive information.
69
What is the significance of accreditation documentation for SCIFs?
Accreditation documentation is essential for ensuring that each Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility (SCIF) meets security standards and is authorized for operation.
70
How is derogatory information regarding SCI-indoctrinated personnel handled?
Derogatory information from local military law enforcement is reviewed, and appropriate actions are taken to address any security concerns.
71
What is the role of liaison with non-SCI security officials?
Maintaining liaison with non-SCI security officials is important for coordinating security efforts and ensuring comprehensive protection measures.
72
Describe the role of the Special Security Representative (SSR) in a facility's SCI security program.
The SSR is responsible for the day-to-day management and implementation of the facility's SCI security program and administrative functions for subordinate SCIFs, operating under the direction of the supporting SSO.
73
Define the responsibilities of the SSR in relation to SCIFs.
The SSR manages and implements the SCI security program and oversees administrative functions for subordinate SCIFs.
74
How does the SSR interact with the supporting SSO?
The SSR operates under the direction of the supporting SSO, ensuring that the SCI security program is effectively managed.
75
What is the significance of the SCI Non-Disclosure Agreement, Form 4414?
The SCI Non-Disclosure Agreement, Form 4414, is a legal document that outlines the obligations of individuals regarding the protection of sensitive compartmented information.
76
Describe the qualifications for a Senior Security Representative (SSR).
The SSR must be an appropriately SCI indoctrinated military commissioned officer, the most senior non-commissioned officer (E-5 or above), or a civilian (GS-7 or above). The local senior intelligence officer may appoint SSRs at a lower grade level with sufficient justification.
77
How can effective security be accomplished in a command?
Effective security is accomplished by recognizing, understanding, and applying the security requirements that prevent compromise.
78
What should be done when complacency about safeguarding measures is observed?
Corrective actions should be taken immediately when complacency about using proper safeguarding measures is observed.
79
Define the purpose of a security education program in handling classified information.
The purpose of the security education program is to ensure that all personnel understand the need and procedures for protecting classified information.
80
How can a command keep personnel security conscious at all times?
An effective security program can assist in keeping personnel security conscious by using various approaches such as posters, Plan of the Day notices, newsletters, and films.
81
What is the goal of a security education program?
The goal is to develop fundamental security habits as a natural element of each task.
82
Describe the importance of instilling self-responsibility in personnel regarding security.
Instilling a sense of self-responsibility in personnel eliminates carelessness, ignorance, or indifference, thereby accomplishing security consciousness.
83
What should a security education program advise personnel about unauthorized disclosure of classified information?
It should advise personnel of the adverse effects to national security that could result from unauthorized disclosure and their personal, moral, and legal responsibilities to protect classified information.
84
How should a security education program be developed?
The security education program should be developed based on the command mission and function.
85
What personal behaviors should personnel avoid to maintain eligibility for access to classified information?
Personnel should avoid personal behavior that could render them ineligible for access to classified information or assignment to sensitive duties.
86
Describe the requirement for continuous evaluation of personnel regarding classified information.
Supervisors must continuously evaluate personnel for their eligibility to access classified information or be assigned to sensitive duties.
87
Define the principles and procedures related to classified information.
Personnel should be familiar with the classification, downgrading, declassification, marking, control, accountability, storage, destruction, and transmission of classified information.
88
How should personnel challenge improper classification decisions?
Personnel should be familiar with the procedures for challenging classification decisions they believe to be improper.
89
What security requirements should personnel be familiar with for their assignments?
Personnel must understand the security requirements specific to their assignments and identify any restrictions.
90
Instruct personnel on determining recipient authorization for classified information dissemination.
Personnel must ensure that the recipient is authorized, needs the information for official duties, and can properly protect the information before dissemination.
91
Advise personnel on discussing classified information securely.
There is a strict prohibition against discussing classified information over unsecured communication methods that may allow interception by unauthorized persons.
92
Inform personnel about foreign intelligence activities.
Personnel should be aware of the techniques used by foreign intelligence to obtain classified information.
93
What vulnerabilities do personnel face during foreign travel?
Personnel are particularly vulnerable to compromise during foreign travel and should be informed of this risk.
94
What should personnel report regarding contacts with individuals?
Personnel must report any contacts with individuals that involve illegal access to classified information or concerns about being targeted for exploitation.
95
What are the penalties for mishandling classified information?
Personnel should be advised of the penalties associated with engaging in espionage activities and mishandling classified information.
96
Describe the categories of security education briefings.
Security education/briefings include indoctrination, orientation, and on-the-job training.
97
Describe the purpose of annual refresher briefings in the context of classified information.
Annual refresher briefings are designed to reinforce the understanding of classified information and the responsibilities associated with its protection among personnel with access.
98
How does indoctrination occur for individuals within the Department of the Navy (DON)?
Indoctrination occurs during training at the time of accession, and for those who do not go through formal training, the receiving command is responsible for indoctrination.
99
Define the verbal attestation required for individuals with Top Secret eligibility or SAP/SCI access.
Individuals with Top Secret eligibility or SAP/SCI access must verbally attest to understanding their responsibilities in protecting national security information and adhering to legal and regulatory provisions.
100
What is the significance of the SF 312 form in relation to classified information?
The SF 312 form informs individuals of the trust placed in them due to their access to classified information and outlines their responsibilities to protect that information from unauthorized disclosure.
101
How often must personnel with existing Top Secret eligibility or SCI/SAP access provide a verbal attestation?
Personnel must provide a verbal attestation during the required periodic reinvestigation or when granted access to another compartmented program, whichever occurs first.
102
What role do security managers play in the training of personnel with access to classified information?
Security managers are responsible for recording the training of personnel regarding their responsibilities for access to classified information in the Defense Information System for Security (DISS).
103
Explain the consequences outlined in the SF 312 for failing to protect classified information.
The SF 312 outlines that failure to meet responsibilities in protecting classified information can lead to serious consequences, including legal repercussions.
104
What types of briefings are included in the training for personnel with access to classified information?
The training includes annual refresher briefings, counterintelligence briefings, special briefings (such as Foreign Travel, New Requirement, Program, and NATO Security), and indoctrination.
105
How does the indoctrination process differ for those who do not undergo formal training?
For those who do not undergo formal training, the receiving command is responsible for providing the necessary indoctrination regarding classified information.
106
What must be done during the verbal attestation process for Top Secret eligibility?
The verbal attestation must be witnessed by one individual in addition to the official presiding over the attestation.
107
Describe the role of the individual's security manager or SSO/SSR in the execution of the SF 312 form.
The individual's security manager or SSO/SSR must personally witness the execution of the SF 312 form, signing and dating the agreement at the time it is executed.
108
How long is the SF 312 form maintained after signature?
The SF 312 form will be maintained for 70 years from the date of signature.
109
What action is taken in DISS after an individual executes an SF 312?
An entry will be made in DISS to indicate that the individual has executed an SF 312.
110
Define the purpose of the SCI Non-Disclosure Agreement Statement (Form 4414).
The SCI Non-Disclosure Agreement Statement (Form 4414) is a legally binding statement that an individual must sign as a condition of access to Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) for the protection of SCI.
111
How long is the SCI non-disclosure statement valid?
The SCI non-disclosure statement is valid for 70 years or until death, whichever comes first.
112
What is the importance of security orientation for personnel?
Security orientation is crucial for personnel whose job requires access to classified material, ensuring they understand the command security structure and their responsibilities.
113
Describe the timing of security orientation for new personnel.
The command should conduct the security orientation as soon as possible after an individual reports onboard and before granting access to classified information.
114
What key topics should be emphasized during security orientation?
Key topics include the command security structure, special security precautions, command security procedures, responsibilities to protect classified information, and obligations to report security violations.
115
How should supervisors approach on-the-job training regarding security requirements?
Supervisors must ensure that subordinates are aware of security requirements and actively supervise the on-the-job training process to prevent costly errors.
116
What are the consequences of leaving subordinates to learn security protocols by trial and error?
Leaving subordinates to learn by trial and error can be costly to security and may lead to breaches in the protection of classified information.
117
Describe the purpose of refresher briefings for personnel with access to classified information.
Refresher briefings are designed to enhance security awareness among personnel who have access to classified information, ensuring they are updated on security policies, procedures, and potential threats.
118
How often must personnel receive refresher briefings on classified information?
Personnel must receive refresher briefings once a year.
119
Define the role of supervisory personnel in refresher briefings.
Supervisory personnel are responsible for conducting refresher briefings or equivalent training for all personnel with access to classified information.
120
What topics should refresher briefings cover?
Refresher briefings should cover new security policies and procedures, counterintelligence reminders, continuous evaluation, command-specific security concerns, Non-Disclosure Agreement requirements, and results of self-inspections or security violation investigations.
121
Explain the significance of counterintelligence briefings for personnel with classified material access.
Counterintelligence briefings are significant as they inform personnel about threats posed by foreign intelligence and terrorist organizations, helping them to remain vigilant and aware of potential risks.
122
Who is responsible for conducting counterintelligence briefings?
The Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS) is responsible for conducting counterintelligence briefings.
123
What distinguishes a special briefing from a regular briefing?
A special briefing covers a specific topic or problem and is often longer and more detailed than regular briefings, focusing on particular enemy capabilities or requirements.
124
List some examples of special briefings that may be conducted.
Examples of special briefings include foreign travel briefings, NATO briefings, new requirement briefings, and Single-Integrated Operational Plan Extremely Sensitive Information (SIOP-ESI) briefings.
125
How do refresher briefings contribute to identifying command weaknesses?
Refresher briefings provide valuable information from self-inspections, inspector general reports, or security violation investigations, which can help in identifying command weaknesses.
126
What is the importance of covering counterintelligence reminders in refresher briefings?
Covering counterintelligence reminders in refresher briefings is important to ensure personnel are aware of how to report contacts, exploitation attempts, and issues related to foreign travel.
127
Describe the purpose of foreign travel briefings.
Foreign travel briefings are designed to prepare travelers for security or safety concerns that may arise during their travels, ensuring both the command and the individual are informed.
128
How are foreign travel briefings tailored for personnel with classified information access?
Foreign travel briefings are typically offered only to individuals with access to classified information, but unclassified versions can be provided to dependents or others upon request.
129
Define the types of security clearances available.
There are three types of security clearances: Confidential, Secret, and Top Secret, each indicating the level of access to classified information an individual is eligible for.
130
What should personnel do upon returning from foreign travel?
Upon returning, personnel should report any incidents that could have security implications, regardless of how insignificant they may seem.
131
How does the command handle changes in security policies or procedures?
The command must brief personnel whose duties are impacted by changes in security policies or procedures as soon as possible.
132
What is the significance of a Top Secret clearance?
A Top Secret clearance indicates that an authorized adjudicative authority has determined an individual is eligible for access to Top Secret information.
133
What resources are available for formal foreign travel briefings?
Servicing NCIS offices stock audiovisual material for formal foreign travel briefings.
134
Explain the role of the DoD Foreign Clearance Program (FCP).
The DoD Foreign Clearance Program (FCP) outlines the country clearance requirements for personnel traveling abroad.
135
What does a Confidential clearance imply about an individual?
A Confidential clearance implies that an individual has been determined to be eligible for access to Confidential information.
136
What is the process for individuals with SCI access regarding foreign travel briefings?
Individuals with SCI access should be referred to their Security Support Officer (SSO) for specific foreign travel briefing requirements.
137
Describe the criteria for access to classified information.
Access to classified information requires a favorable determination of a person's loyalty, reliability, and trustworthiness.
138
How is the initial determination for security clearance made?
The initial determination is based on the Personnel Security Investigation (PSI) conducted by the DoD Consolidated Adjudications Facility (CAF).
139
Define the role of the DoD Consolidated Adjudications Facility (CAF).
The DoD CAF is the sole authority to determine security clearance eligibility for non-Intelligence agency DoD personnel requiring access to classified material.
140
What is the purpose of Intelligence Community Directive (ICD)?
ICD establishes personnel security policy governing eligibility for access to Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) and other controlled access programs.
141
List some commonly used Intelligence Community Directives (ICDs).
Commonly used ICDs include ICD 703 (Protection of Classified National Intelligence), ICD 704 (Personnel Security), and ICD 705 (SCIFs).
142
Who is included in the DoD CAF customer base?
The customer base includes military service members, military applicants, civilian employees, consultants, and certain staff affiliated with the Department of Defense and Congress.
143
What must occur before an individual can be assigned to sensitive duties?
A favorable personnel security determination by the DoD CAF regarding the individual's loyalty, reliability, and trustworthiness must be made.
144
How does the DoD CAF gather information for security determinations?
The DoD CAF conducts a Personnel Security Investigation (PSI) to gather pertinent information for security determinations.
145
Who is authorized to request Personnel Security Investigations (PSIs)?
Only specific officials under their jurisdiction are authorized to request PSIs on individuals.
146
Describe the role of the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) in Personnel Security Investigations (PSIs).
The OPM conducts or controls the conduct of all PSIs for the Department of the Navy (DON) and prohibits DON elements from conducting PSIs unless specifically requested by an authorized investigative agency.
147
Define what a Personnel Security Investigation (PSI) is.
A PSI is an information gathering inquiry where specified information is collected from specified sources to support eligibility determinations for DoD personnel, contractors, and others for access to classified information or sensitive national security positions.
148
How are Tier 1 investigations characterized in terms of risk and sensitivity?
Tier 1 investigations are conducted for positions designated as low-risk and nonsensitive, primarily for physical and logical access, and utilize Standard Form SF-85.
149
What is the purpose of Tier 2 investigations?
Tier 2 investigations are conducted for positions designated as nonsensitive, moderate risk public trust, and utilize Standard Form SF-85P.
150
Explain the approval process for establishing investigative requirements that differ from standard procedures.
CNO (N09N2) must give prior approval to establish investigative requirements that are in addition to or at variance with those already established.
151
What is the basic scope duration for Tier 1 investigations?
The basic scope duration for Tier 1 investigations is five years.
152
Identify the investigative form used for Tier 1 investigations.
The investigative form used for Tier 1 investigations is Standard Form SF-85.
153
What was the previous investigation method replaced by Tier 1 investigations?
Tier 1 investigations replaced the National Agency Check with Inquiries (NACI), which was used for basic suitability and HSPD-12 credentialing determinations.
154
Discuss the conditions under which PSIs are not normally requested for personnel.
PSIs are not normally requested for civilian or military personnel who will retire, resign, or be separated with less than one year of service remaining.
155
What is the significance of the Standard Navy Distribution List (SNDL) in relation to PSIs?
The SNDL lists commanding officers of organizations and activities that may require PSIs for personnel accessing sensitive information.
156
Describe the purpose of Tier 3 investigations.
Tier 3 investigations are conducted for positions designated as noncritical-sensitive, requiring Confidential, Secret, or DOE 'L' access eligibility, and military accessions.
157
How long is the basic scope of Tier 3 investigations?
The basic scope of Tier 3 investigations is five years.
158
Define the investigative form used for Tier 3 investigations.
The investigative form used for Tier 3 investigations is SF-86.
159
What did Tier 3 investigations replace?
Tier 3 investigations replaced the National Agency Check with Law and Credit (NACLC) and the Access National Agency Check with Inquiries (ANACI).
160
Explain the purpose of reinvestigations in the context of security clearances.
Reinvestigations update a previous investigation and are authorized only for specific duties and access, with coverage proportional to the sensitivity level.
161
What are the two scopes for reinvestigations?
The two scopes for reinvestigations are the SSBI Periodic Reinvestigation (SSBI-PR) and the NACLC reinvestigation.
162
How often are NACLC reinvestigations conducted?
NACLC reinvestigations are conducted at 10-year and 15-year intervals to support continued access to Secret and Confidential classified information.
163
Describe the investigative elements included in an SSBI-PR.
SSBI-PR investigative elements include a NAC, subject interview, credit check, employment check, neighborhood interviews, local agency checks, interviews of employers and character references, an ex-spouse interview, and additional investigation as warranted.
164
What is the role of the DoD CAF in military investigations?
The DoD CAF adjudicates all military investigations and reinvestigations using national security adjudicative guidelines.
165
Define DISS in the context of personnel security.
DISS is the DoD personnel security clearance and access database, serving as an enterprise-wide personnel vetting adjudications case management system.
166
Describe the three applications of DISS.
The three applications of DISS are the Case Adjudication Tracking System (CATS), Appeals, and Joint Verification System (JVS).
167
How does CATS function within DISS?
CATS performs electronic and human adjudication functions, automating record-keeping for security clearances, HSPD-12, military fitness, and suitability determinations.
168
What is the purpose of the Joint Verification System (JVS)?
JVS enables DoD professionals to document security clearance access and verify eligibility determinations.
169
Define the role of Appeals in DISS.
The Appeals application supports the Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals (DOHA) and the Personnel Security Appeals Board (PSAB) in completing due process for subjects appealing adjudicative determinations.
170
How must DoN commands utilize DISS?
DoN commands are required to use DISS exclusively to record all access determinations, including temporary access, upgrades, downgrades, and suspensions.
171
What types of determinations must be documented in DISS?
DISS must document interim security clearance determinations, execution of non-disclosure agreements, personal attestations, program indoctrinations/debriefs, unofficial foreign travel, continuous evaluation reports, pass visit requests, and more.
172
Explain the function of e-QIP.
e-QIP is a web-based automated system designed to facilitate the processing of standard investigative forms used by DCSA and other Investigation Service Providers for background investigations related to Federal security, suitability, fitness, and credentialing.
173
How does e-QIP ensure data security?
e-QIP transmits personal investigative data over a secure Internet connection to individuals' employing agency for review and approval.
174
What responsibilities do DISS users have regarding access changes?
DISS users are responsible for changes to an individual's access within DISS.
175
List some of the documentation required by DISS.
Documentation required by DISS includes interim security clearance determinations, execution of non-disclosure agreements, personal attestations, program indoctrinations/debriefs, unofficial foreign travel, continuous evaluation reports, and requests for DoD CAF determinations.
176
Describe the purpose of the e-QIP system.
The e-QIP system allows users to electronically enter, update, and transmit their personal investigative data over a secure internet connection to a requesting agency.
177
How can applicants access the e-QIP system?
Applicants can only access the e-QIP system if they have been invited by an appropriate official at their sponsoring agency.
178
Define the time limits for service members to log into and complete the e-QIP process.
A service member has 30 days to log into the e-QIP system once the investigation has been initiated and 90 days to complete it after login (60 days for revisions).
179
What happens after a service member completes their investigation in e-QIP?
Once completed, the security manager/SSO/SSR reviews the investigation for gaps or errors and then transmits it to OPM for processing.
180
Explain the relationship between e-QIP and DISS.
The e-QIP system interfaces with DISS to allow security managers and SSO/SSRs to initiate investigations for individual members requiring background investigations.
181
How is classified information protected according to the content?
Classified information is given a classification that determines the level of protection needed based on the potential damage if it were obtained by other countries.
182
What are the responsibilities of individuals handling classified material?
Individuals are responsible for understanding the categories of classification, the rules for safeguarding each level, and their responsibilities in handling classified material.
183
Where can the e-QIP system be accessed?
The e-QIP system can be accessed on the OPM website at https://www.e-qip.opm.gov/eqip-applicant/showLogin.login.
184
What is the consequence of not having access granted by an agency official regarding security clearance applications?
Individuals cannot pre-apply for a security clearance or update their security questionnaire without access granted by an appropriate agency official.
185
Describe the review process after a service member submits their investigation.
The security manager/SSO/SSR reviews the submitted investigation to ensure there are no gaps, omissions, or incorrect date overlaps before transmitting it to OPM.
186
Describe the three categories of classified information.
The three categories of classified information are Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential, each requiring its own level of protection.
187
Define the term 'Top Secret' in the context of classified information.
Top Secret is the designation applied to information that could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security.
188
How does 'Secret' classification differ from 'Top Secret' classification?
Secret classification applies to information that could cause serious damage to national security, whereas Top Secret applies to information that could cause exceptionally grave damage.
189
What type of damage does 'Top Secret' information potentially cause?
Top Secret information could cause exceptionally grave damage, such as armed hostilities against the U.S. or its allies, disruption of vital foreign relations, or compromise of national defense plans.
190
List examples of what could be classified as 'Top Secret' information.
Examples include armed hostilities against the U.S. or allies, disruption of foreign relations, compromise of vital defense plans, revelation of sensitive intelligence operations, and disclosure of critical scientific developments.
191
What is the potential impact of disclosing 'Secret' classified information?
Disclosing Secret information could cause serious damage, such as significant disruption of foreign relations affecting national security.
192
Explain the significance of the classification levels in protecting national security.
The classification levels (Top Secret, Secret, Confidential) are significant as they determine the level of protection required for information that could impact national security.
193
How is information categorized under the classification system?
Information is categorized based on the potential damage its disclosure could cause to national security, with Top Secret being the highest level.
194
Describe the implications of compromising significant military plans or intelligence operations.
Compromising significant military plans or intelligence operations can lead to a direct threat to national security, potentially exposing vulnerabilities and undermining strategic advantages.
195
Define the term 'Confidential' in the context of national security.
'Confidential' is a designation applied to information or material that could cause identifiable damage to national security if disclosed.
196
How can the compromise of technical information affect national security?
The compromise of technical information used for training, maintenance, and inspection of classified munitions can lead to unauthorized access to sensitive capabilities, thereby weakening national defense.
197
What are examples of identifiable damage to national security?
Examples include the compromise of information indicating the strength of military forces, disclosure of technical information on classified munitions, and revelation of performance characteristics and test data.
198
Explain the role of the Commanding Officer (CO) in controlling classified material dissemination.
The CO is responsible for controlling the dissemination of classified material within the command and may delegate these responsibilities to a security manager or SSO.
199
How should personnel be instructed to prevent unauthorized disclosure of classified information?
Personnel should be instructed on the importance of safeguarding classified information, including the necessity of limiting knowledge to those authorized and whose official duties require access.
200
What does the term 'For Official Use Only' signify in relation to classified information?
'For Official Use Only' is not a security classification and should not be used to identify U.S. classified national security information.
201
Describe the responsibilities of the security manager or SSO in relation to classified information.
The security manager or SSO is responsible for ensuring the proper issuance of information and instructing personnel on preventing unauthorized disclosure of classified information.
202
What steps must be taken regarding the existence and contents of classified information?
Steps must be taken to ensure that the existence, contents, and whereabouts of classified information are disclosed only to those authorized to access it.
203
Describe the level of control required for classified information.
Classified information must be afforded a level of control that is commensurate with its assigned security classification level.
204
Define the responsibility of personnel regarding security regulations.
Personnel are responsible for knowing and enforcing accountability and control procedures as part of the security program.
205
How is accountability maintained for Top Secret documents?
Each copy of a Top Secret document is numbered at origination, includes a list of effective pages, and cannot be reproduced without permission.
206
What is the procedure for numbering copies of Top Secret documents?
Copies must be numbered using the sequence that indicates the copy number and total number of copies, such as 'Copy 14/1 of 2 copies'.
207
Explain the transportation requirements for Top Secret material.
Top Secret material must be transported via direct contact between appropriately cleared U.S. personnel or through the Defense Courier Service (DCS), with accountability at each exchange.
208
What is the role of the security manager or Top Secret Control Officer (TSCO) regarding Top Secret material?
The security manager or TSCO is responsible for inventorying all Top Secret material at least annually and at each change of command.
209
Describe the accountability procedures for Secret material.
A command must establish administrative procedures to record Secret material it originates or holds, which can be done through logs, route slips, or other administrative records.
210
How should a command record its Secret material?
The command can use a log, a route slip file, a serial file, or other administrative records to document its Secret material.
211
Describe the procedures for protecting Confidential material compared to Secret material.
Procedures for protecting Confidential material are less stringent than those for Secret material, with no requirement to maintain records of receipts, distribution, or disposition of Confidential material.
212
How should access to Confidential material be controlled?
Access to Confidential material should be controlled through proper marking, storage, transmission, and destruction measures to protect it from unauthorized disclosure.
213
Define the purpose of serial numbers in classified correspondence.
Serial numbers are used to uniquely identify classified correspondence for each calendar year, with separate consecutive groups for each security classification.
214
What letters precede serial numbers for different security classifications?
The letters that precede serial numbers are C for Confidential, S for Secret, and TS for Top Secret.
215
Explain the custodial precautions for classified material.
No one may remove classified material from a command without the knowledge and approval of the CO or an authorized representative, and a complete list must be prepared and filed when material is removed.
216
How should classified working spaces be cared for?
Classified working spaces must have necessary safeguards, and precautions should be taken to minimize the risk of inadvertent disclosure, including not discussing classified information in public places.
217
What system must commands institute for security checks?
Commands must institute a system of security checks at the beginning and closing of each working day to properly protect the classified material they hold.
218
What is the purpose of the SF-701 Activity Security Checklist?
The SF-701 Activity Security Checklist is used to ensure that all areas processing classified information are properly secured.
219
What does the SF-702 Security Container Check Sheet record?
The SF-702 Security Container Check Sheet records that classified vaults, secure rooms, strong rooms, and security containers have been properly secured at the end of the day.
220
Describe the purpose of SF 700 in security protocols.
SF 700 is used to ensure that the identification of the individual responsible for the contents of each container of classified material is readily available.
221
How is the individual responsible for classified material identified in SF 700?
The individual responsible for the contents of each container is identified in SF 700, allowing for contact if a container is found open and unattended.
222
Define the role of SF 701 in security activities.
SF 701, known as the Activity Security Checklist, is used to ensure that security measures are followed and documented.
223
What action is taken if a container of classified material is found open and unattended?
The individual identified in SF 700 is contacted to address the situation.
224
Explain the significance of having a checklist like SF 701 in security operations.
Having a checklist like SF 701 helps ensure that all necessary security measures are consistently followed and provides a record of compliance.
225
Describe the preparation process for transmitting classified material.
Classified material should be enclosed in two opaque, sealed envelopes or similar wrappings. The classified text must not be in direct contact with the inner envelope. The inner envelope should display the receiving activity's address, the highest classification of the material, and any special instructions, and it must be sealed to prevent tampering.
226
How should the outer cover of classified material be marked during transmission?
The outer cover should not have any classification markings, content listings, or unusual data that could indicate the contents are classified. For Confidential material sent via USPS First-Class Mail, it should be marked 'FIRST CLASS' and endorsed with 'POSTMASTER: DO NOT FORWARD, RETURN TO SENDER.'
227
Define the requirements for the inner envelope when transmitting classified material.
The inner envelope must show the address of the receiving activity, the highest classification of the enclosed material or the Restricted Data marking if applicable, and any special instructions. It should be carefully sealed to minimize the risk of tampering.
228
What should be done if classified material is too large to be packaged in envelopes?
If the classified material is too large, it should be enclosed in two opaque, sealed containers, such as boxes or heavy wrappings. If it is an internal component of a packageable item, the outside shell may serve as the inner enclosure.
229
Explain the importance of sealing classified material during transmission.
Sealing classified material is crucial to minimize the possibility of unauthorized access and to provide evidence of tampering if the seal is broken.
230
How should classified written material be packaged to ensure security?
Classified written material should be packaged so that the classified text does not come into direct contact with the inner envelope or container, ensuring an additional layer of security.
231
What special instructions should be included on the inner envelope for classified material?
The inner envelope should include the address of the receiving activity, the highest classification of the material, any Restricted Data markings if appropriate, and any special instructions relevant to the handling of the classified material.
232
Describe the handling of classified material that is an inaccessible internal component of bulky equipment.
If the classified material is an inaccessible internal component of bulky equipment that cannot be reasonably packaged, the outside or body of the item may be considered as the inner enclosure.
233
Describe the requirements for packaging classified material that is not reasonably packageable.
If the classified material is equipment not reasonably packageable and the shell or body is classified, it should be draped with an opaque covering that conceals all classified features. The coverings must be secured to prevent inadvertent exposure.
234
How should specialized shipping containers be used for classified material?
Specialized shipping containers, including closed cargo transporters, may be used instead of standard packaging requirements. In such cases, the container may be considered the outer wrapping or cover.
235
Define the characteristics of materials used for packaging classified items.
Materials used for packaging should be strong and durable to provide security protection during transit, prevent items from breaking out of the container, and detect any tampering.
236
What is the procedure for sealing packages containing classified material?
Packages should be sealed with tape that retains the impression of any postal stamp, minimizing the risk of accidental exposure or undetected compromise.
237
How should classified material be addressed for mailing?
Classified material is normally addressed to a recognized activity rather than an individual. Office codes and division titles may be included to expedite internal routing.
238
Where can one find the correct mailing addresses for classified material?
Consult the current issue of the Standard Navy Distribution List, OPNAVINST 5400.45, which contains the official list of fleet and mobile units and their administrative addresses.
239
What does the term 'transmission' refer to in the context of classified material?
Transmission refers to any movement of classified material from one place to another.
240
What is the basic rule for the transmission of classified material?
The basic rule is that the material must be in the custody of an appropriately cleared individual or in an approved carrier system.
241
What are the transmission requirements for Top Secret material?
Top Secret material cannot be mailed by normal official means; it must be hand-carried by a one-time courier or transmitted via a fully protected cryptographic system.
242
Who is responsible for transmitting Top Secret material?
Top Secret material must be transmitted by specifically cleared and designated personnel.
243
Describe how Secret material can be transmitted within the U.S.
Secret material may be transmitted in the same manner as Top Secret or mailed via the U.S. Postal Service (USPS) as Registered Mail or USPS Express Mail between U.S. Government activities.
244
Define the transmission methods for Confidential material.
Confidential material may be transmitted by any means suitable for Secret material, including First-Class Mail service between DoD activities in the U.S. or its territories.
245
How should material going overseas be sent according to the guidelines?
Material going overseas to APO or FPO addresses should be sent by Registered Mail.
246
What endorsement is required on the outer envelope for USPS First-Class mail between DoD component locations?
The outer envelope or wrapper must be endorsed with 'RETURN SERVICE REQUESTED'.
247
Explain the importance of including a record of receipt when transmitting classified material.
When transmitting classified material, it is essential to enclose a record of receipt in the packaging to ensure accountability.
248
What action should be taken if a record of receipt is not received within 30 days?
If the record of receipt is not received within 30 days, a tracer should be initiated.
249
Describe the protocol for transmitting TS/SCI material.
TS/SCI material should be transmitted only by direct contact between appropriately cleared U.S. personnel or through the Defense Courier Service (DCS) if it qualifies under DoDI 5200.33.
250
What is the role of the Defense Courier Service (DCS)?
The DCS is a joint command under the Commander in Chief United States Transportation Command, responsible for the secure transmission of qualified classified documents and material.
251
What are the requirements for courier station storage vaults in the DCS?
All courier station storage vaults must be accredited for open storage of SCI and designated as a SCIF.
252
What clearance must couriers hold in the DCS?
All couriers must hold a final Top Secret clearance based on a current SSBI and be eligible for SCI access.
253
How does the DCS establish precedence for the movement of material?
The DCS provides two levels of service for movement of qualified material, regular and special, which establishes precedence of movement.
254
What must all commands complete regarding the Defense Courier Service?
All commands must complete a Defense Courier Service Authorization Record (DCS Form 10) outlining all authorized DCS users for that command.
255
Why is the security of material considered paramount in the DCS operations?
The security of material is of paramount importance to ensure the protection of classified information during transmission.
256
Describe the types of material that qualify for DCS handling.
Top Secret information, classified cryptographic and communications security material, classified cryptologic material, cryptographic keying material marked 'CRYPTO' by the NSA, air and space borne imagery material classified SECRET or higher, controlled cryptographic items for shipment outside the 48 contiguous states when no other secure transportation is available, any U.S. classified material that cannot be transmitted in U.S. custody by any other means, Single Integrated Operation Plan (SIOP) material, SECRET or more highly classified operational and/or targeting support material, end of cruise data packages, and Department of State diplomatic courier pouches.
257
Define the materials that are NOT authorized entry into the DCS system.
Contraband including controlled substances, explosives, ammunition, firearms and their components, radioactive or hazardous materials, flammables, liquids, batteries (prohibited from air shipments), currency, military payment certificates, bonds, securities, precious metals, jewels, postage stamps, or other negotiable instruments.
258
How is classified cryptographic material designated for DCS handling?
Classified cryptographic material is designated and marked 'CRYPTO' by the National Security Agency.
259
Do controlled cryptographic items have any restrictions for DCS handling?
Yes, controlled cryptographic items can only be shipped outside the 48 contiguous states when no other means of secure transportation is available.
260
What type of imagery material qualifies for DCS handling?
Air and space borne imagery material classified SECRET or higher qualifies for DCS handling.
261
Explain the significance of the Single Integrated Operation Plan (SIOP) material in DCS handling.
SIOP material is classified as SECRET or more highly classified and is included in the types of material that qualify for DCS handling.
262
How does the DCS system treat hazardous materials?
Hazardous materials, including radioactive and etiological materials, are not authorized entry into the DCS system.
263
What are the implications of including currency in the list of materials not authorized for DCS entry?
Currency, military payment certificates, bonds, securities, precious metals, jewels, postage stamps, or other negotiable instruments are prohibited from DCS handling, indicating strict security measures for financial instruments.
264
Describe the role of the Commander, DCS, regarding battery shipments.
Batteries are prohibited from air shipments by the Federal Aviation Administration or international regulations unless coordinated in advance with the Commander, DCS.
265
What is the classification requirement for operational and targeting support material to qualify for DCS handling?
Operational and targeting support material must be classified as SECRET or more highly classified to qualify for DCS handling.
266
Describe the requirements for storing classified material.
Classified material must be stored only at locations with suitable facilities, as detailed in SECNAVINST 5510.36 (Series). Valuables like money, jewelry, or precious metals should not be stored in the same containers as classified material to reduce theft risk.
267
How should classified material be destroyed?
Classified material must be destroyed by methods such as burning, wet pulping, crosscut shredding, or other mutilation techniques that prevent reconstruction.
268
Define the purpose of posting information on classified material containers.
Posting information on classified material containers identifies persons with access and indicates the priority of destruction, but it must not reveal the level of classified material inside.
269
What precautions should be taken when storing valuables with classified material?
Valuables such as money, jewelry, or precious metals should not be stored in the same containers as classified material to minimize the risk of theft or illegal access.
270
How can one find devices for the destruction of classified material?
Devices used for the destruction of classified material can be found listed on the National Security Agency (NSA) website under the Evaluated Products Listing (EPL).
271
Describe the requirements for recording the destruction of Top Secret material.
Destruction of Top Secret material must be recorded using the Classified Material Destruction Report, OPNAV Form 5511/12, or any other record that includes complete identification of the material, number of copies destroyed, and date of destruction.
272
Define the role of officials responsible for the destruction of classified material.
Officials responsible for the destruction of classified material must have a clearance equal to or greater than the classification level of the material being destroyed.
273
How should the destruction of classified material be documented?
The destruction of classified material should be documented using the Classified Material Destruction Report, OPNAV Form 5511/12, or another record that captures the necessary details such as identification of the material, number of copies destroyed, and date of destruction.
274
What is the purpose of the Classified Material Destruction Report, OPNAV Form 5511/12?
The purpose of the Classified Material Destruction Report, OPNAV Form 5511/12, is to provide a formal record of the destruction of classified materials, ensuring accountability and compliance with security protocols.
275
Explain the importance of having a clearance for officials involved in material destruction.
Having a clearance for officials involved in material destruction is crucial to ensure that only authorized personnel handle sensitive information, thereby maintaining the integrity and security of classified materials.
276
Describe the process for destroying Top Secret information.
Two witnesses must sign the record when the information is placed in a burn bag or destroyed. The TS record of destruction must be retained for five years.
277
How should burn bags be treated in terms of security?
Burn bags should be afforded the same protection as the highest level of material contained within them.
278
Who is allowed to handle burn bags?
Only appropriately cleared personnel may handle burn bags.
279
Define a SCIF.
A SCIF (Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility) is an accredited area, room, group of rooms, buildings, or installation where Sensitive Compartmented Information may be stored, used, discussed, and/or electronically processed.
280
What is required for non-SCI-indoctrinated personnel entering a SCIF?
Non-SCI-indoctrinated personnel must be continuously escorted by an indoctrinated employee familiar with the security procedures of that SCIF.
281
How does physical security for a SCIF function?
Physical security protection for a SCIF is intended to prevent and detect visual, acoustical, technical, and physical access by unauthorized persons.
282
What factors govern the physical security criteria for a SCIF?
Physical security criteria are governed by whether the SCIF is in the United States or not, and include conditions such as closed storage, open storage, continuous operations, and secure working area.
283
What is the retention period for the TS record of destruction?
The TS record of destruction must be retained for five years.
284
Describe the access control measures for a SCIF.
SCIFs will have personnel access control to prevent entry by unauthorized personnel.
285
Describe the accreditation process for a SCIF.
All SCIFs must be accredited by the Senior Official of the Intelligence Community (SOIC) or designee prior to conducting any Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) activities.
286
How should changes to an existing SCIF be handled?
Any changes, additions, or modifications to an existing SCIF must be done in accordance with the requirements outlined in ICD 705.
287
What role does the CSA play in relation to SCIF inspections?
The CSA or appointed representative shall conduct an inspection of the SCIF, and periodic re-inspections shall be based on various factors including threat and past security performance.
288
Define Technical Surveillance Countermeasures (TSCM) evaluations.
TSCM evaluations may be required by the CSA as conditions warrant to ensure the security of the SCIF.
289
How is access to a SCIF controlled?
Access Control Systems are used to identify and/or admit personnel with properly authorized access to a SCIF using physical, electronic, and/or human controls.
290
What must be maintained at the SCIF point of entry?
Access rosters listing all persons authorized access to the facility shall be maintained at the SCIF point of entry.
291
Describe the nature of SCIF inspections.
Inspections may occur at any time, announced or unannounced, and the completed fixed-facility checklist will be reviewed during the inspection to ensure continued compliance.
292
What factors influence the timing of periodic re-inspections of a SCIF?
Periodic re-inspections are based on threat, physical modifications, sensitivity of programs, and past security performance.
293
What types of systems can be used for access control in a SCIF?
Access control can utilize physical, electronic, and/or human controls, including coded security identification cards or badges.
294
Describe the purpose of visitor identification and control in SCIFs.
The purpose is to establish procedures for identifying and controlling visitors seeking access to the SCIF to ensure security.
295
Define Special Access Programs (SAP) in relation to SCIFs.
SAPs often contain highly sensitive information and require secure environments for activities and material storage, but are not typically authorized for operations within SCIFs.
296
How do SAPs affect the security management of SCIFs?
The presence of a SAP, especially if unrelated to SCI activities, can create serious security concerns for the management of the SCIF and the protection of SCI programs.
297
What procedures should be prescribed for entry/exit inspections in SCIFs?
The SSO shall prescribe procedures for inspecting persons, their property, and vehicles at entry or exit points to deter unauthorized removal of classified material and introduction of prohibited items.
298
Explain the role of legal counsel in personnel inspection procedures for SCIFs.
The facility's legal counsel should review all personnel inspection procedures prior to their implementation to ensure compliance with legal standards.
299
What items are allowed in SCIFs according to the established procedures?
Allowed items include electronic calculators, wristwatches, data diaries, and receive-only pagers and beepers.
300
How should the control of electronic devices be managed in SCIFs?
The SSO shall ensure that procedures are instituted for controlling electronic devices and other items that are introduced into or removed from the SCIF.
301
Do entry/exit inspections apply to visitors only or to the entire staff in SCIFs?
The inspections can apply to both visitors and the entire staff, depending on the established procedures.
302
What is the main goal of conducting inspections at SCIF entry and exit points?
The main goal is to deter unauthorized removal of classified material and the introduction of prohibited items or contraband.
