Yerrr Flashcards

1
Q

What is a project performance Domain?

A

A project performance domain is a group of related activities that are critical for the effective delivery of project outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the different project domains?

A

Stakeholders,

Team,

Development Approach and Life Cycle,

Planning,

Project Work,

Delivery,

Measurement, and

Uncertainty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F: The performance domains are present in every project

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the steps for gaining effective stakeholder engagement?

A

Identify
Understand
Analyze
Prioritize
Engage
Monitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some aspects that should be considered when analyzing stakeholders?

A

Attitudes & beliefs
Power
Degree of influence
Proximity to project
Interest in project
*Other aspects that impact their stakeholder interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F: As the project goes on, there will be no need to reprioritize stakeholders.

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain push vs pull communication

A

Push - one way information “pushed” to stakeholders by project team.

Pull - Information intentionally sought by stakeholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some techniques to optimize the env for the tailoring process?

A

Lean methods
Reviewing lessons learned
Determining the best place to spend funding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F: Most times, project managers have contracting & procurement authority.

A

F, they typically work w/in the organizational policies for procurement and they work with contracting officers for contracts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What steps are included in the bid process?

A

Developing and publicizing bid documents
Bidder conferences
Selecting a bidder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What three documents cover the majority of bidding needs?

A

Request for information
Request for proposal
Request for quote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In [predictive/adaptive] projects, only approved projects are added to the baseline.

In [predictive/adaptive] projects, new work can be added to the product backlog, as needed

A
  1. Predictive
  2. Adaptive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Explain explicit vs tacit knowledge

A

Explicit - can be readily codified using words, pictures, or numbers. Ex: manuals, registers, web searches, and databases

Tacit - comprised of experience, insights, and practical knowledge or skill. Ex: networking, interviews, job shadowing, discussion forums, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which domain addresses activities and functions associated with establishing project processes, managing physical resources and fostering a learning environment.

A

The project work performance domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which domain addresses activities and functions associates with delivering the scope & quality that the project was created to achieve?

A

Delivery performance domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some of the focuses of project delivery?

A

meeting the requirements, scope, and quality expectations needed to produce the expected deliverables that drive the intended outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F: Business cases always have the same format.

A

F. format of this business case varies based on the development approach and life cycle selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When ___ requirements, it’s important to document and gain stakeholder agreement.

A

Eliciting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some consequences of ineffective requirements management?

A

rework, scope creep, customer dissatisfaction, budget overruns, schedule delay, and overall project failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The ____ is defined as the sum of the products, services, and results to be provided by the project.

A

Scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A ____ can be used to decompose the scope into lover levels of detail.

A

work breakdown structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can a work breakdown structure benefit a project team?

A

WBS hierarchically breaks down the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the different ways to describe component or project completion?

A

Acceptance or completion criteria.
Technical performance measures.
Definition of done.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The definition of done is used with ____ approaches, particularly in software development projects.

A

Adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F: The faster the project is completed, it decreases the likelihood of “done drift” (the done goal being pushed).

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the four categories of costs associated with quality, per the cost of quality (COQ) methodology?

A

Prevention
Appraisal
Internal failure
External failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why are prevention costs incurred and what are some related activities?

A

They keep defects and failures out of a product and are planned and incurred before actual operation.

Ex: product/service requirements, quality planning & assurance, training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why are appraisal costs incurred and what are some related activities?

A

Appraisal costs measure and monitor activities related to quality. Ex: verification, quality audits, supplier rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why are internal failure costs incurred and what are some related activities?

A

Internal failure costs are associated with finding and correcting defects before the customer receives the product. Ex: Scrape, waste, rework,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why are external failure costs incurred and what are some related activities?

A

External failure costs are associated with defects found after the customer has the product and with remediation.

Ex: Repairs and servicing for returned products, warranty claims, customer complaints, returns, reputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T/F: Early inspection and review work are good investments

A

T. They optimize delivered value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The delivery cadence is based on the way work is structured in the ______Performance Domain

A

Development Approach and Life Cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Project completion metrics are identified in the ____ Performance Domain.

A

Planning Performance Domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The ____ Performance Domain addresses measures and metrics that are used during the project.

A

Measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the benefits of effective measures?

A

Can communicate project status
Help improve project performance
Reduce the likelihood of performance deterioration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two types of KPIs?

A

Leading indicators and lagging indicators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a leading indicator?

A

Leading indicators predict changes or trends in the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are lagging indicators?

A

Lagging indicators measure project deliverables or events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the two types of KPIs are easier to measure?

A

Lagging indicators are easier to measure than leading indicators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are some examples of leading indicators?

A

Lack of a risk management process, Stakeholders who are not available or engaged
Poorly defined project success criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which are tools for fully defining scope?

A

WBS Dictionary
Acceptance Criteria
Scope statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The____ Performance Domain is addresses activities associated with assessing project performance and taking appropriate actions to maintain acceptable performance.

A

Measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some common categories of metrics?

A

Deliverable metrics,

Delivery,

Baseline performance,

Resources,

Business value,

Stakeholders, and

Forecasts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are some customary measures for the products, services, or results being delivered?

A

Information on errors or defects
Measures of performance.
Technical performance measures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What characterizes a measure of performance & what are some examples?

A

Measures of performance characterize physical or functional attributes relating to the system operation.
Examples include size, weight, capacity, accuracy, reliability, efficiency, and similar performance measures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does a technical performance measure benefit the project?

A

The measures are used to ensure that system components meet technical requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

_____ measurements are associated with work in progress and frequently used with the ____ approach.

A

delivery, adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is cycle time?

A

cycle time indicates the amount of time it takes the project team to complete a task.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

T/F: Longer cycle times & lead times make a more productive team.

A

F. Shorter cycle time & lead times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

____ states that queue size is proportional to both the rate of arrival in the queue and the rate of completion of items from the queue.

A

Little’s Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is process efficiency calculated?

A

calculates the ratio between value-adding time and non-value-adding activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The most common baselines are __ and ___

A

cost and schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How can comparing start & finish dates be helpful?

A

measure the extent to which work is accomplished as planned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

looking at performance on the critical path determines…

A

simple schedule variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does burn rate measure?

A

Also referred to as “cost compared to planned cost” & measures just that

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does Cost performance index (CPI) measure?

A

An earned value management measure that indicates how efficiently the work is being performed with regard to the budgeted cost of the work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the two measures for resource management?

A

Planned resource utilization compared to actual resource utilization & Planned resource cost compared to actual resource cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the purpose of business value measurements?

A

used to ensure the project deliverable stays aligned to the business case and the benefits realization plans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Cost-benefit ratio, Planned benefits delivery compared to actual benefits delivery, Return on investment (ROI) & Net present value (NPV) represent what type of metrics?

A

financial business value metrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How do you calculate Net present value?

A

The difference between the present value of inflows of capital and the present value of outflows of capital over a period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What metrics can be used to measure stakeholder satisfaction?

A

Net Promoter Score(NPS)
Mood chart
Morale Survey
Turnover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does a Net Promoter Score (NPS) measure?

A

measures the degree to which a stakeholder (usually the customer) is willing to recommend a product or service to others. It measures a range from -100 to +100 and also indicates customer loyalty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What measures can be used for Quantitative forecasts?

A

Estimate to complete (ETC)
Estimate at completion (EAC)
Variance at completion
To-complete performance index (TCPI)
Regression analysis.
Throughput analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Estimate to complete (ETC) vs Estimate at completion (EAC)

A

ETC forecasts the expected cost to finish all the remaining project work while EAC forecasts the expected total cost of completing all work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Budget at completion (BAC) minus the estimate at completion (EAC) = ?

A

Variance at completion (VAC)
i.e the amount of budget deficit or surplus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The ratio of the cost to finish the outstanding work to the remaining budget is called…?

A

To-complete performance index (TCPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

T/F: Regression analysis can be used to infer future performance.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the benefits of Information radiators?

A

They are visible, physical displays that provide information to the rest of the organization, enabling timely knowledge sharing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Burnup vs burndown charts

A

A burnup chart can track the amount of work done compared to the expected work that should be done. A burndown chart can show the number of story points remaining or the amount of risk exposure that has been reduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is meant by “velocity” in project management?

A

Velocity measures the productivity rate at which the deliverables are produced, validated, and accepted within a predefined interval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

T/F: A team that only has their output measured may be influenced to focus on creating a large volume of deliverables rather than focusing on deliverables that would provide higher customer satisfaction.

A

T. This is an example of the Hawthorne effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are some potential negative affects that cam arise from measurements?

A

Hawthorne effect.
Vanity metric
Team Demoralization
Misusing the metrics.
Confirmation bias.
Correlation versus causation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the purpose of an exception plan?

A

It’s an agreed-upon set of actions to be taken if a threshold is crossed or forecast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

T/F: Exception plans are formal.

A

F. They can be as simple as calling a stakeholder meeting to discuss the matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are some good guidelines to follow in terms of determining which metrics to measure?

A

The metrics chosen should do the following:
Allow the project team to learn,

Facilitate a decision,

Improve some aspect of the product or project performance,

Help avoid an issue,

Prevent performance deterioration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Threats vs Opportunities OR Negative risk vs positive risk

A

Potential outcomes that benefit the project objectives are known as opportunities; potential outcomes that have a negative effect on objectives are called threats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are some methods to mitigating general uncertainty?

A

Gather information
Prepare for multiple outcomes.
Set-based design (aka, having multiple project designs)
Build in resilience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Conceptual ambiguity vs situational ambiguity

A

Conceptual ambiguity is the lack of effective understanding & occurs when people use similar terms or arguments in different ways.
Situational ambiguity surfaces when more than one outcome is possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are some methods to mitigating ambiguity?

A

Progressive elaboration
Experiments
Prototypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

____ is a characteristic of a program, project, or its environment, which is difficult to manage due to human behavior, system behavior, or ambiguity.

A

Complexity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the different types of complexity?

A

Systems-based
Process based
Need reframing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are some methods to mitigate systems-based complexity?

A

Decoupling - disconnecting parts of the system to both simplify the system and reduce the number of connected variables
Simulation - using similar though unrelated scenarios to simulate components of a system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are some methods to mitigate complexity that needs reframing?

A

Diversity - viewing the system from diverse perspectives.

Balance - using various data types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are some methods to mitigate process based complexity?

A

Build iteratively
Engage stakeholders
Fail safe- build in redundancy or elements that can provide a graceful degradation of functionality in the event of a critical component failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What environment does volatility need?

A

environment that is subject to rapid and unpredictable change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

T/F: Volatility usually impacts cost and schedule

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are some methods to mitigate volatility?

A

Alternatives analysis
Reserve - can be used to cover budget overruns due to price volatility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are some methods to mitigate threats?

A

Avoid
Escalate
Transfer
Mitigate
Accept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are some methods to handle opportunities?

A

Exploit
Escalate
Share
Enhance
Accept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How does the “escalate” strategy work for opportunities & threats?

A

For opportunities and threats, the “escalate” strategy is appropriate when the project team or the project sponsor agrees that a threat is outside the scope of the project or that the proposed response would exceed the project manager’s authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How does the “escalate” strategy work for opportunities & threats?

A

For opportunities and threats, accepting an opportunity or threat acknowledges its existence but no proactive action is planned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Management Reserve vs Contingency Reserve

A

A contingency reserves is to in case identified risks occur. Management reserves are set aside for unplanned events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are some benefits of tailoring?

A

More commitment from project team who participated in the tailoring process

More focus on the customer

More efficient resource usage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What aspects of the project can be tailored?

A

Life cycle and development approach selection

Processes

Engagement

Tools

Methods and artifacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How can a process be tailored after selecting the life cycle and development approach?

A

Process tailoring determines what should be:

Added, Modified, Removed , Blended and/or Aligned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is included in tailoring engagement for the people involved in the project?

A

People

Empowerment

Integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the typical step in the tailoring project?

A
  1. Choose development approach best for the project
  2. Modify based on organization
  3. Adjust further based on project details like size, criticality, etc
  4. Implement and improve as needed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

T/F: there is a tool that help project determine which development approach to use.

A

T. The suitability filter is an informational tool that combines its assessment with other data and decision-making activities so that the tailored approach is appropriate for each project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

T/F: Many organizations have no stake in the tailoring process.

A

F. Organizations that have established process governance need to ensure tailoring is aligned to policy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are some attributes that influence project tailoring?

A

Product/deliverable

Project team

Culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are some attributes that influence project tailoring that are associated with the deliverable/product?

A

Compliance/criticality
Time frame
Type of product/deliverable
Stability of requirements
Industry market
Security
Technology
Incremental delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are some attributes that influence project tailoring that are associated with the project team?

A

Size
Geography/Location
Experience
Access to customer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are some attributes that influence project tailoring that are associated with org culture?

A

Buy in
Trust
Empowerment
Org culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

T/F: There is no tailoring of the work involved in performance domains

A

F. Work associated with each performance domain can also be tailored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the types of associated costs tied to the use of models, methods, and artifacts?

A

Time, level of expertise/proficiency in use, impact on productivity, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the purpose of a model?

A

A model helps to explain how something works in the real world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

T/F: Leadership styles can also be tailored.

A

T.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Describe the elements of Ken Blanchard’s Situational Leadership II model.

A

It measures project team member development using competence and commitment. Leadership style evolves as the project team member’s competence and commitment evolve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Utilizing Ken Blanchard’s Situational Leadership II model, what would be the different leadership phases as a team member’s competence and commitment grows?

A

The leadership style evolves from directing to coaching to supporting to delegating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the contributing factors to the OSCAR model.

A

Outcome
Situation
Choices/consequences
Actions
Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Which leadership model was designed to help individuals adapt their coaching or leadership styles to support individuals who have an action plan for personal development?

A

The Oscar model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Who developed a communication model that incorporates the idea that how a message is transmitted by the sender & received by the receiver influenced by many factors, such as knowledge, experience, language, thinking, and communication styles, etc

A

Browaeys and Price

113
Q

Who developed a communication model that describes communication channels along the axes of “effectiveness” and “richness”

A

Alistair Cockburn

114
Q

What is the definition of “richness”, as it pertains to communication?

A

Richness in communication allows a broad spectrum of information to be conveyed rapidly.

115
Q

T/F: Situations that entail complex, complicated, and personal information benefit from richer communication channels, such as an email or note.

A

F. Face-to-face communication is the richer communication channel

116
Q

Who developed a communication model that describes the difference between the intention of a user and what the item allows them to do or supports them in doing

A

Donald Norman

117
Q

Gulf of Execution vs Gulf of Evaluation

A

gulf of execution as the degree to which an item corresponds with what a person expects it to do

gulf of evaluation is the degree to which an item supports the user in discovering how to interpret the item and interact with it effectively

118
Q

What are examples of some motivational factors?

A

Content of the work, such as achievement, growth, and advancement.

119
Q

T/F: Frederick Herzberg believed that insufficient motivational factors lead to dissatisfaction

A

T

120
Q

T/F: In the long run, extrinsic motivation is more effective.

A

F, intrinsic motivators are far longer lasting and more effective

121
Q

What are the types of intrinsic motivators?

A

Autonomy, mastery, purpose

122
Q

Which model states that all people are driven by needs of achievement, power, and affiliation

A

David McClellan’s Theory of Needs

123
Q

In the Theory of Needs, what factors determine the strength of each need?

A

An individual’s experiences and culture

124
Q

What is the purpose of Douglas McGregor Theory X-Z models?

A

It represents a spectrum of employee motivation and corresponding management styles.

125
Q

What is the assumption and corresponding management style for Theory X?

A

The assumption is that individuals work only for income & have no goals. The corresponding management style to motivate these individuals is a hands-on and top-down approach.

126
Q

Which is a key factor in selecting tools for a project?

A

Budgetary constraints

127
Q

What is the assumption and corresponding management style for Theory Y?

A

The assumption is that individuals are intrinsically motivated to do good work. The corresponding management style is more of a personal coaching feel, with an emphasis in creativity and discussion.

128
Q

What is the assumption and corresponding management style for Theory Z?

A

The assumptions is that individuals are motivated by self-realization, values, and a higher calling. The corresponding management style is one that promotes high productivity, morale, and satisfaction.

129
Q

Which iterative model is based on common elements across a range of change management models?

A

Managing Change in Organizations: A Practice Guide [3]

130
Q

What are the 5 elements of the Managing Change in Organizations: A Practice Guide [3] model?

A

Formulate change (why is change needed?
Plan change
Implement change
Manage change
Sustain change

131
Q

What are the 5 steps in Jeff Hiatt’s ADKAR® Model?

A

Awareness
Desire
Knowledge
Ability
Reinforcement

132
Q

T/F: John Kotter’s 8-Step Process for Leading Change is a bottom-up approach to promote transformational change throughout an org.

A

F. It’s a top down approach promoted through layers of management

133
Q

What are the 8-Steps in the 8-Step Process for Leading Change model?

A

Create urgency
Form a power coalition
Create a vision
Communicate the vision
Remove obstacles
Create short term wins
Build on the change (of the short term wins)
Anchor the change in corporate culture

134
Q

What is the purpose of Virginia Satir’s Change Model?

A

To help project team members understand what they are feeling and enable them to cope more efficiently with change.

135
Q

What are the phases in Virginia Satir/s Change Model?

A

Late status quo - everything is familiar
The foreign element - something shifts the status quo
Chaos - People are no longer comfortables & performance drops
The transforming idea - People start to cope & work performance begins to increase
Practice & integration - performance higher that it was pre-change
New status quo

136
Q

What is change vs transition, according to William Bridges’ Transition Model.

A

Change is situational and happens whether or not people transition through it. Transition is a psychological process where people gradually accept the details of the new situation and the changes that come with it.

137
Q

What are the three stages of William Bridges’ Transitional Model?

A

Ending, losing, and letting go
The neutral zone
The new beginning

138
Q

Which framework is used to diagnose cause-and-effect relationships as a decision-making aid.

A

The Cynefin framework

139
Q

What is the purpose of the Cynefin framework?

A

It helps identify behaviors, such as probing, sensing, responding, acting, and categorizing, which can help impact the relationships between variables and guide actions.

140
Q

What is a complicated relationship according to the Cynefin Framework and what should be done in the situation?

A

Complicated relationships exist when there is a set of known unknowns or a range of correct answers. In these situations, it is best to assess the facts, analyze the situation, and apply good practices.

141
Q

What is a complex relationship according to the Cynefin Framework and what should be done in the situation?

A

Complex relationships include unknown unknowns. There is no apparent cause and effect, and there are no obvious right answers. In complex environments, one should probe the environment, sense the situation, and respond with action.

142
Q

What is a chaotic relationship according to the Cynefin Framework and what should be done in the situation?

A

In chaotic environments, the cause and effects are unclear. In these situations, the first step is to take action to try and stabilize the situation, then sense where there is some stability, and respond by taking steps to get the chaotic situation to a complex situation.

143
Q

What is the difference between the Stacey matrix and the Cynefin framework?

A

The stacy matrix is a model used to analyze the level of certainty and agreement within a project. It categorizes projects into four quadrants based on the degree of certainty and agreement regarding project goals.
The Cynefin Framework, developed by Dave Snowden, is a sense-making model used to understand the nature of problems and make decisions in complex environments.
It categorizes problems into five domains based on the relationship between cause and effect

144
Q

What are the five stages of tea, development, according to Bruce Tuckman?

A

Forming, storming, norming, and performing

145
Q

T/F: not all project teams achieve the performing or even the norming stages.

A

T

146
Q

What are the seven steps of the Drexler/Sibbet Team Performance Model

A

Orientation - team learns project purpose (Why)
Trust building - who
Goal clarification - what
Commitment - how
Implementation
High Performance
Renewal

147
Q

T/F: Conflict is always a bad thing.

A

F. Conflict can be healthy and productive when handled well.

148
Q

What is the purpose of Ken Thomas and Ralph Kilmann’s conflict model?

A

addressing conflict by focusing on the relative power between the individuals and the desire to maintain a good relationship

149
Q

What are the six ways of addressing conflict in Ken Thomas and Ralph Kilmann’s model?

A

Confronting/problem solving.
Collaborating
Compromising
Smoothing/accommodating.
Forcing
Withdrawal/avoiding.

150
Q

What are the different possible outcomes in Steven Covey’s “Think Win-Win.”

A

Win-win
Win-lose/lose-win
lose-lose

151
Q

What are the best elements for a win-win perspective?

A

Character, trust and approach

152
Q

Which performance domain(s) typically use motivation models?

A

Team, Planning & Project work domains

153
Q

Which performance domain(s) typically use change models?

A

Stakeholders, planning and project work

154
Q

Which performance domain(s) typically use complexity models?

A

Dev approach & lifecycle, planning, project work, delivery and uncertainty

155
Q

Which performance domain(s) typically use project team development models?

A

Team and project work

156
Q

Which performance domain(s) typically use situational leadership models?

A

Team and project work

157
Q

What is IRR?

A

IRR (internal rate of return) is the projected annual yield of a project investment, incorporating both initial and ongoing costs into an estimated percentage growth rate a given project is expected to have.

158
Q

What are the purpose of estimating methods?

A

used to develop an approximation of work, time, or cost on a project.

159
Q

Which performance domain utilizes estimating methods?

A

Planning

160
Q

Which performance domain most likely utilizes meeting and event methods?

A

Project work

161
Q

A ____ is a template, document, output, or project deliverable.

A

artifact

162
Q

T/F: Logs & registers are developed at the start of a project and do not normally change, though they may be reviewed throughout the project.

A

F. They are updated throughout the project. Strategy artifacts are not changed.

163
Q

Give an example of a strategy artifact

A

Project charter
Business case
Vision statement
Roadmap

164
Q

What are hierarchy charts?

A

Charts with high-level information that progressively decompose into greater levels of detail as more information is known about the project.

165
Q

Which performance domain most likely utilizes strategy artifacts?

A

Stakeholders and planning

166
Q

Which performance domain most likely utilizes log & register artifacts?

A

Project work (the other domains utilized vary depending on the exact method)

167
Q

Which performance domain most likely utilizes agreements and contracts?

A

Stakeholders

Planning

Project Work

Delivery

Measurement

Uncertainly

168
Q

Which performance domain most likely utilizes report artifacts?

A

Project work

169
Q

Which performance domain most likely utilizes baseline artificats?

A

Planning

Project Work

Measurement

170
Q

What are the steps in the Deming cycle?

A

Plan [Project]
Do [The plan]
Check [plan steps & ensure correct results]
Act [if something went wrong]

171
Q

How many times can the Deming cycle be done in a projects?

A

The steps are repeated as many times as necessary.

172
Q

What are some examples of quality management tools?

A

bar charts, checklists, control charts, fishbone diagrams, Pareto charts, run charts, scatter diagrams

173
Q

A SWOT diagram is used when analyzing ___

A

risk

174
Q

What are the “high-level” integration management processes?

A

Develop Project Management plan

Direct and Manage Project Work

Monitor and Control Project Work

175
Q

What activities are included in the high-level integration process of Developing the Project Management Plan?

A

Creating the high-level project management plan and coordinating the creation of the subsidiary components & artifacts of the plan. Ex: risk management & quality management plan

176
Q

What activities are included in the high-level integration process of Directing and Managing Project Work?

A

Creating the project deliverables and the work performance data

177
Q

What activities are included in the high-level integration process of

A

PM provides oversight on the project. Ex: control schedule, control risks

178
Q

T/F: A business plan is the first document in every project

A

F. The project charter starts the project

179
Q

What are the primary & secondary outputs for The Direct and Manage Project Work Process?

A

Deliverables are the primary output, work performance information is the secondary output

180
Q

T/F: Lessons learned is done only at the end of a project

A

F. It’s done on an ongoing basisi

181
Q

Outcome vs Output

A

An outcome is an tangible or intangible performed task, activity or process that result from project activities

An output is a tangible products or deliverables

182
Q

Which metric is used to determine how much time it will take for the project to generate the initial investment value?

A

Payback period

183
Q

What metric would be best to use when determining which projects will be the most profitable?

A

internal rate of return, or IRR

184
Q

How is ROI calculated?

A

comparing the net gain or loss relative to the initial investment cost

185
Q

A project has a +2 NPV. Is the project
a) profitable
b)non profitable
C) neutral

A

A. All positive NPVs are profitable

186
Q

How is NPV useful in determining project proitability?

A

NPV calculates the net value of an investment in today’s dollars, taking into account the time value of money. It discounts future cash flows back to their present value using a discount rate, typically the project’s cost of capital or required rate of return.

187
Q

___ is a statistical concept that estimates the amount of money that could be made in varying scenarios

A

Expected money value (EMV)

188
Q

What visual tool can be used to show dependencies & interdependencies in a project?

A

Influence Diagram

189
Q

What is a life cycle assessment?

A

Life cycle assessment involves evaluating the environmental impact of a product or a project throughout its entire life cycle

190
Q

What is sensitivity analysis?

A

A tool pms use to understand how certain changes may impact project outcomes

191
Q

How can affinity grouping be useful in estimating?

A

Grouping similar tasks can help with estimating the amount of effort, time and cost it would take to complete it.

192
Q

____ estimating relied on historical project data to make estimates for the current project

A

Analogous aka top down

193
Q

Describe function point analysis.

A

It is a method of estimation of the work and time needed for used for software development projects. It quantifies the functionality of the product

194
Q

Describe multipoint estimation.

A

It’s a estimation tool that provides multiple time, cost and work estimates for a task.

195
Q

Describe parametric estimation.

A

Mathematical models are used to provide statistical relationships to estimate the work, time and cost between project variable and historical data.

196
Q

Multipoint & parametric estimation similarities & differences

A

Both tools address uncertainty. Multipoint offers many possibilities, parametric uses historical data for a more accurate estimation.

197
Q

What is another name for comparative estimating?

A

Relative estimation

198
Q

Describe single point estimation

A

A single value is given to represent the work, time or cost of an activity

199
Q

T/F: The best time to use single point estimation is when there is high degree of uncertainty.

A

F. It’s best to use this method when there is a high degree of certainty.

200
Q

Describe story points.

A

In agile, story points are given during the Sprint planning. They represent the elative size, complexity, and effort required for user stories or tasks and are usually used for software development.

201
Q

Describe Wideband Delphi.

A

Team members give their input & that’s how the estimate is created.

202
Q

In what scenario are bidder confident meetings crucial?

A

In procurement & vendor management.

203
Q

What types of meetings are common in Agile, particularly Scrum?

A

Iteration planning , iteration review, Backlog refinement, Daily standup meetings, retrospective meetings

204
Q

Which meeting type help maintain project scope & prevent scope creep?

A

Change control

205
Q

During what time(s) in the project can lessons learned meeting occur?

A

At the end of each phase and/or at the end of the project

206
Q

What topics must be defined during a project planning meeting?

A

Project scope

Objectives

Schedules

Budget

Resource allocation

207
Q

What is the purpose of steering committee meetings?

A

Key stakeholders ensure that project is aligned with org objectives & items receive necessary approvals

208
Q

What is the benefit of measuring meeting effectiveness?

A

Understanding how meeting contribute to decision making, determining if the time was used well & finding areas of strength and/or improvement

209
Q

What are some methods of measuring effectiveness?

A

Feedback forms
Surveys
Number of completed mtg action items
Attendance

210
Q

Describe impact mapping.

A

A collaborative visual, strategic tool that utilizes SMART goals to convey project goals, objectives and outcomes

211
Q

How does impact mapping differ from other mapping techniques?

A

Impact mapping helps prioritize project features that will contribute most to achieving project objectives

212
Q

How does impact mapping help prevent scope creep?

A

Maintains project focus and prevents unnecessary additions

213
Q

What are the benefit of using models?

A

Models help PMs gain deeper insight into complex scenarios and discover any gaps or missing elements so the PM can communicate with the team & can resolve them.

214
Q

What is abstraction?

A

Abstraction is a fundamental modeling principle that involves removing unnecessary details while simplifying complex aspects of the project.

215
Q

T/F: The more complex a problem is, the more imperative it is to create a model

A

F. When a problem is too complex, creating an equally complex model may not be beneficial.

216
Q

Describe roadmaps.

A

Road maps are a visual project timeline w/ milestones & key activities that help project teams stay on track.

217
Q

What are the benefits of simple & dynamic models?

A

Simple models are helpful for understanding a structure’s systems.

Dynamic models help pm’s understand how a system changes over time and how it will react in different conditions.

218
Q

What are the two main principles in modeling?

A

Abstraction and simplification

219
Q

What is the MoSCoW method & what does it stand for?

A

It’s a prioritization tool.

M = Must have - non negotiable project items

S = should have - important but not critical for project success

C= could have - desirable items

W = will not have - exceed project scope

220
Q

Describe the Impact-Effort matrix & how is it used.

A

It’s a visual prioritization tool. Feasibility, desirability and viability are on a grid, and project tasks are plotted on the the grid. Each tasks receives a score, then all the tasks are ranked by score.

221
Q

Describe the RICE method & how is it used.

A

It’s a prioritization tool.

R= number of users/customers who will be “reached” (ie benefit) by the project [feature]
I =impact the project [feature] will have on org stakeholders
C= confidence of project [feature] success
E= effort required to complete project [feature]

222
Q

T/F: In the RICE prioritization method, lower effort projects and/or project features have higher priority.

A

T, since lower effort means that task and/or project is easier to do & potentially gain revenue.

223
Q

Describe the Kano model, how is it used & it’s elements.

A

The model is a graph that classifies project [features] based on customer satisfaction and functionality & places items into one of 4 groups:

Basic needs - minimum requirements that customer will be dissatisfied if they don’t have, but don’t delight them,

Meeting performance needs - the features please customers, but they’re not dissatisfied if they’re not there

Excitement needs - features excite customers, but their absence doesn’t dissatisfy them

Different needs - features neither satisfy or dissatisfy the customer

224
Q

What is timeboxing?

A

Assigning specific amount of time that’s dedicated to a project task, activity or phase & using a timer to track it.

225
Q

T/F: Setting up a timer is a fundamental part of timeboxing

A

T. It helps to signal when it’s time to move on to another task

226
Q

T/F: It’s suggested to reflect after timeboxing

A

F. Reflection is an essential part of timeboxing

227
Q

Describe Net promotor Score, how is it used & it’s elements.

A

NPS is a survey from 1-10 that indicates customer satisfaction, loyalty, which helps determine how likely they are to recommend the product. The higher score indicates satisfaction.

228
Q

What are the categories of customers for NPS

A

Detractors, promotors, and indecisive customers.

229
Q

A majority of data gathering and analysis methods are utilized in which domain(s)?

A

Planning & Measurement

230
Q

Describe the business canvas model.

A

This artifact is a one page documents that is divided into each aspect of the business model & gives an overview of how value is created in the org.

231
Q

Describe the project brief.

A

This artifact provides a list of processes that need to be followed to achieve project objectives

232
Q

What is the purpose of a project vision statement?

A

It lets people know what the project aims to achieve, the org future state and why the project work is being done.

233
Q

What is the purpose of the assumption long?

A

It documents project assumptions and constraints.

234
Q

What is the purpose of a backlog?

A

It’s a list of project to-dos. Typically organized by priority. Used to efficiently manage work.

235
Q

What is the purpose of a change log?

A

It’s a record of all the project changes and it’s associated documents. It helps stakeholders know how the project evolved overtime.

236
Q

What is the purpose of an issue log?

A

Issues are recorded and assigned to someone for follow-up & resolution. It’s a proactive way of addressing issues.

237
Q

T/F: The lessons learned register is a tool for improvement.

A

T.

238
Q

T/F: The risk adjusted backlog is assists in keeping all risk related items in one document.

A

T

239
Q

What is the purpose of an Organizational Breakdown Structure?

A

It’s the hierarchical representation of a projects org structure & let’s people know who they report to.

240
Q

What is the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure?

A

It’s the hierarchical representation of the project’s main deliverables.

241
Q

What is the purpose of a Resource Breakdown Structure?

A

It’s the hierarchical representation of project resources and details the type of resources available at each level

242
Q

What is the purpose of a Risk Breakdown Structure?

A

It’s the hierarchical representation of project risk & how to identify and manage risks specifically.

243
Q

Why is the work breakdown structure so useful?

A

It serves as a roadmap for successful project execution.

244
Q

What is the purpose of project baselines?

A

They help trach project progress & ensure the project is on track

245
Q

T/F: The budget is a project baseline

A

T. It’s a way to track expenses

246
Q

What artifact is used to track if a project has reached it’s projected achievements on schedule?

A

Milestone schedule

247
Q

Which artifact is used to monitor & control project performance, and track any deviations from the original plan?

A

Performance measurement baseline

248
Q

T/F: The project schedule is not an artifact.

A

F. The project schedule is a very important project artifact.

249
Q

Burndown & burnup charts similarities & differences

A

Both are visual charts used in to display Agile sprint progress over time. Burnup shows the completed work, burndown shows the remaining work.

250
Q

The ___ diagram, aka the fishbone diagram, is a visual representation used to identify the root cause of a problem

A

Ishikawa aka cause & effect

251
Q

Which artifact is a visual representation used to identify bottle necks in Kanban & lean methodologies?

A

cumulative flow diagram or CFD.

252
Q

What is story mapping?

A

An agile tool used to plan & prioritize product features.

253
Q

What are some common reports used in PM?

A

Quality reports, risk reports and status reports

254
Q

A fixed price contract is best when the scope is___.

A

Well defined

255
Q

Describe a time & materials contrcat

A

T&M contracts are used when the scope is not well defined. The seller is paid a daily and/or hourly labor rate. Risk is completely on project manager

256
Q

T/F: MOU’s carry no legal weight, but MOA’s do.

A

T

257
Q

Describe an SLA.

A

A service level agreement is a type of contract that specifies the expected metrics & performance standards from the seller.

258
Q

_____, aka BOAs, streamline the procurement process.

A

Basic ordering agreements

259
Q

Describe the activity list.

A

This artifact is a list of activities & breaks down each activity in detail. It’s critical for project planning and execution.

260
Q

Explain the purpose of an RFI.

A

gathers info on potential vendors & learn about their capabilities

261
Q

What type of project is a RFQ most suitable for?

A

Bets for projects with well defined requirements.

262
Q

What type of project is an RFP most suitable for?

A

Complex projects when project specifications are not fully known

263
Q

Which document contains instructions on how the project team will operate?

A

Charter

264
Q

Describe user stories

A

A brief narrative of a user’s experience with a product/system. Typically used in Agile methodologies, like scrum.

265
Q

Which performance domain(s) use(s) strategy artifacts, (ie. business case, project charter, vision statement)

A

Stakeholders, planning

266
Q

Which performance domain(s) use(s) log & register artifacts?

A

Project work

267
Q

Which performance domain(s) use(s) plan artifacts?

A

Planning, project work (some)

268
Q

Which performance domain(s) use(s) hierarchy chart artifacts?

A

Planning

269
Q

Which performance domain(s) use(s) baseline artifacts?

A

Planning, project work, measurement

270
Q

Which performance domain(s) use(s) visual data and information artifacts?

A

Measurement, project work

271
Q

Which performance domain(s) use(s) report artifacts?

A

Planning

272
Q

Which performance domain(s) use(s) agreement and contracts artifacts?

A

Stakeholders, planning, project work, delivery, measurement, uncertainty

273
Q

What factors should be considered when looking for an agile framework?

A

Team make up (size, strengths, agile experience, etc)
Project timelines
Org culture & size
Customer wants/needs

274
Q

What are the three phases of disciplined agile?

A

Inception, construction and transition (to release products)

275
Q

What are the agile values shown in the agile manifesto?

A

People & interactions over processes & tools (customer focused)
Working software over documentation
Customer collaboration over negotiation and responding to issues
Responding to change over following a plan

276
Q

What is the process for planning an agile sprint?

A

Meeting
Refine backlog and prioritize stories
Refine, clarify and understand stories
Do the work
Obtain feedback

277
Q
A
278
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Scrum product owner?

A

They define and prioritize the product backlog and ensure the product meets the stakeholder/customer’s needs.

279
Q

What is SAFe?

A

SARe is an agile methodology for large organizations that promotes lean values and transparency at all org levels.