06 - Bacteriology Flashcards by Jasper Viloria

Most common cause of Acute Suppurative Otitis Media in children?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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Second most common cause of Acute Suppurative Otitis Media in children?

Haemophilus influenza, non-typable

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Genus: Gram (+) cocci in clusters

Staphylococcus

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Species: Catalase (+), Coagulase (+)

Staphylococcus aureus

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Species: Catalase (+), Coagulase (-), novobiocin susceptible

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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Species: Catalase (+), Coagulase (-), novobiocin resistant

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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Golden appearance of S. aureus on blood agar is due to what pigment:

staphyloxanthin

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Normal habitat of S. aureus in the body:

anterior nares and skin

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The enterotoxin of Staphylococcus is: heat-stable or heat-labile?

heat-stable

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This toxin of S. aureus causes epidermal separation. Identify this toxin. What disease does it cause?

Exfoliatin

-causes scalded skin syndrome (Ritter disease)

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Difference between SSS and TEN:

SSS: separation of skin at the stratum granulosum

- TEN: separation at the dermo-epidermal junction

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This toxin of S. aureus causes toxic shock syndrome:

TSST-1 (toxic shock syndrome toxin 1)

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This toxin causes marked necrosis of the skin and hemolysis

S. aureus alpha toxin

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Identify: bacterium that is the most common cause of acute endocarditis

Staphylococcus aureus

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Identify: bacterium that is the most common cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis. Specify!

viridans Streptococcus, specifically, Streptococcus sanguis

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Identify: bacterium that is the most common cause of native valve infection

Staphylococcus aureus

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Identify: bacterium that is the most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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Identify: usual scenario (food) of Staphylococcus aureus gastroenteritis

salad with mayonnaise (potato or tuna)

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Identify: usual scenario (2) of Staphylococcus aureus Toxic shock syndrome

tampon-using menstruating women

- nasal packing for epistaxis

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results of blood CS in TSS:

-negative

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Drug: Treatment for MRSA

Vancomycin

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Drug: Treatment for VRSA

linezolid

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what is the mechanism of development of resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to methicillin:

altered penicillin-binding proteins

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normal habitat of Staphylococcus epidermidis in the body:

skin

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Explain predisposition of prosthetics to Staphylococcus epidermidis infection.

S. epidermidis produces glycocalyx which adheres well to foreign bodies and forms biofilms

Identify the organism: Most common cause of osteomyelitis

Staphylococcus aureus

Identify the organism: Most common cause of septic arthritis in prosthetic joints

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Identify the organism: Most common cause of ventriculoperitoneal shunt infections?

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Drug: Treatment for Staphylococcus epidermidis

Vancomycin

Identify: Second most common cause of UTIs in sexually active women.

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Identify: catalase (-) alpha hemolytic opthochin-resistant

viridans Streptococcus

Identify: catalase (-) alpha hemolytic opthochin-susceptible

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Identify: catalase (-) beta hemolytic bacitracin-resistant

Streptococcus agalactiae

Identify: catalase (-) beta hemolytic bacitracin-susceptible

Streptococcus pyogenes

Identify: catalase (-) gamma-hemolytic

group D streptococcus

Enumerate: Streptococcal groups that are PYR-positive

groups A and D streptococci | PYR-negative: all the rest

normal habitat of Streptococcus pyogenes:

oropharynx (throat)

This virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes activates plasminogen:

streptokinase

This virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes degrades DNA in exudates or necrotic tissues: another name for this virulence factor:

- streptodornase | - DNAse B

This virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes inactivates C5a complement:

C5a peptidase

- This toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes is the basis for ASO testing for evidence of antecedent pharyngitis: - ASO stands for:

Streptolysin O -Anti-Streptolysin O (antibodies)

-This toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes causes scarlet fever:

Erythrogenic toxin

- Identify: this condition refers to rapidly progressive infection of deep subcutaneous tissues - what virulence factor facilitates this condition?

- Necrotizing fascitis | - Exotoxin B

Identify: test for documenting antecedent Streptococcal skin infection

Anti-DNAse B

Another name for Streptococcus pyogenes:

Group-A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS)

Possible complication of Impetigo contagiosa:

Post-Streptococcus glomerulonephritis

Identify: superficial infection extending into dermal lymphatics

Erysipelas

- Identify: deeper infection involving subcutaneous/dermal tissues - what virulence factor facilitates this condition?

- Cellulitis | - Hyaluronidase (spreading factor)

Identify: most common bacterial cause of pharyngitis

Streptococcus pyogenes

Identify: Test for determining immunity or susceptibility to Scarlet Fever:

Dick test

This toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes causes Toxic Shock Syndrome:

pyogenic Exotoxin A

- Pathophysiology of Acute Rheumatic Fever: | - What type of hypersensitivity?

- cross reaction of M protein antigen to the antigens of heart, joints, and brain - type II hypersensitivity

Enumerate: (2) steptococcal infections that can lead to Post-Strep glomerulonephritis

1. Post-pharyngitic | 2. Post-impetigo

Enumerate: (3) Infections with these organims can cause severe pulmonary hemorrhage:

1. Bacillus anthracis 2. Leptospira 3. Treponema pallidum (in congenital syphillis)

Another name for Streptococcus agalactiae:

Group B streptococcus | GBS

Most common cause of neonatal meningitis?

Streptococcus agalactiae

Enumerate: species belonging to group D streptococcus

Enterococcus faecalis | Streptococcus bovis

normal habitat of group D strep in the human body:

colon, urethra, female genial tract

This organism causes endocarditis in patients who have undergone GI tract surgery:

Enterococcus faecalis

Treatment for Group D streptococcus:

Penicillin + gentamicin

What does a positive Quellung reaction signify?

Presence of a capsule

Enumerate: encapsulated bacteria

``` Streptococcus pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Pseudomonas aeruginosa Neisseria meningitidis Salmonella typhi B group streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae) ``` Some Killers Have Pretty Nice and Shiny Bodies

Identify: what organism is the most common cause of CAP?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

vaccine against Steptococcus pneumoniae

polyvalent (23-type) polysaccharide vaccine

Enumerate: species belonging to viridans Streptococci

Streptococcus mutans | Streptococcus sanguis

Normal habitat of viridans Streptococci

oropharynx

Normal habitat of Bacillus anthracis:

soil

How is Bacillus anthracis transmitted?

inhalation of spores from animal hair

Form of anthrax in which direct epidermal contact with the spores causes formation of a malignant pustule with subsequent eschar and central necrosis

Cutaneous anthrax

Form of anthrax in which ingestion of live spores lead to upper GI ulceration, edema, and sepsis

Gastrointestinal anthrax

- Form of anthrax caused by inhalation of the spores. Another name for this? - What is the deadly complication of this disease?

- inhalational anthrax (woolsorter's disease) | - massive pulmonary hemorrhage

Enumerate: two toxins of Bacillus cereus

- cholera-like enterotoxin (heat-labile enterotoxin, diarrheal form) - staphylococcal-like enterotoxin (heat-stable enterotoxin, emetic form) Nagtatae at Nagsusuka!

Where is the heat-stable enterotoxin of B. cereus formed?

Reheated food (rice)

Where is the heat-labile enterotoxin of B. cereus formed?

Produced in the gut

Toxin of Clostridium botulinum:

Botulinum toxin

Pathogenesis of botulinum toxin:

Blocks acetylcholine release, causing flaccid paralysis (descending pattern)

commercial form of the botulinum toxin:

Botox

Enumerate: triad of botulism:

1. symmetric descending paralysis (with prominent bulbar involvement) 2. absence of fever 3. intact sensorium

- Pathogenesis of infant botulism. | - another name for this condition?

-babies infest spores in household dust or raw honey, symptomatic due to the lack of competitive bowel microbes

treatment of botulism:

Metronidazole or penicillin

- Identify: rapidly spreading gangrene occurring in dirty wounds infected by bacteria that give off a foul-smelling gas. - what organism causes this?

Gas gangrene Clostridium perfringens

What toxin causes gas gangrene?

alpha toxin (of Clostridium perfringens)

What is the pathophysiology of pseudomembranous colitis? | What toxins are involved?

- antibiotics kill flora of the gut, increasing population of Clostridium difficile - Exotoxins A and B inhibit GTPases, leading to apoptosis and death of enterocytes

Enumerate: (3) antibiotics often associated with pseudomembranous colitis:

- clindamycin - ampicillin - 2nd and 3rd gen cephalosporin

Species of Clostridium associated with traumatic wound infections:

Clostridium tertium

Species of Clostridium implicated in toxic shock syndrome associated with septic abortion

Clostridium sordellii

Species of Clostridium associated with nontraumatic myonecrosis in immunocompromised patients:

Clostridium septicum

Identify: test for the toxigenicity of Corynebacterium diptheriae

Elek test

Treatment for Diptheria:

Penicillin G and antitoxin

Virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes that interacts with E-cadherin on the surface of the cells

Internalin

Virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes that helps the organism escape from phagosomes:

listeriolysin

Virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes that propels the bacteria through the membrane of one human cell and into another

actin rockets

- How is early onset neonatal listeriosis transmitted? - another name for this disease? - manifestations?

- transplacentally - granulomatosis infantiseptica - multiorgan abscess and disseminated granulomas

- How is late onset neonatal listeriosis transmitted? | - manifestations?

- transmitted during childbirth | - meningitis or meninggoencephalitis

Treatment of Listeriosis:

ampicillin with or without gentamycin

Prevention of listeriosis:

Pregnant women should avoid ingesting unpasteurized milk products and raw vegetable

Identify: - Gram (-) - encapsulated - ferments maltose and glucose

Neisseria meningitidis Meningitidis = with Maltose

Identify: - Gram (-) - insignificant capsule - ferments glucose only

Neisseria gonorrhoeae gonorhoeae = Glucose only

Most common cause of meningitis among children 2-18 years old:

Neisseria meningitidis

Identify: dissemination of meningococci into the blood stream

Meningococcemia

Identify: most severe form of meningococcemia, with bilateral hemorrhage of the adrenal glands

Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

Treatment of meningococcemia:

Penicillin G

The modified Thayer-Martin medium contains the following antibiotics: (enumerate (3))

- Vancomycin - colistin - nystatin

Endotoxin of Neisseria gonorrhoeae

lipooligosaccharide

What organism is usually co-infective with N. gonorrhoeae?

Chlamydia trachomatis

What organism is the most common cause of urethritis?

Neisseria gonorhoeae

What organism is the most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease?

Neisseria gonorhoeae

What organism is the most common cause of septic arthritis in sexually active adults?

Neisseria gonorhoeae

Treatment of gonorrhea

ceftriaxone + doxycycline

What diseases does nontypable Haemophilus influenza cause? Enumerate (3)

- sinusitis - otitis media - pneumonia

Treatment of Haemophilus influenzae

Ceftriaxone

What toxin of Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough?

tracheal cytotoxin

- Enumerate: Phases of Pertussis, in order | - in which phase is the whooping cough present?

1. incubation 2. catarrhal 3. paroxysmal (whooping cough) 4. convalescent

Stain used to visualize Legionella pneumophila:

silver stain

Virulence factor of Legionella pneumophila

Endotoxin

Symptoms of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila (2)

nonbloody diarrhea | hyponatremia

HACEK organisms

- Haemophilus aphrophilus - Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans - Cardiobacterium hominis - Ekenella corrodens - Kingella kingae

Identify: Virulent factor of E. coli used for motility:

H (flagellum)

Identify: virulent factor of the E. coli (endotoxin)

O antigen

Second most common cause of neonatal meningitis?

E. coli

Most common cause of community-acquired UTI?

E. coli

Treatment of E. coli:

Ampicillin or sulfonamides for UTI, 3rd gen cephalosporins for menigitis

Triad in Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome (enumerate)

1. Hemolytic anemia 2. Uremia 3. Thrombocytopenia

Identify: Test for antibodies of Salmonella:

Widal test

Habitat of Salmonella typhi:

human colon only

Habitat of Salmonella enteritidis:

enteric tract of humans and animals

what virulence factor of Salmonella typhi is responsible for the pathogenesis of typhoid fever?

Vi (virulence) capsular antigen

- Best source of specimen for culture of Salmonella in week 1 of infection? - week 2? - wee 3?

1. blood 2. urine 3. stool

Osteomyelitis in burn patients is most likely caused by:

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Osteomyelitis in IV drug abusers is most likely caused by: (2)

- Staphylococcus aureus | - Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell anemia is most likely caused by:

Salmonella choleraesuis

Enterotoxin produced by Shigella:

Shiga toxin

Identify: most common cause of bacillary dysentery

Shigella sonnei (Duval's bacillus)

Identify: most common cause of epidemic dysentery:

Shigella dysenteriae type (Shiga bacillus)

Identify: causes the most severe form of bacillary dysentery:

Shigella dysenteriae type (Shiga bacillus)

Treatment of bacillary dysentery:

Ciprofloxacin

Species of Vibrio that live in human colon only:

Vibrio cholera

Enterotoxin caused by Vibrio:

choleragen

Most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis:

Campylobacter jejuni

Enumerate: syndromes (2) associated with Campylobacter jejuni infection:

- Guillian-Barre syndrome | - Reiter syndrome

Enumerate: Urease-positive bacteria (4)

- Proteus mirabilis - Ureaplasma urelyticum - Helicobacter pylori - Klebsiella pneumoniae

describe: Pathogenesis of H. pylori

- damages goblet cells | - urease produces ammonia, neutralizing the acids of the stomach (for its own survival)

(2) tests for detection of H. pylori:

- urease breath test | - EGD with biopsy

Helicobacter pylori is associated with these malignancies: (enumerate, 2)

- gastric carcinoma | - MALT lymphomas

Enumerate: components of Reiter syndrome (triad)

- Uveitis - Urethritis - reactive arthritis Can't see, can't pee, can't bend my knee

Identify: Most common cause of pneumonia in alcoholics:

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How to treat Klebsiella

preferrably culture-guided (cephalosporins alone or with aminoglycosides

This species of bacteria is associated with struvite stones and staghorn calculi

Proteus mirabilis

Treatment of Proteus mirabilis:

Co-trimoxazole or ampicillin

This virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa damages the cilia and mucosal cells

pyocyanin

Enumerate: (4) skin and soft tissue conditions associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection

- burn wound infections - hot tub folliculitis - skin graft loss due to infection - green nail syndrome

Most common cause of otitis externa:

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Most common cause of malignant otitis externa in diabetics:

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Most common cause of chronic suppurative otitis media

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Enumerate: (2) types of pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa

- Ventilator-associated pneumonia | - high-risk CAP

3rd most common cause of nosocomial UTIs

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What organism must always be considered when treating infectious diseases in diabetic patients?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Drug that is added for refractory cases of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection:

Rifampicin

Predominant anaerobe of the human colon

Bacteroides fragilis

How is Bacteroides fragilis transmitted?

spreads to blood or peritoneum during bowel trauma, perforation, or surgery

Bacteria whose LPS has low endotoxic activity:

Bacteroides fragilis

Treatment for Bacteroides fragilis (3):

- metronidazole - clindamycin - cefoxitin

Drug that is given as prophylaxis before GI surgeries:

cefoxitin

Enumerate: (4) zoonoses

- Brucella abortus - Francisella tularensis - Yersinia pestis - Pasteurella multocida Bugs From Your Pets

Identify: animal reservoir of Brucella abortus:

cattle

Treatment of Brucellosis:

doxycyclin + rifampin

Enumerate: animal reservoir of Francisella tularensis (3)

rabbits, deer, and rodents

How is Francisella tularensis transmitted? Give the genus of the vector

bite of ticks (Dermacentor)

treatment of Tularemia:

streptomycin or gentamicin

most virulent bacteria (ever???)

Yersinia pestis

Reservoir of Yesinia pestis:

rodents

How is Yesinia pestis transmitted?

flea bite or inhalation

Term for armpit or groin lymphadenopathy

bubo(es)

Treatment of Yersinia pestis:

streptomycin, and tetracyclines

Enumerate (2): Animal reservoir of Pasteurella multocida:

cats and dogs

How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted?

animal bites

treatment of Pasteurella multocida

Penicillin G

2 methods of acid-fast staining:

Kinyoun | Ziehl-Neelsen

Identify: fatty acids in the cell walls of acid-fast organisms:

mycolic acid

Identify: assay that tests for drug resistance of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

luciferase assay

- most important virulence factor for Mycobacterium tuberculosis: - a.k.a.

cord factor | a.k.a. mycolic acid

This virulence factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis triggers cell-mediated immunity leading to granuloma formation, and delayed type hypersensitivity

tuberculin surface protein

Enumerate: 2 typess of lesions caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection:

1. Exudative lesions | 2. Granulomatous lesions

Describe the histopathology of granulomatous lesions:

central area of Langhan giant cells surrounded by a zone of epitheloid cells

Enumerate: 3 interpretations of positive PPD skin test result:

- current infection or active disease - past exposure - BCG vaccine

Enumerate: 2 interpretations of negative PPD skin test result:

- no infection | - anergy (e.g. in immunocompromised, malnutririon, etc.)

Most common extrapulmonary TB:

scruffula

What is MAC? (mycobacterium)

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex

At what CD4 levels is MAC seen in immunocompromised patients?

CD4 < 50

Treatment for MAC:

Azithromycin + ethambutol

Reservoir of Mycobacterium leprae (enumerate)

humans, armadillo

Lethal form of leprosy

Lepromatous Leprosy

Leonine facies are seen in what condition:

Lepromatous leprosy

Identify: tender red nodules or humps on both shins that signal acute flare-ups of lepromatous leprosy

erythema nodosum leprosum

Enumerate: 2 species of actinomycetes:

- Actinomyces israelii | - Nocardia asteroides

treatment of actinomycosis

penicillin G + drainage Sulfur for Nocardia; for Actinomyces, use Penicillin G S-N-A-P

treatment of nocardiosis

co-trimoxazole + drainage Sulfur for Nocardia; for Actinomyces, use Penicillin G S-N-A-P

Species of bacterium implicated among 5-15 y.o with persistent pulmonary infection

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Smallest free-living organism

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Virulence factor of Mycoplasma pneumoniae that facilitates attachment, inhibition of ciliary motion, and necrosis

toll-like receptor 2 protein (P1 adhesin)

- most common type of atypical pneumonia | - causative organism?

- Walking pneumonia | - Mycoplasma pneumoniae

DOC for Mycoplasma pneumoniae

eryhtromycin or azithromycin

Bacterium that has no cell wall

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Only bacteria with cholesterol in cell membrane

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

These are autoantibodies that target host human RBCs and cause them to clump together at cold temperatures; expressed as a virulence factor of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

cold agglutinins

Enumerate: 3 species of spirochetes:

- Treponema pallidum - Borrelia burgdorferi - Leptospira interrogans

Most important diagnostic test in testing for Primary syphillis

dark-field microscopy

Screening tests (2) for secondary/tertiary syphillis

RPR/VDRL

Identify: confirmatory test for secondary/tertiary syphillis

FTA-ABS (Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody test)

term for nontender ulcer in the genitals

chancre non-tendER ang chancER!!!

- term for painful ulcer in the genitals | - what is the causative organism?

- chancroid | - Haemophilus ducreyi

Lesion characteristic in secondary syphillis

condyloma lata

Lesion characteristic in tertiary syphillis

gumma

- Condition: degeneration of the dorsal columns of the spinal cord and dorsal roots - this condition is seen in what stage of treponemal infection?

- tabes dorsalis | - tertiatry syphillis

- Identify: condition where the pupils constrict to accomodate to nearby objects but are unable to constrict as a reaction to light. - Another name for this condition?

- Argyll-Robertson pupil | - a.k.a. prostitute's pupil

Most common cause of death in congenital syphillis:

pulmonary hemorrhage

Treatment of Treponema:

Penicillin G

This reaction refers to the influenza-like symptoms few hours after receiving penicillin, due to lysis of treponemes

Jarsich-Herxheimer reaction

Largest medically important bacteria

Borrelia burgdorferi

How is Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted?

Bite of deer ticks (Ixodes)

Skin lesion at the early stages of Lyme disease

erythema chronicus migrans

Skin lesion at the late stages of Lyme disease

acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans

Non-skin manifestations of lyme disease: (enumerate 3)

1st degree AV block, meningitis Bell's palsy

How is Leptospira interrogans transmitted?

contact with animal urine

gold standard for testing for Lepstospira interrogans:

leptoMAT (leptospire microscropic agglutination test)

2 phases of leptopirosis

1. Acute leptospiremic phase | 2. Immune leptospiruric phase

Enumerate: 2 manifestations in acute leptospiremic phase:

- calf tenderness | - conjunctival suffusion

- Identify: most severe form of Leptospirosis. - Enumerate: triad of symptoms - most common cause of death in this form of Leptospirosis:

- Weil syndrome - jaundice, bleeding, uremia - pulmonary failure from massive pulmonary hemorrhage

Treatment for mild leptospirosis:

doxycycline

Treatment for severe leptospirosis

ceftriaxone

Enumerate: 4 manifestations of immune leptospiruric phase:

- aseptic meningitis - pulmonary involvement - hepatic necrosis - glomerulonephritis (immune complex deposition) head, lung, liver, kidney!!!

This species of bacterium is an energy parasite that uses host ATP:

Chlamydia trachomatis

The cell walls of Chlamydia trachomatis lack this sugar building block:

Muramic acid (N-acetylmuramic acid, or NAM)

Enumerate: 2 species of obligate intracellular bacteria:

Ricketssia | Chlamydia

What is the most common STD overall?

Chlamydia

- Enumerate: cellular forms of Chlamydia trachomatis (2). | - Which one is inactive? intracellular?

- Elementary body (inactive, extracellular) | - Reticulate body (active, intracellular)

How does the active form of Chlamydia trachomatis enter the cells?

via Endocytosis. Elementary body = Enfectious form, Enters cell via Endocytosis

- Identify: chronic conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis that progress to scarring and blindness - What subtypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause this?

- Trachoma - types A-C A to C, cant See!!!

What subtypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause genital infection?

types D-K my D To your K

Enumerate: (2) infections that are associated with Reiter syndrome:

- Chlamydia trachomatis | - Campylobacter jejuni

Complication of pelvic inflammatory disease:

infertility

What subtypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause neonatal pneumonia?

types D-K

- Identify: disease manifested by the formation of buboes, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis - what subtypes cause this?

Lymphogranuloma venereum -subtypes L1-L3

- Enumerate: 3 causes of atypical pneumonia | - What makes the pneumonia atypical?

- Mycoplasma pneumoniae- walking pneumonia - Legionella pneumophila - (+) diarrhea and hyponatremia - Chlamydophila pneumoniae - increased risk of atherosclerosis

Treatment of Chlamydia STD:

azithromycin

Treatment of Chlamydia conjunctivitis:

erythromycin

Treatment of Chlamydia lymphagranuloma venereum:

doxycycline

Treatment of Chlamydia psittacosis:

azithromycin

- Diagnostic test for the detection of Rickettsiae | - explain the mechanism of this reaction

- Weil-Felix reaction | - cross-reaction with antigens of OX strains of Proteus vulgaris

DOC for all rickettsial infections:

doxycycline

Microorganism that causes Cat scratch disease:

Bartonella henselae

Identify: Manifestation of cat scratch disease in immunocompetent individuals:

Cat scratch fever

Identify: Manifestation of cat scratch disease in immunocompromised individuals:

Bacillary angiomatosis

06 - Bacteriology Flashcards

(253 cards)