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Question 1

What are the serological markers for rheumatic fever?

Answer 1

antimyocardial antibodies

Question 2

What are the serological markers for Wegener’s granulomatosis?

Answer 2

antineutrophilic antibodies

Question 3

What are the serological markers for CREST syndrome?

Answer 3

anticentromere antibodies

Question 4

What are the serological markers for primary biliary cirrhosis?

Answer 4

antimitochondrial antibodies

Question 5

Which culture media is specific for Salmonella typhi?

Answer 5

bismuth sulfite

Question 6

What is the term for amino acids having more than one codon to direct their placement?

Answer 6

degeneracy

Question 7

What is the term for the whole genetic code?

Answer 7

genome

Question 8

What is the term for the formation of amino acids from RNA?

Answer 8

translation

Question 9

What is the term for a short, single-stranded nucleic acid?

Answer 9

oligonucleotide

Question 10

What is the normal BUN range?

Answer 10

5-20 mg/dL

Question 11

What is the normal creatinine range?

Answer 11

0.6-1.2 mg/dL

Question 12

How do the BUN and creatinine levels present in kidney impairment?

Answer 12

grossly elevated creatinine accompanied by an elevated BUN

Question 13

What is the term for fluid accumulation due to malfunction of the body’s ability to form and reabsorb fluid?

Answer 13

transudate

Question 14

What is the term for an excess accumulation of fluid within any of the body’s serous cavities?

Answer 14

effusion

Question 15

What immunodeficiency disorder is actually a group of congenital disorders in which both the humoral and cell-mediated portions of the immune system are dysfunctional?

Answer 15

severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)

Question 16

What are the characteristics of SCID?

Answer 16

lymphopenia, hypogammaglobulinemia, small thymus, no tonsils or lymph nodes; patients are vulnerable to recurrent severe infections, retarded growth, and early death

Question 17

Which immune elements are involved in a positive TB skin test?

Answer 17

T-cells and macrophages

Question 18

Which bacterial genus appears as a Gram+ bacilli with spores (isolated from an aerobic culture)?

Answer 18

Bacillus sp.

Question 19

Which bacterial genus appears as thin, filamentous, branching, poorly-staining Gram+ bacilli that can also be partially acid-fast?

Answer 19

Nocardia sp.

Question 20

Which bacterial genus appears as short, Gram+ bacilli with “picket-fence” or “Chinese lettering” arrangement?

Answer 20

Corynebacterium sp.

Question 21

Which bacterial genus appears as regular, rectangular, non-spore forming Gram+ bacilli with a tendency to form short chains?

Answer 21

Lactobacillus sp.

Question 22

What stain is used to confirm the presence of Heinz bodies?

Answer 22

supravital stain (methylene blue or brilliant cresyl blue)

Question 23

What is capillary electrophoresis (CE)?

Answer 23

a newer method of highly automated electropheresis in which the separation and migration of the individual solutes occurs inside a capillary tube

Question 24

What are the two main characteristics of an immunoassay that has high specificity but low sensitivity?

Answer 24

identifies the absence of disease, has few false positives

Question 25

How can Chrysosporium sp. be distinguished from Blastomyces dermatitidis?

Answer 25

Chrysosporium is not converted to a yeast at 37*C, and it will not grow on cycloheximide-containing media

Question 26

How are Chrysosporium and Blastomyces similar?

Answer 26

mold form shows small, smooth, oval microconidia, each supported by a conidiophore ("lollipop" appearance)

Question 27

What characteristics do Sepedonium sp. share with the mold form of Histoplasma capsulatum?

Answer 27

production of large, spherical macroconidia, which may have a prickly surface when mature

Question 28

What characteristic do Malbranchia sp. share with the mold form of Coccidioides immitis?

Answer 28

produces alternate-staining arthroconidia

Question 29

Compare and contrast Scedosporium sp. with Blastomyces dermatitidis.

Answer 29

both produce single, oval, microconidia; however, Scedosporium sp. are slightly larger and have a darker pigmentation

Question 30

Can saprophytic molds grow as molds?

Answer 30

no

Question 31

What is the main limitation of standard PCR that is not present in real-time PCR?

Answer 31

inability to quantitate DNA product due to endpoint analysis only

Question 32

What is the effect of dehydration on urea levels?

Answer 32

decreases them

Question 33

The gametocytes of which Plasmodium species grows inside a red cell until the cell is destroyed?

Answer 33

Plasmodium falciparum

Question 34

What does nephelometry measure?

Answer 34

light scatter

Question 35

MacConkey agar without crystal violet is useful in the presumptive ID of what organism?

Answer 35

Mycobacterium fortuitum/chelonei

Question 36

What media is used to culture Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Answer 36

methylene blue-glucose diphasic media

Question 37

What media is used to culture Legionella pneumophila?

Answer 37

buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE)

Question 38

What media is used to culture Vibrio parahemolyticus?

Answer 38

thiosulfate citrate bile sucrose (TCBS)

Question 39

An increase in unconjugated bilirubin, accompanied by normal serum alkaline phosphate, normal liver enzymes, and no urine bilirubin, would suggest what?

Answer 39

increased rate of hemolysis

Question 40

Light grey-white, border to border fungal growth from a clinical specimen is usually suggestive of what?

Answer 40

Zygomycete contaminant

Question 41

Which Zygomycete appears under a lactophenol blue mount with non-septate hyphae terminating in large globose phialides with lateral branches giving rise to columella, to which loose clusters of sporangiola are attached?

Answer 41

Cunninghamella sp.

Question 42

What kind of infection can Cunninghamella species cause?

Answer 42

skin and internal infections in immunosuppressed patients (from disease, chemotherapy, or post-surgery)

Question 43

Sporangiophores with a distinctive backward curve leading to globose sporangia at the tips, and whose sporangiospores commonly stain brown, are characteristic of what organism?

Answer 43

Circinella sp.

Question 44

Spherical sporangium at the tip of narrow sporangiophores; distinctive cylindrical arrangement of elongated merosporangia from sporangium surface ("daisy petal"); and tiny sporangiospores aligned in tandem with each merosporangium, are all characteristic of what organism?

Answer 44

Syncephalostrum sp.

Question 45

Rheumatoid factor in RA is primarily what class of immunoglobulin?

Answer 45

IgM

Question 46

What is the term that describes what the body does to a drug after it is introduced to the body, specifically in terms of absorption, distribution, chemical changes, and excretion?

Answer 46

pharmacokinetic

Question 47

What are pharmacodynamics?

Answer 47

what a drug does to the body in terms of physiological response

Question 48

Define lookback.

Answer 48

procedures that must be followed by a transfusion service when they are told that a previous donor now tests positive for an infectious disease

Question 49

What is the chief biochemical marker of Klebsielleae?

Answer 49

Voges-Proskauer

Question 50

What is the chief biochemical marker of Proteeae/

Answer 50

phenylalanine deaminase

Question 51

What is the chief biochemical marker of Escherichieae?

Answer 51

++-- IMViC

Question 52

What does IMViC stand for?

Answer 52

indole, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, citrate

Question 53

What is the chief biochemical marker of Edwardsielleae?

Answer 53

hydrogen sulfide (H2S)

Question 54

What are the two main mechanisms of the relationship between cardiovascular disease and adipose tissue?

Answer 54

1) inflammatory cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue, contribute; 2) the state of abnormal lipids and lipid levels found in metabolic syndrome also contribute to cardiovascular disease

Question 55

Which hemoglobin is increased in delta-beta thalassemia?

Answer 55

Hgb F

Question 56

Which adipokine is decreased in obesity, anti-inflammatory, and increases insulin sensitivity?

Answer 56

adiponectin

Question 57

African-American alpha-thalassemia patients most likely have which form of the disease?

Answer 57

homozygous minor

Question 58

Agglutination of red cells prior to the addition of antiglobulin reagent has what effect on both the IAT and DAT?

Answer 58

can cause false positives

Question 59

What method can distinguish Howell-Jolly bodies from Pappenheimer bodies, and what are the results?

Answer 59

Prussian blue stain; Pappenheimer bodies will stain, while Howell-Jolly bodies will not

Question 60

What is the state of bone marrow in alpha- thalassemia?

Answer 60

hyperplasia

Question 61

Is an infection from Vibrio vulnificus disseminated or localized?

Answer 61

disseminated

Question 62

Is an infection from Staphylococcus aureus disseminated or localized?

Answer 62

localized

Question 63

Is an infection from Erysipelothrix musiopathiae disseminated or localized?

Answer 63

localized

Question 64

Is an infection from Salmonella typhi disseminated or localized?

Answer 64

disseminated

Question 65

How do whole blood glucose levels relate to those of serum?

Answer 65

they are lower

Question 66

Electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 can indicate what two things?

Answer 66

myocardial infarction, hemolysis

Question 67

What is the animal resevoir for Salmonella enteritidis?

Answer 67

poultry

Question 68

What is the animal resevoir for Escherichia blattae?

Answer 68

cockroaches

Question 69

What is the animal resevoir for Edwardsiella tarda?

Answer 69

reptiles

Question 70

What erroneous effect does cryoglobulin or cryofibrinogen have on an automated platelet count?

Answer 70

increases it

Question 71

What erroneous effect do WBC fragments or hemolysis have on an automated platelet count?

Answer 71

increases it

Question 72

What erroneous effect does clotting or platelet satellitosis have on an automated platelet count?

Answer 72

decreases it

Question 73

What erroneous effect does platelet clumping have on an automated platelet count?

Answer 73

decreases it

Question 74

Which lipoprotein transports the majority of cholesterol to cells for steroid hormone synthesis or cell membrane inclusion?

Answer 74

LDL

Question 75

True or False: individuals infected with the 2009 influenza A H1N1 virus do not require treatment.

Answer 75

true

Question 76

What is the ultimate end product of both epinephrine and norepinephrine metabolism?

Answer 76

vanillylmandellic acid (VMA)

Question 77

How does salicylic acid (aspirin) specifically affect platelet function?

Answer 77

inhibits cyclooxygenase