Mandong Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
What is the total number of colorectal cancer cases reported?
A
379
Total cases represent 100% of reported incidences
2
Q
What percentage of colorectal cancer cases occur in individuals aged 60-64?
A
15.30%
This age group had 58 reported cases
3
Q
What are the five common types of cancer discussed?
A
- Breast cancer
- Cervical cancer
- Prostate cancer
- Liver cancer
- Colorectal cancer
4
Q
What is the total number of breast cancer cases reported?
A
1106
Total cases represent 100% of reported incidences
5
Q
List three risk factors for breast cancer.
A
- Age
- Marital Status
- Family history
6
Q
What is the total number of cervical cancer cases reported?
A
980
Total cases represent 100% of reported incidences
7
Q
List three risk factors for cervical cancer.
A
- Sexually Transmitted Disease
- Multiple Sexual partners
- HPV/HIV infection
8
Q
What is the total number of prostate cancer cases reported?
A
727
Total cases represent 100% of reported incidences
9
Q
What are the main risk factors for prostate cancer?
A
- Advancing age
- Alcohol
- Sedentary life (lack of exercise)
10
Q
What are the recommended screening methods for colorectal cancer?
A
- Faecal occult blood testing
- Flexible sigmoidoscopy
- Barium enema
- Colonoscopy
11
Q
At what age should men and women begin annual fecal occult blood tests?
A
45 years
Combined with DRE as per recommendations
12
Q
What is cancer cachexia?
A
A state of extreme weight loss in cancer patients
Associated with high catabolism and inflammatory mediators
13
Q
What is the primary prevention strategy for cancer?
A
Health promotion and risk reduction
Aims to prevent cancer development
14
Q
What is secondary prevention in cancer management?
A
Screening and detection to identify and treat cancer cases early
15
Q
What is tertiary prevention in cancer management?
A
Treatment of cancer patients to avoid complications and promote rehabilitation
16
Q
What are some common clinical features associated with cancers?
A
- Progressive weight loss
- Anaemia
- Recurrent infections
- Loss of appetite
17
Q
What is the role of HPV in cancer?
A
High risk types (HPV-16, HPV-18) are responsible for cervical and other cancers
18
Q
Which virus is linked to B-cell lymphomas and Hodgkin lymphoma?
A
Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)
19
Q
What is the association of Helicobacter pylori with cancer?
A
Associated with gastritis, gastric ulcers, and gastric cancer
20
Q
What is a common screening method for prostate cancer?
A
Digital rectal exam, PSA testing, and biopsy
21
Q
What are the recommendations for breast cancer screening?
A
- Regular self-examination from early 20s
- Clinical breast examination in 20s and 30s
- Annual mammography from age 35
22
Q
What is a fill-in-the-blank for the term that refers to the state of extreme weight loss in cancer patients?
A
_________
Answer: Cancer Cachexia
23
Q
True or False: Cushing’s syndrome can be seen in small cell lung cancer.
A
True
24
Q
What level of cancer prevention includes regular medical screening of at-risk populations?
A
Secondary prevention
25
What is the role of diet in cancer prevention?
Diet and exercise are key factors in reducing cancer risk
26
What is a common risk factor for colorectal cancer?
Diet, family history, inflammatory bowel disease
27
What is the mechanism by which HPV E7 protein contributes to cancer?
Inactivates tumor suppressors and activates cyclins
28
What factors determine the degree of risk associated with radiation exposure?
The type, duration, and wavelength of the radiation.
29
What types of radiation are classified as carcinogenic?
Ionizing radiation such as X-rays, γ rays, and particulate radiation (α particles, β particles, protons, and neutrons).
30
What is a common consequence of exposure to X-rays for pioneer radiologists?
Development of skin cancers years after prolonged exposure.
31
Which groups of individuals have shown increased incidence of leukemia and solid cancers?
Miners of radioactive substances and victims of atomic bombs during World War II.
32
Where are most carcinogenic chemicals metabolized in the body?
In the liver, by cytochrome P-450-dependent monooxygenases.
33
What causes malignant transformation in cells?
Point mutations that lead to the initiation of cancerous cells.
34
What are direct-acting carcinogens?
Carcinogens that do not require metabolic activation to become carcinogenic.
35
What are the three main groups of carcinogenic agents?
* Chemical carcinogens
* Microbial agents
* Role of radiation in carcinogenesis.
36
What are procarcinogens?
Carcinogenic agents that require metabolic conversion to become ultimate carcinogens.
37
What is pleomorphism in the context of tumors?
Variation in cell size and shape; benign tumors show little variation, while malignant tumors show severe variation.
38
How does nuclear morphology differ between benign and malignant tumors?
Benign tumors have a normal nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio of 1:4 to 1:6, while malignant tumors have a disproportionate large ratio of 1:1.
39
What is the hallmark of malignant tumors?
Metastasis, or the spread of tumors from their original site.
40
What is the most common pathway for carcinomatous spread?
Lymphatic spread.
41
What is the sentinel lymph node?
The first lymph node to receive lymph flow from a primary tumor.
42
What are some epidemiological risk factors for cancer?
* Age
* Infections (e.g., HBV, HCV, HPV)
* Lifestyle factors (e.g., smoking, alcohol consumption)
43
What percentage of cancers occur after the age of 50?
Most cancers.
44
What are epithelial tumors?
Neoplastic cells arising from glands, epithelial surfaces, and skin.
45
What suffix is commonly used for benign tumors?
Oma.
46
What are the two components of all neoplastic tissues?
* Tumor parenchyma
* Connective tissue stroma.
47
What is neoplasm?
A genetic disorder of cell growth triggered by mutations affecting a single cell and its progeny.
48
What is the role of lifestyle behaviors in cancer risk?
Smoking, heavy alcohol consumption, and diet rich in saturated fats increase risk.
49
What defines benign tumors in terms of growth and invasiveness?
Benign tumors remain localized and lack the capacity to infiltrate tissue.
50
What is the difference in histological appearance between benign and malignant tumors?
Benign tumors are well differentiated, while malignant tumors show varying degrees of differentiation, including anaplastic cells.
51
What are oncoproteins?
Products of mutated proto-oncogenes that drive cell proliferation.
52
What is the most commonly mutated gene in human cancers?
P53 gene.
53
What syndrome is associated with inherited mutations in the P53 gene?
Li-Fraumani syndrome.
54
What are driver mutations?
Mutations that contribute to malignant transformation and are maintained in subsequent cancer cells.
55
What is the relationship between obesity and cancer risk?
Obesity is associated with an increased risk of some cancers.
56
What are the effects of environmental risk factors on cancer?
Environmental factors contribute to cancer causation through various exposures.
57
What role does diet play in cancer risk?
The incidence of colorectal, prostate, and breast cancers have been linked to diet.
## Footnote
The exact role of diet as a risk factor has not been clearly defined.
58
What is the relationship between obesity and cancer risk?
Obesity is an epidemic linked to an increased risk of some cancers, particularly in developed nations and among those adopting a western lifestyle.
## Footnote
It is also becoming a significant issue in low and middle-income countries.
59
Name some environmental risk factors in cancer causation.
Environmental factors include:
* Home and workplace exposures
* Radiation exposure
* Medications, including cancer treatments.
## Footnote
These factors contribute significantly to cancer development.
60
How do mutations affecting DNA repair genes contribute to cancer?
They impair the cell's ability to recognize and repair non-lethal gene damage, leading to genetic instability and accelerated mutation rates, known as mutator phenotype.
## Footnote
This contributes to carcinogenesis indirectly.
61
What is a tumor?
A tumor is formed by the monoclonal expansion of a single precursor cell that has incurred genetic damage.
## Footnote
Tumors are monoclonal, and the genetic alterations are heritable.
62
What are the hallmarks of cancer?
The hallmarks of cancer include:
* Self sufficiency in growth signals
* Insensitivity to growth inhibiting signals
* Altered cellular metabolism
* Immortality
* Sustained angiogenesis
* Ability to invade and metastasize
* Ability to evade host immune response.
## Footnote
These characteristics define malignant tumors.
63
How do mutated tumor suppressor genes function?
They typically act in a recessive fashion, but loss of a single allele can lead to haploinsufficiency, reducing protein quantity enough to promote cell proliferation.
## Footnote
This indicates that two doses of the gene are required for normal function.
64
What is the effect of mutations affecting apoptosis genes?
Mutations can result in either gain of function or loss of function, leading to increased cell survival or decreased cell death.
## Footnote
This contributes to tumor development.
65
True or False: Tumors are always polyclonal.
False. Tumors are monoclonal, originating from a single precursor cell.
## Footnote
This means all daughter cells share the same mutation.
66
What is the significance of viral integration in cancer formation?
Viral integration can contribute to the formation of cancer by altering host cell genetics.
## Footnote
Specific mechanisms may vary based on the virus involved.
67
What is Isolated IgA Deficiency?
A common deficiency caused by impairment differentiation of naïve B cells to IgA plasma cells
## Footnote
Most patients are asymptomatic; affects mucosal defenses, leading to recurrent infections.
68
What are common presentations of Isolated IgA Deficiency?
Recurrent infections affecting all mucosal surfaces:
* Respiratory
* Gastrointestinal
* Urogenital tract
## Footnote
High frequency of allergy and autoimmune diseases like SLE and rheumatoid arthritis.
69
What is the pathogenesis of Isolated IgA Deficiency?
Not clearly understood; patients receiving blood transfusions with normal IgA may develop anaphylactic reactions
## Footnote
IgA behaves like an antigen.
70
What causes systemic amyloidosis?
Amyloidosis may result from systemic amyloidosis, starting with deposits in the sub-endocardial region and progressing in the myocardium
## Footnote
Can interfere with the conduction system.
71
What is the histological diagnosis for amyloidosis?
Based on histological demonstration of amyloid in involved tissue
## Footnote
Most commonly obtained from kidney biopsy when renal system is suspected.
72
What is Hyper-IgM syndrome?
A disorder where patients have IgM antibodies but are deficient in IgG, IgA, and IgE antibodies
## Footnote
B cells are present but incapable of Ig switching and affinity maturation.
73
What are the clinical features of Hyper-IgM syndrome?
Recurrent pyogenic infections due to low levels of opsonizing IgG antibodies
## Footnote
Impairment of affinity antibodies due to failure of maturation.
74
What characterizes Common Variable Immunodeficiency?
A heterogeneous group of immunodeficiencies with hypogammaglobinemia, affecting all immunoglobulin classes
## Footnote
Occasionally only affects IgG class.
75
What is DiGeorge Syndrome?
A T-cell deficiency resulting from failure of thymus development
## Footnote
Features include hypoplastic thymus, hypocalcemia, congenital heart defects, and abnormal facial appearance.
76
What is X-Linked Agammaglobulinemia?
Characterized by failure of B-cell precursors to develop into mature B cells
## Footnote
Caused by mutation in Bruton's tyrosine kinase.
77
What are the key features of X-Linked Agammaglobulinemia?
Marked decrease of circulating B cells and very low levels of all classes of immunoglobulins
## Footnote
Pre-B cells are normal in the bone marrow but lack membrane Ig.
78
What happens to the kidney in amyloidosis?
Kidney may appear normal or shrunken in advanced stages due to compression of vessels
## Footnote
Amyloid is deposited in glomeruli, leading to capillary narrowing.
79
What is the appearance of the spleen in amyloidosis?
May appear normal or have moderate to massive splenomegaly
## Footnote
Patterns include tapioca-like granules or lardaceous spleen.
80
How is amyloid diagnosed histologically?
Based on characteristic staining pattern induced by Congo red stain
## Footnote
Shows apple-green birefringence under polarized light.
81
What is the definition of amyloidosis?
A pathological condition with extracellular deposition of fibrillary proteins
## Footnote
Resulting from inherited disorders or chronic inflammatory diseases.
82
Name a hereditary amyloidosis condition.
Familial amyloidotic neuropathy
## Footnote
Seen in specific Mediterranean populations.
83
What is Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (SCID)?
A genetically distinct syndrome consisting of both humoral and cellular immune deficiency
## Footnote
Affected children present with failure to thrive and recurrent infections.
84
What are common defects affecting the complement system?
Deficiency of C2 or C4, properdin, and factor D
## Footnote
C3 defects are serious, leading to increased incidence of immune-complex GN.
85
What is Chronic Granulomatous Disease?
A decrease in oxidative burst due to inherited defect in genes encoding phagocytic oxidase
## Footnote
Results in impaired microbial activities.
86
What is Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
An inherited defect in phagolysosome function
## Footnote
Caused by mutations affecting protein involved in lysosomal membrane traffic.
87
What are the two groups of immunodeficiency syndromes?
Primary and secondary immunodeficiency
## Footnote
Primary is genetically determined; secondary is due to diseases like infections or chemotherapy.
88
What is immunology?
The study of the immune system and its components, focusing on how the body protects itself from infection or foreign bodies.
89
Name the three types of immunity.
* Innate immunity
* Adaptive immunity
* Passive immunity
90
What mediates the adaptive immune response?
Lymphocytes, specifically T and B cells.
91
What are the two types of adaptive immunity?
* Humoral immunity (mediated by B cells)
* Cellular immunity (mediated by T cells)
92
What are antigen presenting cells (APCs)?
Cells that capture microbes and other antigens, transport them to secondary lymphoid organs, and display them for recognition.
93
What is the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)?
A gene complex that plays a major role in tissue alloimmune response and the recognition of foreign antigens.
94
What is the human counterpart of MHC called?
Human leukocyte antigen (HLA).
95
Where is the gene encoding for HLA located?
In the short arm of Chromosome 6.
96
What are the two major classes of MHC?
* Class I MHC
* Class II MHC
97
What do Class I MHC molecules present?
Antigens derived from cytoplasmic proteins, including normal and virus-specific antigens.
98
Who recognizes antigens bound to Class I MHC molecules?
CD8+ T cells.
99
What do Class II MHC molecules present?
Antigens derived from extracellular microbes and proteins.
100
What triggers hypersensitivity reactions?
Excessive immune responses to exogenous environmental antigens and endogenous antigens.
101
What is a characteristic feature of hypersensitivity reactions?
An imbalance between the effector mechanisms of immune response and the control mechanisms.
102
How many types of hypersensitivity reactions are there?
Four types.
103
What characterizes Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions?
Rapid immunological response triggered by antigen binding to IgE antibody on mast cells.
104
Name some examples of local reactions in Type 1 hypersensitivity.
* Rhinitis
* Allergic conjunctivitis
* Allergic dermatitis
* Bronchial asthma
105
What is anaphylaxis?
A severe allergic reaction that can lead to shock, airway obstruction, and laryngeal edema.
106
What is the role of opsonins in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?
They enhance phagocytosis of cells coated with antibodies.
107
Name some diseases caused by Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions.
* Transfusion reactions
* Hemolytic disease of the newborn
* Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
* Goodpasture syndrome
108
What is the primary mechanism of Type 3 immune complex disease?
Formation of antigen-antibody complexes that activate the complement system.
109
What are the three phases of immune complex disease pathogenesis?
* Formation of immune complexes
* Deposition of immune complexes
* Inflammation and tissue injury
110
What characterizes T cell-mediated Type IV hypersensitivity reactions?
Induced by CD4+ T cells producing inflammatory cytokines.
111
What are the clinical examples of T cell-mediated diseases?
* Tuberculosis
* Rheumatoid arthritis
* Multiple sclerosis
* Type 1 diabetes mellitus
112
What defines autoimmune diseases?
Pathological conditions where the body raises antibodies against itself.
113
What are the major components of the innate immune response?
* Epithelial cells
* Leukocytes (neutrophils, macrophages)
* Dendritic cells
* Natural killer cells
114
What is immunological tolerance?
The phenomenon where the body does not respond to an antigen due to exposure to lymphocytes.
115
What are the two mechanisms of maintaining tolerance?
* Central tolerance
* Peripheral tolerance
116
What is self tolerance?
Lack of responsiveness to one's antigen
## Footnote
Self tolerance is crucial for preventing autoimmune diseases.
117
What are the two broad mechanisms of maintaining tolerance?
* Central Tolerance
* Peripheral Tolerance
118
What occurs during central tolerance?
Immature self-reactive T and B cells are eliminated or rendered harmless in primary lymphoid organs
## Footnote
This process includes clonal deletion in T cells.
119
What is the clonal deletion theory?
Immature T cells that recognize self antigens undergo apoptosis in the thymus.
120
What role does the autoimmune regulator (AIRE) protein play?
Restricts peripheral tissue self antigens to the thymus by deleting immature T cells.
121
What happens if there is a loss-of-function mutation of AIRE?
It can lead to polyendocrine syndromes.
122
What is receptor editing in B cells?
Rearrangement of antigen receptors in developing B cells to not recognize self antigens.
123
What are the three ways peripheral tolerance can be induced?
* Anergy
* Suppression by regulatory T cells
* Deletion by apoptosis
124
What is anergy in the context of peripheral tolerance?
A state where lymphocytes recognizing self antigens are rendered functionally unresponsive.
125
What is the function of regulatory T cells?
Prevent immune reactions against self antigens and placental tissue.
126
Which markers are expressed by regulatory T cells?
CD25 and FOXP3.
127
What triggers deletion by apoptosis in T cells?
Signals promoting death through mechanisms like Bim or the Fas-Fas ligand system.
128
What are the three possible mechanisms of pathological autoimmune diseases?
* Defective tolerance mechanisms
* Abnormal display of self-antigen
* Role of infection and inflammation
129
What is the significance of HLA-B27 in autoimmune diseases?
Individuals with this gene have a significantly increased risk of developing ankylosing spondylitis.
130
What is molecular mimicry?
When infections share amino acid sequences with self antigens, leading to activation of self-reactive lymphocytes.
131
What are the functions of epithelial cells in innate immunity?
Serve as mechanical barriers and produce antimicrobial molecules like defensins.
132
What roles do monocytes and neutrophils play in the immune response?
Perform phagocytosis and transform into macrophages in various tissues.
133
What is the function of dendritic cells?
Specialized in antigen presentation and stimulating cytokine secretion.
134
What are pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)?
Microbial structures recognized by immune cells, essential for infectivity.
135
What are the classes of pattern recognition receptors?
* Toll-like receptors
* NOD-like receptors
* C-type lectin receptors
* RIG-like receptors
* Mannose receptors
136
What do Toll-like receptors activate?
Transcription factors NF-kB and interferon regulatory factors, stimulating cytokine synthesis.
137
What is the function of interferon in the innate immune response?
Acts as a nonspecific antiviral molecule, degrading viral nucleic acids and inhibiting replication.
138
True or False: The innate immune system has memory and antigen specificity.
False.
139
How does the innate immune system induce inflammation?
By recruiting cellular and protein components, characterized by vascular reactions and leukocyte activation.
