Zone of Forgetting Flashcards
1
Q
A change in rxn condition that has no affect on Le Chatelier’s Principle
A
Addition of a catalyst; only affects the rate at which equilibrium is reached, not the position itself
2
Q
Gases become ___ soluble when heated and most salts become ___ soluble when heated.
A
Gases become less soluble when heated and most salts become more soluble when heated.
(directly proportional)
Gases become more soluble when temperature is decreased and most salts become less soluble when temperature is decreased.
3
Q
Rate is to kinetics as low stability is to
A
thermodynamics
4
Q
increase in products inhibits transcription
A
transcriptional negative feedback regulation
5
Q
inhibitor binds to non-active site to influence enzyme activity
A
allosteric regulation
6
Q
product-suppressed gene that created it
A
product gene suppression regulation
7
Q
inherited in a recessive fashion means
A
female can have one copy and just carry. Y can have disease if mom is a carrier
8
Q
uses mRNA as a template to make proteins
A
reverse transcriptase
9
Q
disease skips a generation
A
recessive
10
Q
disease does not skip a generation
A
dominant
11
Q
cDNA is
A
copy DNA
12
Q
exons =
A
coding
13
Q
introns =
A
non-coding
14
Q
exons get strung together to make
A
proteins
15
Q
peptide bonds form two
A
amino acids
16
Q
type of bonding of disulfide bonds
A
covalent; S-S
17
Q
glycosidic linkage joins two
A
sugars
18
Q
situationships -> weak attractive forces between molecules close in proximity to one another
A
Van der Waals forces
19
Q
cysteine contains a ____ side chain
A
thiol
20
Q
serine contains a ____ side chain
A
hydroxyl
21
Q
charge of lysine
A
+1
22
Q
contains a polar hydroxyl group and a non-polar aromatic ring; very important for tyrosine derived hormones
A
tyrosine
23
Q
will visualize the thiols in a rxn and nothing else making it impossible to see if a rxn occurred
A
anti-thiol antibodies
24
Q
binds to biotin then passes through column leading to separation and detection
A
advin, streptavidin
25
separation of proteins based on size
western blot
26
separates molecular identity based on mass to charge ratio
mass spectroscopy
27
thiolates are the deprotonated form of
thiols
28
increase in pKA, ____ in acid strength
decrease
29
decrease in pKA, ____ in acid strength
increase
30
one or more hydroxyl groups attached to benzene
phenol
31
gains electrons (bonds) and is reduced
oxidizing agent (OIL RIG)
32
loses electrons (bonds) and is oxidized
reducing agent (OIL RIG)
33
adding -H is
reduction (being oxidized)
34
removing -H is
oxidation (being reduced)
35
increase catalytic sites will ____ total enzyme concentration
increase
36
the catabolic breakdown of fatty acids
beta oxidation
37
yield of ATP from one round of beta-oxidation
14 ATP
FADH2 = 1.5 ATP
NADH = 2.5 ATP
Acetyl CoA = 10 ATP
38
beta oxidation of fatty acids
39
glucogenic AA incorporate into the Krebs cycle through
conversion into krebs intermediate or pyruvate; ultimately converted to glucose
40
ketogenic AA enter Krebs through
conversion into acetyl-CoA a precursor to citrate
41
independent variable
(x) cause
42
dependent variable
(y) effect
43
the main source of energy for cells and vital part of aerobic respiration
tricarboxylic acid cycle: TCA
44
Determining the concentration factor of a proteasome and substrate requires calculating
the ratio of the substrate to the proteasome
45
equation to calculate kcat
kcat= Vmax/[E]
46
Excitation of bound electrons occurs with
absorption of UV light by organic molecules
47
Column chromatography using silica gel will separate based on _____. The ______ ______ compound will elute first.
Column chromatography using silica gel will separate based on polarity. The least polar compound will elute first.
47
The half-life of a radioactive material is
the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei.
47
The tertiary structure is the structure of the ____ protein.
fully folded
47
The phosphate furthest away from the ribose in ATP is called
gamma
47
Phosphorylation to a non-charged amino acid will result in a _____ charged molecule
negatively
48
Less unfolding of a protein means more
stability
48
What are the structural features possessed by storage lipids?
Three fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol
49
In an electrochemical cell, oxidation, a loss of electrons, always occurs at the ______, and ______ occurs at the cathode.
anode, reduction
50
Half reactions of Zn and Cu in electrochemical cell
51
If Keq > 1, then ΔG° < 0 because
ΔG° = –RT(lnK).
52
adding acid to reactants containing a base with decrease reactant concentration and shift equilibrium to the
left
53
the coordination number is the number of atoms bonded to
a central atom
54
NH3 is a stronger Lewis base than H2O because
the nitrogen atom is less electronegative than the oxygen atom.
This results in the oxygen atom having a stronger attraction for its lone pairs of electrons, making them less available for donation and H2O less Lewis basic than NH3.
55
second ionization energy of alkaline earth metals is
small
56
The dissolution of CaCO3 is CaCO3(s) ⇌ Ca2+(aq) + CO32–(aq) and the solubility product constant expression is Ksp = [Ca2+] [CO32–] . Equal amounts of Ca2+ and CO32– are produced when CaCO3 dissolves in solution, so the expression reduces to
x2 = 4.9 × 10–9, which is equal to 49 × 10–10. Taking the square root, x = 7.0 × 10–5 M.
57
The systolic blood pressure, which is the pressure exerted on the blood vessel walls when the heart is contracting, was 130 mmHg. Blood flow will be heard if
the blood pressure during systole is greater than the pressure in the cuff. Consequently, when the pressure in the cuff is greater than 130 mmHg, blood flow will not be heard.
58
Purines base pair with
pyrimidines. Purines do not base pair with purines, and pyrimidines do not base pair with pyrimidines.
59
One DNA strand begins at the 5ʹ-end and ends at the 3ʹ-end, and the complementary DNA strand is oriented
in the opposite direction (3ʹ to 5ʹ).
60
Sugar phosphate backbones form the
exterior of the double helix.
61
A glass rod is rubbed with a silk scarf producing a charge of +3.2 × 10–9 C on the rod. (Recall that the magnitude of the proton and electron charges is 1.6 × 10–19 C.) The glass rod has:
The number of charges in excess can be computed as +3.2 × 10−9 C/1.6 × 10−19 C = +2.0 × 1010. This means that the rod has an excess of positive charge created by removing a number of 2.0 × 1010 electrons from the material, as it is not possible to add protons in a manner described in this option.
62
Because one guanine must match with one cytosine in DNA base pairing, there will be _____ amounts of each.
equal
63
The strength of a bond is directly proportional to its
bond energy, with shorter bonds being stronger than longer bonds. Based on the data provided in the passage, the C–H bond has the largest bond energy and, thus, the shortest bond length.
64
The value of ΔH° can be calculated using the data provided using Hess’s Law
(the sum of ΔH°f products) – (the sum of ΔH°f reactants).
65
At STP, the volume of N2(g) produced by the complete decomposition of 1 mole of nitroglycerin would be closest to which of the following?
4C3H5N3O9(l) → 12CO2(g) + 10H2O(g) + 6N2(g) + O2(g)
According to the balanced reaction given in the passage, for every 4 moles of nitroglycerin consumed, 6 moles of N2(g) are produced. Therefore, for every 1 mole of nitroglycerin, 1.5 moles of N2(g) are produced. At STP, the molar volume of an ideal gas is 22.4 L*mol–1, which means that 1.5 moles of N2 will occupy 33.6 L.
66
there is no difference in electronegativity between the identical atoms and therefore there is no
polarity
66
67
The power consumed is
P = ΔPE /time = mgh/Δt
68
The work done is defined as
W = 0.5kx2
69
The relative intensities of the two sound waves are 20 dB and 40 dB, respectively. Their difference is 20 dB, meaning that the decimal log of the ratio of their intensities
is 2, which means that the ratio of their intensities is 10^2 = 100.
70
The lenses have a negative focal length, which means they are diverging lenses. Such lenses form
virtual and reduced images of objects situated at distances larger than the focal length.
71
what takes place in a battery-powered resistive circuit when the current is flowing?
The chemical energy of the battery elements is used as electrical energy to set the charge carriers in motion through the resistor, where they experience drag from the crystal lattice of the resistive conductor and dissipate their energy as heat from the resistor.
72
Protein secondary structure is characterized by the pattern of hydrogen bonds between:
Secondary structure includes turns, helices, and beta sheets, all of which are established by hydrogen bonds between backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens.
73
The equivalent resistance is equal to the fraction with numerator 1 and denominator 1 over 20 normal Omega plus 1 over 60 normal Omega equals the fraction with numerator 1 and denominator 4 over 60 normal Omega equals the fraction with numerator 1 and denominator 1 over 15 normal Omega equals 15 normal Omega.
74
GI cells are highly
proliferative and undergo continuous mitosis
75
Adipocytes do not undergo continuous
mitosis, but they do change in size based on environment
76
Nerve cells are post-mitotic cells that do not typically undergo
cell division in adult mammals.
77
Early in development, cardiac muscle cells are
proliferative. However, as an organism reaches adulthood, mitotic capacity of such cells is decreased.
78
Disulfide bonds link cysteine residues intra- or intermolecularly and are not involved in
linking of nucleotides in DNA molecules.
79
Within DNA molecules, hydrogen bonds do not connect nucleotides within DNA backbone. They connect the
two antiparallel strands by making interactions between complementary base pairs.
80
Peptide bonds link amino acids with a polypeptide chain and do not participate in
DNA.
81
The DNA backbone is formed by
phosphodiester linkage between deoxyribonucleotide molecules.
82
purines have a _________ structure, while pyrimidines have a _______ structure
purines have a double-ring structure (adenine and guanine), while pyrimidines have a single-ring structure (cytosine, thymine, and uracil)
83
In solution, a strong acid with readily donate ______ and a strong base will readily ________ from other compounds
In solution, a strong acid with readily donate protons and a strong base will readily deprononate from other compounds
84
to compensate for the decreased ETC-mediated ATP, glycolytic flux must be
increased
85
Phosphofructokinase is the main regulatory enzyme of glycolysis and, as such, it is regulated both _______ as well as by a ___________ by the final glycolytic product, ATP.
Phosphofructokinase is the main regulatory enzyme of glycolysis and, as such, it is regulated both allosterically as well as by a negative feedback loop by the final glycolytic product, ATP.
86
Osmosis refers to the movement of
water, not ions such as chlorine, from a low solute to a high solute solution.
87
Diffusion refers to the movement of a solute from an area of ________ ________ to an area of ________ ________ . However, when chlorine moves from pond water into the algae cell, it is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
Diffusion refers to the movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. However, when chlorine moves from pond water into the algae cell, it is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
88
Active transport mechanisms use energy in the form of ATP to transport solutes such as chlorine from an area of ________ ________ to an area of ________ ________ . In this instance, chlorine is being transported from the pond water, where it has a low concentration, to the cytoplasm of an algae cell, where it has a high concentration.
Active transport mechanisms use energy in the form of ATP to transport solutes such as chlorine from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration. In this instance, chlorine is being transported from the pond water, where it has a low concentration, to the cytoplasm of an algae cell, where it has a high concentration.
89
Facilitated diffusion utilizes transport proteins to promote the diffusion of a solute like chlorine from an area of ________ ________ to an area of ________ ________ . However, when moving from the pond water into an algae cell, chlorine is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
Facilitated diffusion utilizes transport proteins to promote the diffusion of a solute like chlorine from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. However, when moving from the pond water into an algae cell, chlorine is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
90
inhibiting voltage-gated potassium channels with would delay the repolarization phase of the action potential. This would lead to prolongation of the
action potential.
91
At a pH below a protein's isoelectric point (pI), the charge is
positive
92
At a pH above a protein's isoelectric point (pI), the charge is
negative
93
The passage indicates that β-catenin can activate expression of Wnt target genes. To do this, Wnt target genes need to be transcribed. The figure also shows that β-catenin activates transcription factors for Wnt target genes. This suggests that β-catenin acts in
the nucleus. Typically, proteins that act in the nucleus contain a nuclear localization sequence, which is one possible mechanism by which proteins can enter the nucleus. Thus, according to the passage, β-catenin could contain a nuclear localization sequence.
94
Ubiquitination marks proteins for degradation by a
proteasome
95
The reversible interconversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate during glycolysis and gluconeogenesis is catalyzed by the enzyme
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
96
Histon acetylation is a post-translational modification and therefore it can be detected by
western blots
97
RT-PCR is a method to analyze changes in protein expression at transcriptional levels and are not appropriate for studies of
protein modification.
98
Southern blots are not an appropriate method to study post-translational modifications such as protein acetylation. They are primarily utilized to study
DNA molecules.
99
Northern blots are used to study
RNAs, not protein modifications
100
the hormone vasopressin is released during periods of dehydration, which increases expression of aquaporins in the
collecting ducts.
101
________ are misfolded variants of a protein that can cause misfolding when interacting with normally folded variants of the same protein. Upon infection, prions lead to disease in a host organism.
Prions
102
endocytosis (active transport) causes the plasma membrane of the cell to form a pocket around the target particle. The pocket pinches off into a intracellular vesicle containing the particle and merges with lysosome in newly formed compartment called an
endosome
cells that take in viruses through endocytosis do so through the use of endosomes
103
Function of proteases
Proteases degrade proteins
104
Under anaerobic conditions, only ___ net moles of ATP are generated from each mole of glucose.
2
Therefore, after consumption of 5 moles of glucose, 10 net moles of ATP are generated. Since each mole contains about 6 × 1023 molecules, it follows that under anaerobic conditions, consumption of 5 moles of glucose yields 6 × 1024.
105
Both human sperm and egg cells are ______, meaning that they contain one copy of each chromosome. This contrasts with most somatic cells, which are _______, meaning they contain two copies of each chromosome.
Both human sperm and egg cells are haploid, meaning that they contain one copy of each chromosome. This contrasts with most somatic cells, which are diploid, meaning they contain two copies of each chromosome.
106
Actin is a protein that forms
cytoskeletal microfilaments.
107
Tubulin is a cytoskeletal protein that makes up
microtubules, not microfilaments.
108
Ribosomes are responsible for
protein synthesis.
109
Krebs cycle enzymes are typically positioned in the
mitochondria, not lysosomes.
110
RNA and DNA polymerases are typically positioned in the
nucelus
111
Lysosomes are organelles with an acidic lumen that is enriched with
digestive enzymes
112
Centrosomes are organelles that serve as the
primary microtubule organizing center of a cell. As such, melanosomes most likely move along microtubules produced by and radiating from, the centrosome.
113
Kinetochores are proteins positioned at the
centromere of a chromosome. Kinetochores can attach microtubules, but do not produce microtubules.
114
The Golgi apparatus is an organelle often positioned near the
centrosome, which produces microtubules. However, the Golgi apparatus is not the primary site for the generation of microtubules.
115
Microfilaments are ______ _______ distinct from microtubules. Microfilaments do not produce microtubules.
cytoskeletal elements
116
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) are responsible for
killing cells in the body that may have been infected with a pathogen (such as a virus) or have become cancerous. One way in which CTLs target virus-infected cells is by binding to viral antigens presented on the surface of such cells.
117
Where in the human male reproductive system do the gametes become motile and capable of fertilization?
Epididymis
118
During the cross-bridge cycle, ATP is needed to allow myosin detachment from an actin filament. Consequently, when ATP is unavailable, the myosin head remains attached to an
actin filament. This maintains the muscle in a contracted state.
119
A ___ ___ schedule of reinforcement provides the reinforcer after a consistent number of target behaviors.
fixed ratio
120
A ___ ___ schedule of reinforcement provides the reinforcer after a varying number of target responses, which varies around a predetermined average.
variable ratio
121
A ___ ___ schedule of reinforcement provides the reinforcer when the target behavior is performed for the first time after a consistent interval of time has elapsed.
fixed interval
122
A ___ ___ schedule of reinforcement provides the reinforcer when the target behavior is performed for the first time after a varying interval of time has elapsed.
variable interval
123
A source monitoring error is when memory derived from one source is
misattributed to another source.
124
Dissociative amnesia is a dissociative disorder where individuals cannot recall
important autobiographical information, usually related to a trauma or stressor
125
Operant conditioning is a form of learning which occurs when
changes in behavior occur due to previously experienced outcomes for that behavior. Behaviors which are rewarded increase in frequency. Thus, if increases in dopamine activity increase reward-seeking motivation, this would have an impact on operant learning.
126
Classical conditioning is a form of learning which occurs when
a previously neutral stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus.
127
Latent learning is learning which takes place in the absence of
reinforcement or punishment.
128
Relative poverty refers to social disadvantage by income or wealth as compared to
the social advantages linked to income or wealth in a society.
129
Marginal poverty stems from unstable employment conditions for an individual in which they cannot
achieve minimum standards of living.
130
Absolute poverty is an economic condition in which individuals cannot
meet their basic needs.
131
The socioeconomic gradient in health refers to the graded relationship between
social class and health, in which each “step” up on the hierarchy of social stratification tends to be associated with better health.
132
The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to attribute other people’s behavior to internal, stable traits, rather than
situational factors.
Ranking personality factors (which are internal and stable) above environmental factors (which are situational) is an example of making the fundamental attribution error.
133
Social desirability is the tendency for participants to give responses which they think are
more socially acceptable, instead of choosing responses which are reflective of their true feelings.
134
Conflict theory focuses on
social inequalities.
Stratification indicates that certain communities experience unequal access to resources and opportunities in a society. Therefore, disparities in access to SUD treatment among different social groups as discussed in the passage would be most consistent with a conflict perspective.
135
Gentrification refers to the
displacement of low-income residents in a neighborhood due to increasing property value.
136
Research on social loafing and related phenomenon support that
participants working alone will generate more alternatives than those working in groups.
137
According to Freud, infants in the first year of life are in
the oral stage of development.
138
This supports groupthink being defined by processes of
conformity and failures to critically evaluate alternatives and options.
139
Interference is when some information in memory interferes with
the encoding, consolidation, or retrieval of other information.
140
Functionalism makes a distinction between
manifest, or intended, and latent, or unintended, functions of social practices which sustain social stability.
141
Medicalization refers to the process
in which issues experienced in a society are defined and treated by medical experts.
142
The Hawthorne effect, named after an observational study of workers in the Hawthorne factory, refers to the tendency for
observational research participant behavior to change when they know they are being observed. This best describes the phenomenon described in the prompt.
143
Self-fulfilling prophecy is the tendency to
behave in ways that confirm expectations.
144
The Thomas theorem argues that individual beliefs have
real consequences.
145
Impression management refers to direct attempts by an individual to control how
they are perceived by others.
146
Exchange mobility refers to a process in which certain individuals experience a
decline in their socioeconomic status while others experience an increase, which does not change the ratio of individuals in upper and lower socioeconomic groups.
147
Horizontal mobility describes a process in which an individual changes
some aspect of their socioeconomic status, such as from employed to unemployed, but maintains the same relative status.
148
Downward mobility refers to a
decline in socioeconomic status.
149
Upward mobility refers to an
improvement in socioeconomic status.
150
Equation for total amount charge held by capacitor
Q=VC
Q is charge
V is voltage
C is capacitance
151
Equation for total amount of energy held by capacitor
U=1/2CV^2
152
Due to the Doppler effect, the frequency that a person hears before being passed by an ambulance is ______ than the actual frequency of the sound emitted, while the person hears a frequency _____ than the actual frequency after the ambulance passes
larger, lower
153
Equation for power (with relation to work)
P=force*velocity=work/time
154
The slope of the velocity-time graph is the acceleration and an exponential velocity-time slope corresponds to a linear acceleration-time slope; a linear velocity-time slope corresponds to a
constant acceleration-time slope
155
The relative thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compounds can be inferred from
heat of combustion
The heat of combustion of an organic compound is a measure of the energy released when the compound is combusted with oxygen. More stable isomeric compounds will have lower heats of combustion.
156
If we were to label a molecule with radioactive tritium on a site that exchanges hydrogens for protons in the solvent, then the molecule would lose its
radiolabel
157
when finding the limiting reagent, calculate and compare the number of
moles
158
In a reaction, the products minus the energy of the reactants represent
Gibbs free energy, not the activation energy of the reaction. It represents the thermodynamic favorability of the reaction.
159
The activation energy or energy of activation is the energy needed for the reaction to proceed towards the creation of the products and energetic hurdle is represented by
the activated complex minus the energy of reactants
160
Energy of a photon in terms of its frequency
E=hf
161
By definition, a steroid hormone receptor binds
steroids. These four 6-6-6-5-membered, fused ring structures is a steroid.
162
An oxidizing agent will accept electrons and be
reduced
163
When two amino acids are joined via a peptide bond, what is the mass of the byproduct of this reaction? (Note: Assume that the amino acids were not modified by protecting groups.)
Peptide bonds are formed via dehydration reaction. The product of dehydration is water.
When a peptide bond forms between two amino acids, there is a loss of water (18 amu).
164
Without intial velocity measured under steady state conditions, the assumptions that underlie Michaelis–Menten enzyme kinetics
fail.
165
pH must remain ____ to achieve reliable data for michaelis menten enzyme kinetics
constant
166
It is necessary for the concentration of enzyme to be lower than that of a _____ to achieve reliable data for michaelis menten enzyme kinetics
substrate
167
Which experimental condition is NOT necessary to achieve reliable data for Michaelis–Menten enzyme kinetics?
The reaction is allowed to reach equilibrium before measurements are taken.
168
Which atom is most likely involved in the coordination of calcium ions?
An atom must be a Lewis base to coordinate with calcium ions. Oxygen can serve as a Lewis base and carries a negative charge which can allow it to coordinate with positive calcium ions.
169
Heme cofactors are five-membered nitrogen-containing rings and can be categorized as
porphyrin consisting of 4 pyrroles
170
resistivity is equal to
1/conductivity
171
Methylation transfers the methyl functional group from one substrate to another. Which enzyme can do this?
transferase
172
Hydroxylation is the addition of an alcohol into another compound. Which enzyme catalyzes this reaction?
This is an oxidation-reduction reaction.
An oxidoreductase catalyzes reduction and oxidation reactions.
173
On the MCAT, pK is analogous to
pKa and can be represented by pH
174
cooperative enzymes display _____ curves which have steeper slopes
sigmoidal
175
When pH increases, there are less protons in solution and acidic functional groups will lose their protons. Their deprotonation will ______ their stability
decrease
176
According to the DNA base paring rules, if G is not present on the original strand,
its C complement should not be present on the complement sequence
177
Ion exchange column tells us the charge it wants to hold on to such that cation exchange will elute
negatively charged species and retain positively charged species
178
Isoelectric points tells us the pH at which proteins are neutral. Above the pI, they will be
negatively charged and below the pI they will be positively charged
179
A common column material used in size-exclusion chromatography is dextran, a polysaccharide of glucose. Which type of interaction most likely occurs between proteins and the dextran column material?
Hydrogen bonding
the oxygens and hydroxyl groups in glucose are capable of hydrogen bonding to the side chains that are exposed to different proteins.
180
The frequency of a wave is a characteristic of the wave source, not of the medium surrounding the source. Therefore, frequency is not
changed by the medium through which the wave propagates.
181
Volume flow rate =
area*velocity
182
equation for velocity using frequency and wavelength
velocity=(frequency)(wavelength)
183
What is the continuity equation?
A1V1=A2V2
184
Calcium and magnesium are in the second column, or Group 2, on the periodic table, which is the
alkaline earth metals
185
According to the VESPR theory, an octahedral geometry occurs with an ____ molecule
AX6
186
Carbon has several allotropes in its standard state, such as diamond and graphite. These are
covalent network solids that contain strong covalent bonds.
187
Patm =
Pfluid=Pfluid*g*h
188
gravity constant
9.8 m/s^2 or 10 m/S^2
189
anaerobic means
without oxygen
190
The electron transport chain relies on oxygen to function. Under anaerobic condition, the ETC will be off so
phosphorylation of ADP would not occur
191
Power =
work/time
192
Greater Ca2+ pumping activity would improve
contractile strength
193
The movement and subsequent binding of calcium to troponin is what allows for binding of actin and the myosin heads ultimately producing a
contraction
194
The base pairs that are purines are
adenine and guanine
195
The base pairs that are pyrimidines are
cytosine, uracil, and thymine
196
DNA base pairs
A-T and G-C
197
RNA base pairs
A-U ad G-C
198
Convergent evolution occurs when
fairly unrelated organisms evolve to meet similar environmental needs and is associated with analogous structures.
Example 1: Wings of a bat and butterfly. The bat and butterfly are distant relatives but both need the ability to fly in their environments.
Example 2: Dolphins and sharks are genetically different, the dolphin being a mammal and the shark being a fish. Both of them, however, have developed similar structures to be able to survive in a similar environment.
199
Ligase is an enzyme that binds two DNA fragments via
phosphodiester bonds
200
Primase generates an RNA primer to match a fragment of DNA at the beginning of
DNA replication.
201
Helicase "unzips" the strands of DNA at the beginning of
replication
202
Topoisomerase relieves the
overwinding of DNA strands ahead of the DNA replication fork by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands.
203
Hydrolases cleave bonds using water, like
proteases cleave peptide bonds using water
204
Cells that are undergoing apoptosis will stop their
growth
205
Cancer cells are able to avoid
apoptosis
206
The "anatomy" of an operon as expected in prokaryotes
a single mRNA transcribed from a single promoter sequence within the operon
207
A positive inotrope (medication that increases the force of cardiac contractions) is mediated by intracellular calcium levels. An increase in intracellular calcium levels will positively affect
contractility
208
Na+K+ ATPase is a transmembrane protein that uses one molecule of ATP to transport
3 Na+ out of the cell and 2 K+ into the cell
209
Histone acetyltransferases promote transcription by
decreasing the attractive interaction between lysine residues in the histones of DNA
210
When someone first starts fasting, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis are initiated to maintain blood glucose levels and provide energy. During prolonged fasting, such as when the body perceives starvation,
fatty acid oxidation and ketogenesis are engages to provide sustained energy.
211
the acidic amino acids
212
The adrenal medulla produces the neurotransmitter adrenaline, and it is located in the adrenal gland which sits over the kidney. This structure is part of the
sympathetic nervous system of the autonomic system.
213
The Krebs cycle produces
ATP and NADH. ATP can be used for several processes in the cell, whereas NADH supplies energy for the electron transport chain.
214
equation for osmotic pressure
215
osmotic pressure and molarity are _______ proportional
directly
216
During hypoxia, due to the scarcity of oxygen, NADH is
not reoxidized by the electron transport chain. Therefore, to replenish NADH molecules for sustaining glycolysis, NADH must be reoxidized to NAD+ by lactic fermentation.
217
phosphoglucose isomerase is an enzyme involved in
glycolysis
218
Palindromic binding sequence is the same as reading the sequence in
reverse
219
Succinyl-CoA synthetase is responsible for the synthesis of succinate from
succinyl-CoA. Thus, over expression of Succinyl-CoA synthetase will increase succinate levels
220
Parent-specific transmission of traits are due to gene imprinting, which is an
epigenetic process
221
The rate of a typical enzymatic reaction is increased by which of the following changes?
Increase in temperature from 20°C to 37°C
222
Fewer plasma proteins will decrease the osmotic pressure. This means less fluid will move out of the interstitial space/tissue and into the capillaries, resulting in
more fluid remaining in the tissues.
223
Increased level of fatty acids will result in an increase in the osmotic pressure of the intestine and prevent water absorption, thus causing
diarrhea
224
Increased osteoblast activity would keep the calcium in the bones, whereas increased osteoclast activity will free calcium to reach the blood. Thus, low osteoblast activity and
high osteoclast activity is the best way to increase calcium levels in blood.
225
An increase in the levels of a product results in an inhibition of the enzyme that produced the product
feedback inhibition
226
According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, five-year-olds are in the preoperational stage of development, in which they are presumed to be limited
by egocentrism (viewing the world only from their own perspective).
227
The subjectively vivid, compelling memories of details associated with reception of news about emotionally arousing events are referred to as
flashbulb memories.
228
Intrusions of false information into episodic memories of events (referred to as false memories) that are consistent with the accurate information suggests that episodic memory for first learning about the event is being combined with
semantic memory about information learned later. This is an example of the reconstructive nature of memory.
229
Emotional arousal seems to focus a person’s attention on
the central features of an event.
230
Every time a volunteer in a sleep study begins to exhibit rapid eye movements (REM), the experimenter wakes the person up. On the following night, when his or her sleep is uninterrupted, the person will most likely:
have more REM sleep than usual.
231
Social capital or the benefits provided to an individual by social networks is not included in
socioeconomic status (SES)
232
A PET scan is the most suitable for measuring
localized neural activity
233
Group polarization is the tendency for a group’s consensus to be
more extreme than it was prior to group discussion.
234
A conflict perspective focuses on the social institutions that maintain
social inequalities
235
NMDA receptors are glutamate-responsive ion channels that promote action potential formation upon activation. Consequently, increased expression of NMDA receptors in the hippocampus will increase the likelihood of action potential formation, increasing
excitability.
236
Self-verification refers to the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with
one’s self-concept.
237
Self-serving bias involves making situational attributions for
personally experienced negative outcomes and dispositional ones for positive outcomes
238
Self-efficacy is one’s belief about one’s ability to
perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcomes
239
A self-fulfilling prophecy is a
belief that leads to its own fulfillment
240
Serotonin is involved in the regulation of both
mood (specifically, aggression) and appetite (it is also used to regulate intestinal movements).
241
A drive is a motivational state caused by
psychological or physiological needs. Disruptions to homeostasis (a state of physiological equilibrium) cause drives.
242
Self-determination theory focuses on the
innate need for psychological growth
243
Expectancy-value theory focuses on how motivation varies depending on
how a person evaluates their likelihood of success at an activity
244
Symbolic interactionism, which is interested in micro-level interactions among social actors, is more directly related to studying
social practices and rituals.
245
Motion parallax is a form of
depth perception cue. Motion parallax is a monocular depth cue where objects closer to an observer appear to move faster than distant objects when the observer is moving, creating a sense of depth.
246
Sensory interaction is the idea that one sensory modality (e.g., vision) may
influence another (e.g., balance).
247
Molarity =
moles/liter
248
the structure of flavin, found in four of the five cofactors
249
a five-membered aromatic heterocycle containing one nitrogen atom
pyrrole
250
transferring the methyl group from the cofactor to the substrate will
not change total mass of molecule
251
Progesterone is a ____ hormone
steroid
252
Steroids are a class of lipids that are derived from
cholesterol
253
In ______ ________ proteins are separated from a mixture based on their affinity for a specific ligand. Beads in the chromatography column contain a ligand that the protein of interest binds with high specificity and affinity. Proteins with a lower affinity for the ligand will elute first leading to separation of the mixture.
affinity chromatography
1. Bind
2. Wash
3. Elute
254
Extracting proteins from a membrane requires the membrane to be dissolved using a
detergent. Detergents facilitate the mixture of hydrophobic and hydrophilic compounds, allowed by their large hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
255
The smaller the Kd value (dissociation constant)
the more tightly the ligand is attached and the higher the affinity between ligand and receptor.
256
If Kd is unchanged after purification, this would strongly suggest
the protein has not been denatured
257
Why are high temperatures required for fusion?
enable reactants to approach within range of the strong nuclear force.
possibility of fusion increases as the distance between fuel particles decreases
temperature is the avg KE of a group of particles so raising temperature will increase KE (and speed)
258
Ring type on histidine's side chain
imidazole ring-containing side chain
259
Ammonium acetate is
NH4CH3CO2
260
lipophilic, means that a molecule will not dissolve as readily in the
aqueous layer
261
Ki is the concentration of inhibitor that gives a reaction rate of half the maximum
reaction rate
262
The Hill coefficient is a measure of cooperativity in a binding process.
1=
> 1 =
1= independent binding
> 1 = positive cooperative binding
263
salt bridge
264
pi-stacking
265
An ice cube at 0°C and 1 atm is heated to form steam at 100°C and 1 atm. Ignoring heat loss to the surroundings, what part of the process uses the most heat?
(Note: Specific heat of water = 1 cal/g°C. Heat of fusion = 80 cal/g. Heat of vaporization = 540 cal/g.)
Vaporizing all the water requires 540 cal/g, which is a greater heat requirement than specific heat or heat of fusion.
266
Based on the passage, which of the following is closest to the pressure exerted on the chest by a 10 × 5 cm rectangular paddle during defibrillation?
(Note: 1 Pa = 1 N/m2.)
Pressure is the ratio of the force applied perpendicular to a surface and the area of the surface. Because the normal component of the force is 100 N and the area is 10 cm × 5 cm = 50 cm2 = 0.005 m2, the pressure is (100 N)/(0.005 m2) = 20 kPa.
267
If the defibrillator described in the passage were fully charged and the entire charge were discharged through a patient in 10 ms, which of the following is closest to the average electrical current that would flow through the paddles?
268
If the 25 μF capacitor in the defibrillator in Figure 1 is replaced with a 30 μF capacitor, what new power supply setting would produce the same amount of charge?
269
value of planck's constant
270
value of planck's constant * speed of light (3.0*10^8)
271
The work generated by the person while pushing the cart is equal to the area under the force-distance line (area of a triangle), according to the definition of work. The area is equal to 1/2 × (100 N - 0 N) × (20 m - 0 m) = (100 N × 20 m)/2 = 1000 J.
272
Entropy increases if solid reactants produce gas products, making ΔS
positive
273
Which states are not included in the Keq
(s) and (l)
274
Acid–base reactions do not involve
oxidation state changes.
275
To correct nearsightedness, the laser beam is directed onto the central part of the cornea, resulting in
a flattening of the cornea. This means that the radius of curvature of the cornea is increased.
276
Equation for electric field
E=V/d
277
Keq can be used to calculate
the concentration of products/reactants
278
Each double bond contains 1 π-bond and each triple bond contains
2 π-bonds.
279
A buffer has a buffering capacity that is
±1 pH unit away from the pKa,
280
Small insects walk on the free surface of water because, at the air–water interface, all hydrogen bonds in water face downward, causing the molecules of the water surface to bond together. Due to cohesion, the polar water molecules do not cling to nonpolar molecules (such as oils) like those found in the insect feet. The insects do not sink through the free surface of water provided their weight is smaller than the
surface tension.
280
Sodium does not readily form a divalent cation, essential for
DNA polymerase catalytic activity
281
The gravitational potential energy is
mass × gravitational acceleration × height.
282
283
284
285
286
The definition of current is flow of charge per unit time. Thus, charge equals
current multiplied by time
286
When threshold is met at the axon hillock, voltage-gated sodium channels
open, generating an action potential.
286
286
Conductors contain both atom-bound electrons and
free electrons. Free electrons arrange themselves on the surface of conductors, and their collective electric field produced inside the conductor cancels any external electric field. The resulting electric field inside the conductor is zero.
287
A single nucleotide mutation is known as a
point mutation
288
If UUA (not a stop codon) is changed to UAA (stop codon), then the synthesis of that protein will be
stopped prematurely d/t earlier stop signal, leading to truncated (shortened) product.
289
The altered nucleotide does not cause a change in the amino acid that is encoded
silent mutation
290
The altered nucleotide leads to substituting one amino acid for another in the protein sequence
Missense mutations
291
The altered nucleotide creates a premature stop codon sequence
Nonsense mutations
292
PEPCK, or phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase, is a key enzyme in
gluconeogenesis (glucose synthesis) in the liver and kidney, catalyzing the conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate.
293
Testes are responsible for
testosterone production and spermatogenesis
294
The blood-testes barrier is a physical barrier between blood vessels and the seminiferous tubules of the testes where sperm production occurs.
The barrier prevents
antibodies and immune cells from entering the testes since the immune system could target them as foreign cells because they are unlike any other cells in the body.
295
Rods are highly photosensitive and densely clustered around the
periphery of the retina outside of the fovea. They require little light to pick up signals from outside the central field of vision.
296
Rods are not capable of distinguishing color so their signal is perceived as
monochromatic or black and white
297
Sensory stimulation, or sensation, takes place in the peripheral nervous system which includes the photosensory retina in the cells in the eyes. Sensory processing takes place in the CNS which includes the visual cortex of the brain known as the
occipital lobe
298
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors affect muscle
force contraction and overall muscle force
