Zuku Sample Questions Flashcards
A 22-year-old Thoroughbred mare is presented for bilateral green nasal discharge, retching, coughing, and inappetence noted after feeding this evening. The owner recently switched the mare to a pelleted diet because of the mare?s poor dentition. Physical exam reveals bilateral green nasal discharge. The mucous membranes are pink and moist with a capillary refill time of 1.5 seconds. A slight swelling is notable in the proximal-left jugular groove just caudal to the vertical ramus of the mandible. Based on the most likely diagnosis, what initial therapy would be recommended?
100.6ºF (38.1°C) 99.1-100.8°F (37.3?38.2°C)
HR=40 bpm (28-40 bpm)
R=12 brpm (10-14 brpm)
- A - Ultrasound thorax, perform transtracheal wash for cytology and culture, begin broad-spectrum antimicrobials
- B - Administer antimicrobials, refer horse immediately for endoscopy and lavage under general anesthesia
- C - Cautious guttural pouch endoscopy with lavage for Streptococcus equi spp. equi PCR, quarantine horse until results are available
- D - Pass nasogastric tube; give atropine; lavage the esophagus until the obstruction clears
- E - Withhold food and water; give sedatives and oxytocin; recheck in 2 hours
The most appropriate initial therapy for this systemically stable horse with an acute esophageal obstruction (also incorrectly called “choke”) is to withhold food and water, give sedatives and oxytocin (and n-butyl scopolammonium bromide) to relax the esophagus, and recheck in a couple hours.
This is often successful in uncomplicated cases.
If obstruction has not resolved within 2-4 hours, sedate to lower the head, pass a nasogastric tube to the level of the obstruction, and GENTLY lavage the esophagus with water.
This is typically successful.
In cases that do not resolve with this Tx, refer for ultrasound, esophageal endoscopy, and/or general anesthesia with esophageal lavage at a referral center.
Obstructions lasting more than several hours require IV fluids and electrolytes, anti-inflammatories, and antimicrobials (for secondary aspiration pneumonia).
Complications include aspiration pneumonia, repeat obstruction, and esophageal stricture.
Several ornamental freshwater fish (Betta splendens) have recently developed a velvety, rust-colored appearance, especially around the eyes and gills (see below). Which of the following is an appropriate treatment in pet fish for the presumptive diagnosis?
A - Oxytetracycline
B - None; this condition is self-limiting.
C - Potassium permanganate
D - Chloroquine
E - Tricaine methanesulfonate (MS222).
Answer: Chloroquine
Treat these fish with suspected “velvet disease” with chloroquine. Velvet disease a parasitic dinoflagellate infection by Piscinoodinium spp. in freshwater fish and Amyloodinium spp. in saltwater species.
The Tx in ornamental fish is typically chloroquine or copper sulfate (provided alkalinity is > 50 mg/L), given as a bath or in a quarantine tank. The Tx in fish raised for food in the U.S. is repeated Txs of copper sulfate (assuming alkalinity is > 50 mg/L) (similar to Ich, Ichthyophthirius multifliis) or hypersalinity.
“Velvet disease” is one of the biggest health concerns in captive marine fish, especially clownfish, and can look like white spots. The nonmotile trophont (feeding) stage of this parasite attaches to the skin and gills.
After feeding, the trophont gives rise to the reproductive stage (tomont) which encysts and forms hundreds (up to 256!) flagellated, free-swimming stages (dinospores) that go on to initiate new infections. This exponential reproduction makes the prognosis guarded if Dz is not caught and Tx early.
Potassium permanganate is one Tx for oomycete infections in fish (primarily fresh-water), along with hypersalinity and formalin. Clinical presentation includes gray-white, cotton-like growths on the skin, eyes, gills, or fins.
Tricaine methanesulfonate (MS222, Syncaine®, tricaine mesylate) is the only anesthetic licensed in the United States and Canada for food fish intended for human consumption.
Merck Veterinary Manual:
Velvet disease, caused by Piscinoodinium in freshwater and Amyloodinium in marine fish, is a parasitic infection leading to mortality and lethargy. It presents as small golden spots on the skin and gills, which are often not visible without a microscope. Diagnosis is made by wet mount examination. Treatments include copper sulfate, chloroquine, and freshwater dips for marine fish. Control of the disease is challenging, requiring repeated treatments and careful management of the fish environment to break the parasite’s life cycle. Effective treatment and prevention are critical for managing this disease in aquaria and fish farms.
A five-year-old Siberian Husky is presented with erythema, depigmentation, scaling, and crusting of the nasal planum. The dog seems otherwise healthy. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Discoid lupus
B - Dermatomyositis
C - Calcinosis cutis
D - Food allergy
E - Demodecosis
Answer: Discoid Lupus
This is a classic example of discoid lupus. There is a breed disposition including German Shepherds, Siberian Huskies, Brittanys, Collies, and Australian herding breeds.
Exposure to ultraviolet light is another risk factor.
Dermatomyositis is a hereditary skin disease of Collies and Shetland Sheepdogs. Lesions are usually over bony prominences, tip of tail, and pinnae, rather than the nasal planum.
Discoid Lupus Erythematosus (DLE) in Dogs: NAVLE Preparation
Pathophysiology:
• DLE is an autoimmune disease affecting the skin, especially the nasal planum. The immune system targets skin cells, causing inflammation and tissue damage.
Clinical Signs:
• Depigmentation, erythema, scaling, crusting, and ulceration of the nasal planum. • Lesions may extend to the bridge of the nose and periocular areas. • Exacerbated by sunlight.
Diagnostic Tests:
• Skin biopsy for histopathology. • Immunofluorescence to detect immune complexes. • Rule out other causes like infections or neoplasia.
Affected Dogs:
• Common in breeds like Collies, Shetland Sheepdogs, German Shepherds, and Siberian Huskies. • Typically affects middle-aged dogs.
Complications:
• Secondary bacterial infections. • Permanent scarring and depigmentation.
Possible Treatments:
• Topical corticosteroids and tacrolimus. • Systemic immunosuppressants (e.g., prednisone). • Avoidance of sunlight and use of sunscreens.
Management:
• Regular follow-ups to monitor disease progression and treatment efficacy.
A six-year-old miniature Dachshund is presented with progressively worsening carpal and tarsal laxity.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Infectious synovitis
B - Multiple myeloma
C - Metacarpal fracture
D - Rheumatoid arthritis
E - Systemic lupus erythematosus
Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
This dog has rheumatoid arthritis (erosive polyarthritis). There is mild to moderate destruction of the cortex of the distal radius.
There is decreased mineral opacity in the distal carpal bones and large lucent areas are visible within them.
The cortices of the distal carpal bones are not well visualized.
The cortical margins of the carpal bones are irregular. The proximal and distal intercarpal joints are collapsed.
There is increased intracapsular soft tissue opacity in the carpal joint. There is a moderate soft tissue swelling at the level of the carpal joint.
There is cranial curvature of the radius.
Radiographic interpretation and images courtesy, Dr A. Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology. Normal radiograph links courtesy, Imaging Anatomy Univ. of Illinois Vet Med.
A nine-year-old female spayed German Shepherd is presented for non-productive retching and collapse.
Physical examination reveals severe abdominal pain, tachycardia, pale mucous membranes, poor pulse quality, and tachypnea. The dog is stabilized with intravenous fluid therapy, and an abdominal radiograph is shown below. The second image reveals the findings on exploratory laparotomy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Gastrointestinal ulceration
B - Mesenteric volvulus
C - Linear foreign body.
D - Intussusception
E - Intestinal lymphosarcoma
Answer: Mesenteric volvulus
This is an example of mesenteric volvulus. Note the marked generalized gas distention of the bowel.
Obstruction of blood supply to the intestine causes ileus, and the discoloration of the serosa seen in the second image.
Mesenteric volvulus is uncommon and is nearly always fatal due to irreversible severe diffuse bowel wall ischemia. German shepherds, English pointers and other large breed dogs are predisposed.
The presentation can resemble gastric dilatation and volvulus (i.e., acute abdominal pain and distention, unproductive retching and shock).
A linear foreign body causes intestinal plication visible of radiographs and at exploratory laparotomy.
A young adult terrier cross dog is presented for inability to gain weight, vomiting, and poor appetite.
The owner had adopted the dog from a shelter several days earlier after he had been found in an emaciated state.nOn physical examination, he had poor body condition (3/9) and abdominal palpation revealed a tense abdomen with gassy enlarged loops of bowel and a firm linear structure. Abdominal radiographs are shown below. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Foreign body
B - Megacolon
C - Normal abdomen for age
D - Retroperitoneal mass
E - Microhepatica
Answer: Foreign body.
This dog has a chronic linear foreign body with multiple intussusceptions. The foreign material in the stomach and duodenum, gravel sign (mineral opacities), and plication suggest a linear foreign body and chronic partial obstruction.
Distended bowel loops with a convex soft tissue appearance could indicate intussusception, however, ultrasound is a better imaging modality to confirm this. Chronic partially obstructing linear foreign bodies can cause intussusception as the peristaltic motion of the intestines attempts to move the foreign material forward.
Decreased serosal detail is likely in part due to poor body condition although the presence of peritoneal effusion is also likely.
Radiographic interpretation and images courtesy, Dr A. Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology. Normal radiograph links courtesy, Imaging Anatomy Univ. of Illinois Vet Med.
A 12-year-old miniature horse stallion is presented for inappetance and strange behavior. He typically lives in a pasture with a herd of seven other horses, including mares and foals, supplemented with round bales of grass hay.
Five days prior to presentation he had his feet trimmed and was subsequently very sore so was kept indoors, away from the herd, on 2.2 mg/kg of phenylbutazone once daily.
On examination he is head-pressing and obtunded.
During the exam he goes down and has a seizure, and is then euthanized.
At necropsy the liver looks like the image below.
What histopathological finding is most likely to be described from this liver?
A - Fluke migration
B - Portal hepatitis associated with a toxin
C - Hepatic lipidosis
D - Megalocytosis, bridging fibrosis from pyrrolizidine alkaloids
E - Oxidative injury due to phenylbutazone
Answer: Hepatic lipidosis.
The appearance of this liver (yellow, swollen, friable with rounded edges) plus the history and presentation are consistent with hepatic lipidosis. Any horse with decreased feed intake is at risk for developing hyperlipemia or hyperlipidemia and hepatic lipidosis but ponies and miniature horses, especially those that are off feed, pregnant, or lactating, are at much higher risk.
When negative energy balance leads to fat mobilization, the liver must process the fat by gluconeogenesis into glucose. If the liver is overwhelmed by mobilized free fatty acids, triglycerides are deposited within the hepatocytes and accumulate in the plasma. This leads to hepatic dysfunction.
A 12-year-old male neutered West Highland White terrier is presented after he disappeared from home for six hours and returned with a left hind limb lameness. A pelvic radiograph taken on presentation is shown below. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A - Tibial tubercle transposition and Robert-Jones bandage
B - Triple pelvic osteotomy
C - Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication and rest
D - Femoral head and neck excision
E - Closed reduction and Ehmer sling
Answer: Closed reduction and Elmer sling
Conservatively treat coxofemoral (hip) luxation with closed reduction and an Ehmer sling. Typically presents as a non-weight-bearing lameness, usually after blunt force trauma, (e.g., being hit by a car). Craniodorsal luxation of the femoral head is most common.
Tx: Closed or open reduction. Closed reduction and Ehmer sling if injury <48h old, patient is stable for anesthesia, and hip structure is normal. 50% success rate.
Open reduction if closed reduction is unstable or has failed.
Carefully monitor post-reduction for irritation/wounds and ischemia caused by Ehmer sling.
Here is some useful information from the University of Illinois about closed reduction of hip luxations. And here is more helpful information from the American College of Veterinary Surgeons.
Which of the following correctly describes the cells on this canine blood smear?
A - Polycytosis, macrochromasia, one Heinz body
B - Heterochromic, microcytic red blood cells, Babesia canis parasitism
C - Macrocytic, hypochromic red blood cells, plasma cell,. Anaplasma marginale
D - Polychromasia, anisocytosis, spherocytosis
E - Anisochromasia, red blood cell ghosts, rubricytes
Answer: Polychromasia, anisocytosis, spherocytosis
This canine blood smear shows polychromasia, anisocytosis, and spheroctosis.
Polychromasia and anisocytosis are evidence of a regenerative anemia, so perform a reticulocyte count to confirm a regenerative response.
Polychromasia is variation in red blood cell (RBC) color; anisocytosis is variation in RBC size.
Spherocytosis typically occurs due to immune-mediated damage to the BC membrane resulting in a rounded (i.e., spherical) appearance to the RBC. This is seen most commonly in dogs with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA), but may occur secondary to blood transfusion, so always interpret with caution.
Reticulocytes are immature RBCs, released early from the bone marrow; use new methylene blue staining to identify these cells. Look for reticulocytosis with regenerative anemia in most species except horses. The reticulocyte count is a measure of the bone marrow response to anemia.
For more info and images, see the Cornell Clin Path website: BC Morphology and Hematology Atlas.
A ten-year-old male neutered orange tabby cat is presented with asymmetric crusty, pruritic dermatoses around his eyes, towards his ears. The remainder of his dermatological exam is unremarkable.
The cat lives indoors but likes to sleep in a sunny window seat.
What condition is most likely?
A - Frostbite
B - Squamous cell carcinoma
C - Pemphigus foliaceus
D - Feline proliferative and necrotizing_otitis externa
E - Ceruminous aland carcinoma
Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma is commonly associated with solar keratosis, especially in white/sparsely-haired locations in cats. Lesions are common on the ears, nose, lips, and frontal ridges. There is no breed or sex predilection.
Surgical excision is the treatment of choice, but advanced tumors may have invaded surrounding bony structures making surgical excision impossible. Adjunctive radiation therapy may be considered. These lesions can be prevented by minimizing UV radiation exposure in at-risk animals.
Ceruminous gland carcinoma can range in appearance from fibrotic dermal nodules to ulcerated plaques. It would not occur on the tips of the pinnae and would not be bilateral.
Frostbite would not occur in a cat that lives indoors. It can cause a similar presentation.
Pemphigus foliaceus is an immune-mediated disorder of the skin. Look for erosions, ulcerations, and thick encrustations of the mucocutaneous junctions and skin.
Feline proliferative and necrotizing otitis externa is rare and occurs on the inner aspect of the pinnae, the ear canal, or the external aural orifice (not the tips). It has an unknown etiology.
An eight-year-old female Saint Bernard is presented with a six-week history of right pelvic limb lameness and swelling above the hock.
A radiograph of the affected limb is shown below.
Three-view thoracic radiographs are unremarkable.
Based on the top differential, what is the treatment of choice?
A - 6 - 8 weeks of oral clindamycin
B - Intralesional mitomycin D
C - Limb amputation
D - Lipid complex amphotericin B IV
E - Intravenous cyclophosphamide
Answer: Limb amputation.
Limb amputation is the treatment of choice in this dog with osteosarcoma. Also consider adjunctive chemotherapy due to the likelihood of metastatic disease at the time of diagnosis.
On radiographic review the lesions are characteristic of a primary bone tumor. There is a large, expansile, destructive osseous lesion of the distal right tibia with cortical destruction, most severe at the caudal and medial margins. There is also mild, irregular periosteal proliferation and soft tissue thickening at the site.
Osteosarcoma is a top differential for an older large-breed dog with an expansile, destructive osseous lesion.
Click here to see normal canine tibial radiographs
Radiographic interpretation and images courtesy, Dr. A. Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology.
Many hens in a large backyard flock recently became ill after the owner purchased four new chickens. The sick hens are gasping, coughing, and sneezing. They have poor appetite and act depressed. Some affected birds have watery green diarrhea and swelling of the head and neck. A few have paralyzed legs and wings, twisted necks, are circling, and have tremors or clonic spasms. Birds are not laying well and some eggs are misshapen with watery albumen. Many of the sickest birds have died. Necropsy of a dead chicken shows petechial hemorrhages on the mucosal surface of the proventriculus and gizzard (left).
What should be done next to address this problem?
A - Report outbreak to regulatory authorities
B - Increase poultry house temperatures to reduce morbidity
C - Cull affected birds and vaccinate the remainder
D - Disinfect housing with phenolic compounds, barrier precautions for staff
E - Treat all affected chickens with amprolium
Answr: Report outbreak to regulatory authorities
This history and the necropsy findings are consistent with viscerotropic velogenic Newcastle disease (VVND), which is reportable. Contact the appropriate regulatory authorities immediately.
Gross lesions such as the petechiae seen here in the proventricular mucosa are not usually seen with low-virulence Newcastle disease (loNDV). The clinical history is also suggestive of VVND.
The acute form of NDV is clinically indistinguishable from highly pathogenic avian influenza and differentiated by PCR or isolating the hemagglutinating virus identified by inhibition with Newcastle disease antiserum.
NDV occurs worldwide and chickens usually present with acute respiratory disease. Occasionally diarrhea, neurological problems, or depression predominate. Virulence varies between the VND and loNDV forms.
Vaccines against NDV decrease clinical signs and death. Depopulate infected poultry.
Sometimes producers increase the temperature of the poultry house to decrease morbidity and mortality in flocks with suspected avian influenza.
Amprolium is a treatment for coccidiosis.
A chicken carcass is presented for necropsy from a backyard layer flock. The client has noticed several birds with transient paralysis, and reports the birds received no hatchery vaccinations. This bird was depressed for a couple days before death. Necropsy reveals the findings shown below.
What type of etiologic agent is associated with this disease?
A - Birnavirus
B - Paramyxovirus
C - Herpesvirus
D - Pneumovirus
E - Adenovirus
Answer: Herpesvirus.
This is an example of Marek’s disease, caused by a highly contagious and cell-associated herpesvirus. It is very common and most birds are presumed infected; subclinical disease can lower both growth and egg production rates.
Fully infective viruses are released from feather follicles and the enveloped virus can be found in dander and dust. Clinical presentation is often as described in this case.
Clinical disease is highly variable, and depends on virus and vaccine strain and dose, host sex and genetics, maternal antibody, age at exposure, and underlying stress.
The most common finding at necropsy is enlarged nerves that lose their striations, especially the sciatic (as seen here), vagus, and brachial. Tumors (diffuse or nodular) may be seen in various organs.
Dx: Classically, look for tumors AND enlarged nerves at necropsy. Use histology and viral PCR to confirm. Prevent with vaccination and strict sanitation control.
Viral inclusion body hepatitis is an example of a condition caused by an adenovirus.
Swollen head syndrome is an example of a condition caused by a pneumovirus.
Infectious bursal syndrome is an example of an infection caused by a birnavirus.
Newcastle disease is an example of an infection caused by a paramyxovirus.
Several cattle within a herd present with high fevers, up to 106°F (41°C), feet-stomping, and salivation. Some of the cows have vesicles in the interdigital space, and vesicles and denuded areas in the mouth. Necropsy of one of the cows shows white streaks on the heart in addition to the above findings.
Which one of the following choices is a top differential?
A - Bovine papillar stomatitis
B - Foot-and-mouth disease
C - Bovine respiratory syncytial virus
D - Bluetongue
E - Q fever
Answer: Foot-and-mouth disease
The top differentials for vesicular disease in cattle include foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) and vesicular stomatitis.
The US has been free of FMD since 1929, therefore FMD is a reportable disease. The disease affects cloven-hoofed animals. Pigs and cattle are most severely affected.
Vesicular stomatitis is clinically indistinguishable from FMD but also can affect horses.
Bovine papillar stomatitis causes proliferative raised lesions.
Bluetongue primarily affects sheep (typically subclinical in cattle). It causes vasculitis with clinical presentation of fever, edema, reluctance to eat/move.
A two-year-old female intact nulliparous cat is presented three weeks post-estrus for an acutely enlarged mammary gland that is painful upon palpation.
The cat is bright, alert, and responsive with otherwise normal physical examination findings. It is not possible to express any milk or discharge from the swollen gland.
What is the recommended treatment?
A - Ovariohysterectomy
B - Warm compresses
C - Broad-spectrum antimicrobials
D - Domperidone
E - Progesterone therapy
Answer: Ovariohysterectomy.
This is feline mammary hyperplasia (a.k.a. hypertrophy, fibroadenomatosis), perform ovariohysterectomy (OVH) to prevent recurrence. It can resolve on its own within a few weeks but is likely to recur without OVH. Medical Tx includes progesterone blockers.
Mammary hyperplasia occurs secondary to high progestogen concentrations (endogenous or exogenous) and can occur in males or females, intact or sterilized.
DDX include mastitis and mammary gland neoplasia. Mastitis typically occurs in lactating queens and presents with systemic signs. Neoplasia is more common in older cats (average 11 y) and mammary swelling is typically not acute.
Tx mastitis with warm compresses and broad-spectrum antimicrobials.
Domperidone and warm compresses are contraindicated as these can stimulate lactation.
A ten-year-old male neutered mixed breed dog is presented with a two month history of progressive left thoracic limb lameness. Radiographs and an ultrasound of the affected limb are shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Rheumatoid arthritis
B - Joint neoplasia
C - Degenerative joint disease
D - Septic arthritis
E - Fragmented coronoid process
Answer: Joint neoplasia
This is neoplasia involving the elbow joint.
Radiographic interpretation: There is geographic lysis involving the distal humerus, proximal ulna, and to a lesser degree the proximal radius. The areas of bone loss are multifocal with relatively well circumscribed borders. The anconeal process is absent. There is a large soft tissue swelling centered around the left elbow.
Ultrasound: There is a heterogeneous, hyperechoic lesion surrounding the caudal aspect of the elbow and also extending medially and laterally. There are severe defects within the bone and the mass lesion extends into the bone.
Fine needle aspirate and cytology of the lesion revealed mesenchymal proliferation and marked atypia with increased plasma cells and recent hemorrhage - probable sarcoma.
Click here to see normal canine elbow radiographs.
Radiographic interpretation and images courtesy, Dr A. Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology. Normal radiograph links courtesy, Imaging Anatomy Univ. of Illinois Vet Med.
An 11-year-old spayed female German shepherd is presented for pelvic limb weakness.
Which one of the following choices can be discerned from these radiographs?
A - T3-L3 intervertebral disc disease
B - Degenerative myelopathy
C - Cardiomegaly
D - Caval syndrome
E - Normal radiographs
Answer: Normal radiographs
These are normal thoracic radiographs. There is a small amount of air in the thoracic esophagus dorsal to the carina.
This is normal and usually transient.
There is moderate degenerative joint disease of the scapulohumeral joints as well as mild ventral spondylosis at multiple sites of the thoracic and thoracolumbar spine.
Click here to see more normal canine thoracic radiographs.
Radiographic interpretation and images courtesy, Dr. A. Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology.
What is the purpose of placing a permanent rumen fistula in some cattle?
A - Treat traumatic reticuloperitonitis in the fistulated animal
B - Manage vagal indigestion in the fistulated animal
C - Create transfaunation donors
D - Allow for direct administration of medications into rumen long-term
E - This procedure is not done on a permanent basis in cows
Answer: Create transfaunation donors
The rumen is permanently fistulated in the left paralumbar fossa to allow cows to be donors for transfaunation of rumen contents to other cows.
Transfaunation is used to treat other cows with conditions like ruminal acidosis, vagal indigestion, and peritonitis.
Fresh ruminal fluid contains microbes (bacteria and protozoa), volatile fatty acids (VFAs), microbial proteins, vitamins, minerals, and other buffers.
Ruminal fluid can also be collected via siphon from a stomach tube or from animals at the slaughter house.
Ruminal fistulas are also used to study ruminant physiology.
Click here to see a video of a fistulated steer from Oregon State University Extension Service.
Ref: The Oregon State University Agricultural Extension. Photo courtesy of National Nuclear Security Administration/Nevada Field Office.
Which one of the following sets of conditions predispose a cow to metritis?
A - Agalactia, milk fever, bovine vibriosis
B - Contaminated calving environment, abortion, hypomagnesemia
C - Milk fever, malnutrition, excess dietary zinc
D - Strep. agalactiae mastitis, retained placenta, laminitis
E - Dystocia, overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed
Answer: Dystocia, overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed.
Cows are predisposed to post-parturient metritis by many things, including:
- Dystocia
- Overfeeding in dry period
- Ca-P imbalance in feed
Cows are also predisposed to metritis by:
- Retained placenta
- Contaminated calving environment
- Abortion
- Malnutrition
In cattle, the causative bacterial organisms isolated most often are Trueperella pyogenes alone or with Fusobacterium necrophorum or other gram-negative anaerobes.
Note the name changes - Trueperella pyogenes used to be called Arcanobacterium pyogenes and before that it was classified as Corynebacterium pyogenes.
Specific diseases assoociated with bovine metritis or endometritis include brucellosis, leptospirosis, trichomoniasis, and bovine campylobacter.
An adult male neutered mixed breed dog is presented for epiphora, conjunctivitis, and periocular pruritus. An image of the right eye following administration of local anesthetic is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Onchocerca cervicalis
B - Dirofilaria immitis
C - Theileria spp.
D - Thelazia californiensis
E - Spirocerca lupi
Answer: Thelazia californinsis.
This is Thelazia californiensis in the western U.S. (in Europe and Asia it is T. callipaeda).
Clinical signs include epiphora, conjunctivitis, ocular pruritus, keratitis w/ corneal opacity and ulceration, and blindness (occasionally).
T. californiensis is zoonotic and carried by muscid and fruit flies. The flies act as intermediate hosts and deposit infective larvae on the eye while feeding on ocular secretions.
Click here to see a video of T. californiensis in a dog’s eye.
Tx: Manually remove worms with forceps after sedation and local anesthetic. Additional Tx options include ivermectin subQ, spot-on moxidectin, or oral milbemycin oxime. Ocular moxidectin or levamisole solution are an option but may cause irritation.
Spirocera lupi cause parasitic nodules in the aorta, esophagus, and stomach of dogs worldwide.
Theileria spp. are tick-borne blood parasites affecting horses and cattle.
Onchocerca cervicalis causes ophthalmic lesions and ventral midline dermatitis in equids.
Dirofilaria immitis is the causative agent of heartworm in dogs and cats.
Eyeworms of Small Animals (Thelaziasis)
Definitions and Causative Agents
• Thelaziasis: Parasitic infection caused by nematodes of the genus Thelazia. • Species: • Thelazia callipaeda: Found in Europe and Asia. • Thelazia californiensis: Found in the western US.
Hosts
• Definitive hosts: Dogs, cats, foxes, wolves, martens, badgers, lagomorphs, and humans for T. callipaeda; dogs, cats, and deer for T. californiensis. • Vectors: Zoophilic fruit flies, such as Phortica variegata (Europe) and Phortica okadai (Asia).
Transmission
• Transmission occurs when infected male flies harboring L3 larvae feed on the eye of a suitable host.
Clinical Signs
• Mild Infections: Mild inflammation, lacrimation, and foreign-body sensation. • Severe Infections: Edema, corneal ulceration, conjunctivitis, blindness, excessive lacrimation, ocular pruritus, keratitis, corneal opacity and ulceration, hyperemia.
Diagnosis
• Direct observation of parasites on the conjunctiva or in tear ducts. • Removal of parasites with forceps after local anesthesia.
Treatment
• Medications: • Ivermectin: 0.2 mg/kg SC. • Milbemycin oxime: 0.5 mg/kg PO, two treatments one week apart. • Moxidectin: 2.5% spot-on treatment or 0.17 mg/kg SC. • Ocular solutions: 1% moxidectin or 2% levamisole. • Ointments: 1% levamisole or 4% morantel.
Prevention
• Seasonal Prevention: • Moxidectin: Sustained-release, 0.17 mg/kg SC. • Milbemycin oxime: Dosage recommended for heartworm prevention. • Ivermectin: 0.2 mg/kg PO.
Pathophysiology
• Adult nematodes cause mechanical irritation and inflammation of the ocular tissues, leading to various degrees of clinical signs depending on the worm burden.
Assessment
• Clinical examination of the eyes for signs of inflammation and presence of worms. • Confirmatory diagnosis through visualization and removal of worms.
A six-year-old female spayed cocker spaniel is presented with a two-day history of lethargy.
Exam reveals petechiae and ecchymoses on the buccal mucosa, ventral abdomen, and inner pinnae.
There is hyphema OD.
Click the labwork icon to review hematology, blood chemistry, and urinalysis test results. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
B - Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C - Hepatic insufficiency
D - Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity_
E - Von Willebrands disease
Answer: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
This is immune-mediated thrombocytopenia, the most common cause of spontaneous bleeding in dogs. It may be primary (idiopathic, most common) or secondary to infection, neoplasia, or certain drugs.
Most common in middle-aged females; cockers, poodles, and old English sheepdogs predisposed.
Dogs with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) have thrombocytopenia with a prolonged PT and aPTT.
Follow this link to see a table of the four most important coagulation disorder patterns.
Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Animals
Definition
• ITP: Immune-mediated destruction of platelets or marrow megakaryocytes. • Also Known As: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
Causes and Risk Factors
• Idiopathic: No identifiable underlying cause. • Risk Factors: Middle-aged, spayed female dogs, especially Cocker Spaniels.
Pathophysiology
• Mechanism: Immune system targets and destroys platelets or megakaryocytes. • Autoantibodies: Directed against platelet surface antigens.
Clinical Signs
• Bleeding: Petechiae, ecchymoses, melena, epistaxis. • Severe Thrombocytopenia: Platelet counts <30,000/μL, often <10,000/μL.
Diagnosis
• Exclusion: Rule out other causes of thrombocytopenia. • Tests: Bone marrow aspirate (rarely needed), platelet count, clinical signs.
Treatment
• Corticosteroids: High-dose initial treatment, tapered gradually. • Vincristine: 0.01-0.02 mg/kg IV, shortens recovery time. • Transfusion: Fresh whole blood for severe anemia. • Splenectomy: For recurrent cases. • Monitoring: Regular platelet count checks during steroid tapering. • Avoid: Drugs interfering with coagulation.
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) in Animals - Comprehensive Study Guide
Definition
• Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC): A secondary condition characterized by systemic activation of blood coagulation, leading to widespread clotting, bleeding, and organ damage.
Causative Agents
• Primary Diseases: Bacterial, viral, rickettsial, protozoal, parasitic infections, heat stroke, burns, neoplasia, and severe trauma.
Pathophysiology
• Mechanism: Systemic inflammatory response activates coagulation, leading to widespread clot formation. This results in consumption of coagulation factors and platelets, causing bleeding and organ failure due to microvascular thrombosis.
Symptoms
• Clinical Signs: Variable, ranging from no overt signs to severe bleeding, organ failure, and microvascular thrombosis.
Diagnosis
• Laboratory Tests: Prolonged APTT, PT, elevated D-dimer, reduced fibrinogen, and platelet count. Thromboelastography can help differentiate stages.
Treatment
• Underlying Cause: Identify and treat the primary disease. • Medications: Heparin in hypercoagulable stages; fresh frozen plasma in hypocoagulable stages. • Supportive Care: Fluids, plasma expanders to maintain effective circulating volume.
Zuku Coagulation disorder
https://zukureview.com/node/100828
Which one of the following sets of conditions predispose a cow to metritis?
A - Contaminated calving environment, abortion,. hypomagnesemia
B - Strep. agalactiae mastitis, retained placenta, laminitis
C - Dystocia, overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed
D - Milk fever, malnutrition, excess dietary zinc
E - Agalactia, milk fever, bovine vibriosis
Answer: C - Dystocia, overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed
Cows are predisposed to post-parturient metritis by many things, including:
- Dystocia
- Overfeeding in dry period
- Ca-P imbalance in feed
Cows are also predisposed to metritis by:
- Retained placenta
- Contaminated calving environment
- Abortion
- Malnutrition
In cattle, the causative bacterial organisms isolated most often are Trueperella pyogenes alone or with Fusobacterium necrophorum or other gram-negative anaerobes.
Note the name changes - Trueperella pyogenes used to be called Arcanobacterium pyogenes and before that it was classified as Corynebacterium pyogenes.
Specific diseases associated with bovine metritis or endometritis include brucellosis, leptospirosis, trichomoniasis, and bovine campylobacter.
Metritis in Production Animals - Comprehensive Study Guide
Definition:
• Metritis: Inflammation of the uterus, typically occurring postpartum, associated with bacterial infection.
Causative Agents:
• Bacteria: Escherichia coli, Trueperella pyogenes, Fusobacterium necrophorum, Porphyromonas levii.
Pathophysiology:
• Mechanism: Infection leads to systemic illness, characterized by a dysbiosis in the uterine microbiome favoring pathogenic bacteria. The inflammation results in an abnormally enlarged uterus and fetid uterine discharge.
Symptoms:
• Acute Puerperal Metritis: Systemic signs such as fever >39.5°C, decreased milk production, anorexia, depression, and fetid, watery, reddish-brownish uterine discharge. • Clinical Metritis: Enlarged uterus with purulent uterine discharge without systemic illness.
Diagnosis:
• Methods: Clinical examination, visual observation of discharge, vaginal discharge scoring, bacterial culture, and PCR.
Treatment:
• Antibiotics • Ceftiofur hydrochloride: 2.2 mg/kg IM every 24 hours for 5 days. • Ceftiofur crystalline free acid: 6.6 mg/kg SC twice, 72 hours apart. • Other antibiotics: Procaine G penicillin, oxytetracycline, and ampicillin trihydrate. • Supportive Care: Fluid therapy, anti-inflammatory treatment (flunixin meglumine, ketoprofen, aspirin).
Prevention:
• Management: Good hygiene, clean maternity areas, use of vaccines, and feeding antioxidants like vitamin E, selenium, and beta-carotene.
Two eight-week old calves are presented down and extremely weak.
They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood.
Another calf died suddenly the previous night with no prior signs.
The down calves are dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2° and 105.6° F (40.7° - 40.9°
C) [N=101.5°-103.5°F, N=37.8°-39.7° C], respectively.
What is the treatment plan?
A - Immunize calves and adult cattle with
MLV vaccine; probiotics for sick calves
B - Isolate sick calves; oral electrolytes
C - Cull sick calves; prophylactic oxytetracycline in feed for well animals
D - Corticosteroids; amprolium in water; rumensin in feed
E - Oral electrolytes, injectable broad-spectrum antimicrobials
Answer: E - Oral electrolytes, injectable broad-spectrum antimicrobials
Treat these calves with oral electrolytes and injectable broad-spectrum antimicrobials. Milk feeding will not make diarrhea worse and provides an important source of nutrients and fluids for sick animals.
Fever, diarrhea and sudden death in eight-week-old calves is highly suggestive of septicemia due to salmonellosis.
Isolate sick calves to prevent transmission.
Use of antibiotics is controversial as they may prolong recovery and shedding and yield a carrier calf.
However, if an animal is septic it needs parenteral antibiotics.
Prognosis is poor with neonatal salmonella and deaths can approach 100% in affected calves.
In adults, antibiotics may yield a clinical cure, but Salmonellae can establish in the biliary system and intermittently shed into the Gl system, leading to environmental contamination.
Prevention is dependent on which species of Salmonella is causing the problems-host adapted or environmental.
Comprehensive Summary on Salmonellosis in Animals for BCSE Test Preparation
Definition and Etiology
Salmonellosis is an infection caused by bacteria of the genus Salmonella. It affects many animal species and humans, manifesting in various forms from asymptomatic carriers to severe septicemia. The disease is of significant concern due to its zoonotic potential.
Causative Agents
• Salmonella enterica subspecies include various serovars such as: • S. Typhimurium • S. Dublin • S. Choleraesuis • S. Enteritidis • S. Heidelberg
Epidemiology
• Cattle: S. Typhimurium causes enteritis in young calves, while S. Dublin is more common in older calves and adults, often becoming endemic on farms. • Sheep: Outbreaks are common during cold seasons and involve high-density housing conditions. • Pigs: Septicemic salmonellosis usually traces back to infected pigs or contaminated environments. • Horses: Stress-related factors such as surgery and transport can trigger clinical salmonellosis. Mares can shed the bacteria at parturition, infecting foals. • Dogs and Cats: Often asymptomatic carriers, though clinical disease can occur in stressed or young animals.
Pathophysiology
• Salmonella invades the intestinal mucosa, leading to enteritis and systemic infection. The bacteria produce toxins that disrupt cellular function and cause inflammation. • Enteritis and Septicemia: Acute infection can lead to severe enteritis and septicemia, particularly in neonates and immunocompromised animals.
Clinical Signs
• General Symptoms: Fever, diarrhea, abdominal pain, dehydration, and depression. • Acute Enteritis: Fever followed by severe watery diarrhea, sometimes with blood and mucus. In horses, signs include colic, severe dehydration, and metabolic acidosis. • Septicemia: High fever, lethargy, diarrhea, and rapid deterioration. In calves, respiratory symptoms and septic arthritis may occur. • Carrier State: Animals may intermittently shed Salmonella without showing symptoms, posing a risk for outbreaks.
Diagnosis
• Clinical Signs: Observation of diarrhea, fever, and other systemic symptoms. • Laboratory Tests: Repeated isolation of Salmonella from feces, blood, or tissues. Fecal cultures, PCR assays, and serotyping are used for confirmation. • Postmortem Findings: Lesions in the lower ileum, cecum, and colon, characterized by inflammation, necrosis, and sometimes hemorrhage.
Treatment
• Supportive Care: IV fluid and electrolyte replacement to manage dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Polyionic isotonic fluids are commonly used. • Antimicrobials: Selection based on sensitivity testing. Commonly used antimicrobials include enrofloxacin, penicillin, gentamicin, and metronidazole. Note the potential nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides in dehydrated animals. • NSAIDs: Used to manage pain and inflammation; examples include flunixin meglumine, meloxicam, and firocoxib. • Plasma and Colloids: Administered to address hypoproteinemia and provide coagulation factors.
Prevention and Control
• Hygiene and Biosecurity: Strict hygiene practices in calving areas, isolation of infected animals, and thorough cleaning and disinfection of facilities. An “all-in/all-out” management system can help prevent spread. • Vaccination: Not commonly used in all species but may be beneficial in pigs to reduce infection and shedding. • Environmental Management: Control of rodents and wildlife that can contaminate feed and water sources.
Zoonotic Risk
Salmonella infections can be transmitted from animals to humans, particularly through contact with contaminated feces or environments. This is especially concerning in immunocompromised individuals. Strict biosecurity protocols and personal hygiene are essential when handling infected animals.
What kind of organism causes equine granulocytic anaplasmosis?
A - Anaplasma
B - Spirochete
C - Ehrlichia
D - Chlamydia
E - Protozoa
Answer: Anaplasma
This is a tricky question to help you remember that two diseases
FORMERLY classified as Ehrlichia have now been RE-classified.
The causative organism of equine granulocytic anaplasmosis (a.k.a. anaplasmosis; formerly equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis) was
originally classified as Ehrlichia equi, but is now called
ANAPLASMA phagocytophilum due to DNA sequencing studies.
Do not confuse equine anaplasmosis, a necrotizing vasculitis, with BOVINE anaplasmosis, which primarily causes an anemia with icterus
and fever.
Another name change occurred with the causative organism of Potomac horse fever (PHF), from Ehrlichia risticii to NEOrickettsia
risticil.
PHF presents as a febrile
colitis/diarrhea, with laminitis 3-5 d after diarrhea in horses of all
ages: A big rule out is salmonella (think septicemia/fever + diarrhea).
Key Information on Equine Granulocytic Anaplasmosis
Etiology and Transmission
• Causative Agent: Anaplasma phagocytophilum. • Vector: Ixodes ticks (e.g., I. pacificus, I. scapularis). • Transmission: Tick bites; seasonal occurrence.
Clinical Signs
• Fever: Up to 107°–108°F. • Symptoms: Depression, limb edema, ataxia, anorexia, icterus, petechiation. • Blood Abnormalities: Leukocytopenia, pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia, cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in neutrophils.
Diagnosis
• Tests: PCR, serology, blood smear (Giemsa or Wright-Leishman stain). • Differential Diagnoses: Viral encephalitis, equine infectious anemia, liver disease.
Treatment and Control
• Antibiotics: Oxytetracycline. • Supportive Care: Corticosteroids, fluid therapy, pain management. • Prevention: Tick control; no vaccine available.
Anaplasmosis in Ruminants - Comprehensive Veterinary Information
Definitions and Terminology:
• Anaplasmosis: A tick-borne disease of ruminants caused by intracellular bacteria infecting red blood cells, leading to severe anemia and fever.
Causative Agents:
• Pathogens: Anaplasma marginale, A. centrale, A. ovis, A. phagocytophilum.
Physiopathology:
• Transmission: Ticks (Dermacentor, Rhipicephalus), mechanical via biting dipterans, contaminated needles. • Pathogenesis: Bacteria infect erythrocytes, causing their destruction by the immune system, leading to anemia and jaundice.
Clinical Findings:
• Symptoms: Progressive anemia, fever, weight loss, decreased milk production, icterus. Severe cases may lead to death.
Diagnosis:
• Tests: Blood smears (Giemsa-stain), serologic tests (ELISA), PCR. • Microscopic Findings: Anaplasma organisms in erythrocytes.
Treatment:
• Antibiotics: Tetracyclines (e.g., oxytetracycline 20 mg/kg IM), imidocarb (1.5 mg/kg SC). • Supportive Care: Blood transfusions for severely affected animals.
Control and Prevention:
• Vaccination: Use of live vaccines (e.g., A. centrale) in endemic areas. • Tick Control: Acaricides and environmental management.
Key Information on Potomac Horse Fever
Etiology and Transmission
• Causative Agent: Neorickettsia risticii. • Transmission: Ingestion of aquatic insects (e.g., mayflies, caddisflies) containing infected trematodes.
Clinical Signs
• Fever: Up to 105°F. • Symptoms: Depression, anorexia, colic, diarrhea, laminitis. • Blood Abnormalities: Leukopenia followed by leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia.
Diagnosis
• PCR Testing: On blood or feces. • Serology: Paired serum samples showing rising titers.
Treatment and Control
• Antibiotics: Oxytetracycline. • Supportive Care: IV fluids, NSAIDs. • Vaccination: Provides partial protection. • Prevention: Minimize exposure to aquatic habitats and insects.