. Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

What does myocardial infarction (MI) refer to?

A

The death of cardiac muscle due to prolonged ischemia caused by coronary artery occlusion

Also commonly referred to as a ‘heart attack’.

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2
Q

What causes ischemic heart diseases (IHD)?

A

An imbalance between myocardial supply (perfusion) and cardiac demand for oxygenated blood

Over 90% of cases are caused by coronary atherosclerosis.

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3
Q

What is triphenyltetrazolium chloride (TTC) used for?

A

A histochemical stain that highlights the area of necrosis

Useful in identifying infarcted areas.

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4
Q

List the five most common primary cardiac tumors.

A
  • Myxomas
  • Fibromas
  • Lipomas
  • Papillary fibroelastomas
  • Rhabdomyomas

These account for almost 90% of all primary heart tumors.

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5
Q

What is obstructive congenital heart disease (CHD)?

A

Occurs when there is abnormal narrowing of chambers, valves, or blood vessels

Examples include coarctation of the aorta and aortic valvular stenosis.

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6
Q

What are common causes of congenital heart diseases (CHD)?

A
  • Genetic factors and chromosomal abnormalities
  • Environmental exposures
  • Nutritional factors

Folate supplementation during early pregnancy reduces CHD incidence.

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7
Q

What are the major functional abnormalities caused by structural anomalies in CHD?

A
  • Left-to-right shunt
  • Right-to-left shunt
  • Obstruction

These categories help organize the various structural anomalies.

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8
Q

What causes a left-to-right shunt in CHD?

A
  • Atrial septal defect (ASD)
  • Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
  • Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

Eisenmenger syndrome occurs when left-to-right shunt becomes right-to-left shunt.

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9
Q

What are the 5 Ts associated with right-to-left shunt in CHD?

A
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Transposition of the great arteries
  • (Persistent) truncus arteriosus
  • Tricuspid atresia
  • Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection

These conditions cause cyanotic congenital heart disease.

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10
Q

What are common pericardial diseases?

A
  • Pericardial effusion
  • Haemopericardium
  • Purulent pericarditis
  • Serous pericarditis
  • Fibrinous pericarditis
  • Constrictive pericarditis

They often occur in association with other cardiac pathology or systemic disease.

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11
Q

What are the three overlapping patterns of angina pectoris?

A
  • Stable (typical) angina
  • Prinzmetal variant angina
  • Unstable (crescendo) angina

Each type has different triggers and characteristics.

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12
Q

What are the most clinically useful biomarkers of myocardial damage in MI?

A
  • Cardiac-specific troponins T and I (cTnT and cTnI)
  • MB fraction of creatine kinase (CK-MB)

These proteins leak out of irreversibly damaged myocytes.

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13
Q

What characterizes infective endocarditis (IE)?

A

A microbial infection of the heart valves or the mural endocardium leading to the formation of vegetations

Most infections are bacterial, with the aortic and mitral valves most commonly involved.

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14
Q

What is rheumatic heart disease (RHD) primarily characterized by?

A

Deforming fibrotic valvular disease, particularly involving the mitral valve

RHD is virtually the only cause of mitral stenosis.

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15
Q

What are the two major groups of cardiomyopathies?

A
  • Primary cardiomyopathies
  • Secondary cardiomyopathies

Primary are predominantly genetic or acquired; secondary are part of systemic disorders.

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16
Q

What are the clinical presentations of ischemic heart diseases (IHD)?

A
  • Myocardial infarction (MI)
  • Angina pectoris
  • Chronic IHD with heart failure
  • Sudden cardiac death (SCD)

Each presentation has distinct characteristics and implications.

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17
Q

What does congenital heart disease (CHD) refer to?

A

Abnormalities of the heart or great vessels that are present at birth

Most CHD arise from faulty embryogenesis during gestational weeks 3 to 8.

18
Q

What is the main learning objective regarding congenital heart diseases?

A

Understand congenital heart diseases

Students should be able to explain the spectrum of ischaemic heart diseases and related topics.

19
Q

What is the hallmark cell type present in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

Reed-Sternberg cells are infected with Epstein-Barr virus in over 90% of cases.

20
Q

In which patient population is Hodgkin lymphoma predominantly found?

A

HIV positive patients

It is also common in low-income areas where HIV is prevalent.

21
Q

How does the overall outcome of Hodgkin lymphoma compare to other variants?

A

It has a poor overall outcome.

22
Q

What is a key difference between Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)?

A

HL is marked by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are absent in NHL.

23
Q

Which age group is more commonly affected by non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)?

A

Patients over 55 years old.

24
Q

What is the median age of patients diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)?

25
What type of spread pattern is observed in non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)?
Non-contiguous spread pattern.
26
What are common signs and symptoms shared by both Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
* Enlarged lymph nodes * Fatigue * Weight loss * Fever
27
What is the treatment approach for Hodgkin lymphoma based on?
Cancer stage, health status, and other factors.
28
What is the significance of Reed-Sternberg giant cells in Hodgkin lymphoma diagnosis?
Their presence alongside lymphocytes and inflammatory cells is diagnostic.
29
List the five types of Hodgkin lymphoma recognized by the WHO.
* Nodular sclerosis * Mixed cellularity * Lymphocyte-rich * Lymphocyte depleted * Nodular lymphocyte predominance
30
What are common clinical features of Hodgkin lymphoma?
* Painless lymphadenopathy * Unexplained weight loss * Low-grade fever * Fatigue * Night sweats * Itching skin
31
What is the Ann Arbor staging system used for?
Staging Hodgkin lymphoma.
32
What does Stage 1 of the Ann Arbor staging system indicate?
Involvement of a single lymph node.
33
What characterizes Stage 2 of the Ann Arbor staging system?
Involvement of two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
34
What is the definition of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
A broad range of neoplasms derived from T-cell, B-cell, NK cells, and their precursors.
35
What was the Rappaport classification based on?
Architectural arrangement of neoplastic cells and their cytological appearance.
36
What is the most common variant of Hodgkin lymphoma?
Nodular sclerosis.
37
What are lymphomas?
Malignancies arising from lymphocytes, including B-cells, T-cells, and NK-cells.
38
What are the primary lymphoid organs?
* Thymus * Bone marrow
39
What are the secondary lymphoid organs?
* Lymph nodes * Spleen * Mucosa * Cutaneous lymphoid tissues
40
What is lymphadenitis?
Inflammatory diseases causing painful or non-painful enlargement of lymph nodes.
41
Name three causes of inflammatory diseases that can lead to lymphadenitis.
* Bacterial infections * Viral diseases * Disseminated fungal diseases
42
What is a common symptom seen in Hodgkin lymphoma related to alcohol consumption?
Pain following alcohol consumption may occur in 2-3% of cases.